Tüm alıştırma soruları

3881 soru

Soru 2981Soru →

During hourly rounding on an orthopedic unit, the nurse evaluates a client recovering from a total hip arthroplasty performed 6 hours ago. The client's pain is being managed with a continuous bupivacaine epidural infusion. The client states, 'My lips feel completely numb, and I have a strange metallic taste in my mouth.' The client also mentions a persistent ringing sound in their ears. Which action should the nurse take first?

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Cevap: Stop the continuous epidural infusion pump and alert the anesthesia provider immediately.

Cevap

The nurse must immediately stop the epidural infusion and notify the anesthesia provider.
The client is exhibiting early, classic signs of Local Anesthetic Systemic Toxicity (LAST), which include a metallic taste, tinnitus (ringing in the ears), and perioral numbness. LAST is a life-threatening emergency caused by the systemic absorption of local anesthetics like bupivacaine. The absolute first priority is to stop the administration of the offending agent to prevent the progression to central nervous system excitation (seizures) and subsequent severe cardiovascular depression or arrest.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's reported symptoms: perioral numbness, metallic taste, and tinnitus.
Identify these specific findings as early central nervous system (CNS) manifestations of Local Anesthetic Systemic Toxicity (LAST).
Local anesthetics like bupivacaine can inadvertently enter the systemic circulation, leading to severe neurotoxicity before progressing to cardiotoxicity.
2
Determine the most critical immediate intervention for this life-threatening complication.
The source of the toxicity must be eliminated immediately by stopping the pump.
Continuing the infusion will deliver more of the toxic agent into the systemic circulation, causing the complication to rapidly progress to seizures, arrhythmias, and cardiac arrest.

Anahtar Kavram

Recognition and immediate management of Local Anesthetic Systemic Toxicity (LAST)
Soru 2982Soru →

A nurse is leading a health promotion seminar at a senior center. A 72-year-old attendee expresses concern about their risk for type 2 diabetes due to a strong family history and asks how to proactively prevent the condition. Which statement by the nurse provides the most appropriate guidance regarding lifestyle choices?

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Cevap: Adopting a routine of 150 minutes of moderate aerobic exercise per week and increasing your dietary intake of fiber-rich plant foods will significantly lower your risk.

Cevap

The correct response focuses on primary prevention through evidence-based lifestyle modifications, specifically engaging in regular moderate aerobic exercise and consuming a diet high in fiber.
The correct statement accurately identifies primary prevention strategies. Evidence-based lifestyle choices, including 150 minutes of moderate-intensity aerobic exercise weekly and a diet rich in plant-based fibers, directly reduce the risk of developing type 2 diabetes by improving insulin sensitivity and aiding in weight management.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Evaluate the client's request and clinical context.
The client is a healthy older adult seeking primary prevention strategies for type 2 diabetes.
Identifying the correct level of prevention (primary vs. secondary) is essential for providing accurate health education.
2
Analyze the options against evidence-based lifestyle guidelines.
Routine aerobic exercise and dietary modifications are proven primary prevention strategies.
Current health guidelines recommend 150 minutes of moderate activity weekly and dietary changes to directly reduce the incidence of type 2 diabetes.
3
Eliminate incorrect statements based on communication standards and nursing principles.
Dismiss options that provide false reassurance, assume disease is a normal part of aging, or confuse screening with prevention.
Eliminating distractors ensures the chosen response is both medically accurate and therapeutically sound.

Anahtar Kavram

Primary Prevention and Lifestyle Modifications
Soru 2983Soru →

An 85-year-old client residing in a long-term care facility suddenly exhibits severe agitation, disorientation, and disorganized thinking. The unlicensed assistive personnel reports that the client was completely alert, oriented, and calm earlier in the shift. In what order should the nurse perform the following assessment actions to evaluate this acute change? Arrange the steps from first (highest) priority to last (lowest) priority.

Öğeleri doğru sıraya koymak için sürükleyin

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Cevap

The correct priority order is to first assess ABCs and vital signs, followed by a rapid neurological assessment, checking blood glucose and infection signs, reviewing the medication record, and finally contacting the family for baseline cognitive history.
The correct sequence follows the airway, breathing, circulation (ABC) prioritizing framework, moving from immediate life-threatening physiological needs to focused physical assessments, and finally to historical data collection. Acute confusion in an older adult is considered delirium until proven otherwise and requires urgent investigation for underlying hypoxia, stroke, infection, or medication toxicity.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Assess airway, breathing, circulation, and vital signs including pulse oximetry.
Physiological stability is confirmed or immediate interventions are initiated.
Hypoxia or hemodynamic instability are critical, immediate life-threats that commonly present as acute confusion in older adults.
2
Perform a rapid neurological evaluation.
Focal neurological deficits (e.g., signs of a stroke) are ruled out or identified.
Acute cerebrovascular events require immediate, time-sensitive medical interventions and must be evaluated immediately after basic life support parameters.
3
Obtain capillary blood glucose and evaluate for signs of systemic infection (e.g., UTI, pneumonia).
Metabolic and infectious causes of delirium are identified.
Older adults often present with acute confusion as the primary or sole atypical symptom of an infection or metabolic imbalance.
4
Review the client's medication administration record (MAR).
Potential iatrogenic causes of confusion are identified.
Age-related physiological changes increase susceptibility to adverse drug events, making medication toxicity a frequent cause of acute mental status changes.
5
Interview family or caregivers to confirm baseline cognitive status.
The nurse establishes the exact symptom onset and differentiates acute delirium from chronic dementia.
Gathering collateral history provides essential context, but it is secondary to stabilizing and physically assessing the acutely changing client.

Anahtar Kavram

Prioritization of acute delirium assessment in the aging population
Soru 2984Soru →

Following a right total hip arthroplasty via a posterior approach, an older adult requires assistance with activities of daily living, elimination, and positioning. To ensure safety and promote comfort during the recovery period, which of the following actions should be incorporated into the client's daily care routine? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

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Cevap: Place an abduction wedge between the client's legs before repositioning them in bed; Ensure a raised toilet seat is installed before the client uses the bathroom for bowel elimination; Position the client on their non-operative side with pillows supporting the affected extremity

Cevap

The correct actions include using an abduction wedge during turning, ensuring a raised toilet seat is installed, and positioning the client on the non-operative side with pillow support.
The correct interventions strictly adhere to posterior hip precautions, which are essential to prevent joint dislocation. These include preventing hip adduction by using an abduction wedge when turning, preventing hip flexion greater than 90 degrees by utilizing a raised toilet seat, and keeping the operative leg in neutral alignment by supporting it with pillows when the client lies on their unaffected side.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the surgical procedure and its implications for basic care.
The client had a total hip arthroplasty via a posterior approach.
Identifying the approach determines the specific positioning precautions needed to prevent dislocation (avoiding flexion >90 degrees, adduction, and internal rotation).
2
Evaluate each intervention against posterior hip precautions.
Interventions that maintain abduction (wedge, pillows) and prevent severe flexion (raised toilet seat) are safe.
These specific mechanical constraints keep the femoral head securely within the acetabulum during healing.
3
Assess distractors for physiological safety and aging principles.
Standard bedpans and leaning forward violate hip precautions, while sudden confusion indicates pathology, not normal aging.
Basic care must integrate safety protocols and accurate assessment of physiological changes in the older adult.

Anahtar Kavram

Total Hip Arthroplasty (Posterior Approach) Basic Care and Positioning Precautions
Soru 2985Soru →

While caring for a client who is receiving intravenous antibiotics for acute pyelonephritis, the nurse monitors for systemic complications. Which assessment finding provides the earliest physiological indication that the client is developing septic shock?

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Cevap: Warm, flushed skin accompanied by a respiratory rate of 28 breaths/minute

Cevap

Warm, flushed skin accompanied by a respiratory rate of 28 breaths/minute.
In the early (hyperdynamic or 'warm') phase of septic shock, the release of inflammatory mediators causes widespread peripheral vasodilation, resulting in warm, flushed skin. Concurrently, the body compensates by increasing the respiratory rate to maximize tissue oxygen delivery, manifesting as early tachypnea. These subtle indicators often precede the classic signs of severe hypotension and cool extremities.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the clinical scenario.
The client has a severe bacterial infection (pyelonephritis) and is at risk for progressing to septic shock.
Identifying the primary risk factor helps anticipate the specific pathophysiological changes associated with that complication.
2
Identify the earliest physiological changes of septic shock.
Early septic shock (hyperdynamic phase) features massive peripheral vasodilation and a compensatory increase in cardiac output and respiratory rate.
Unlike other forms of shock, the initial phase of distributive shock presents with signs of high cardiac output before progressing to hypoperfusion.
3
Evaluate the options against early shock presentation.
Warm/flushed skin and tachypnea align with early vasodilation. Cool extremities indicate late shock. Respiratory acidosis contradicts early hyperventilation. Fever alone is an expected sign of infection.
Comparing all choices ensures the selected finding represents the earliest systemic hemodynamic decompensation.

Anahtar Kavram

Early Septic Shock Recognition
Tahmini Süre:1m 15s
Soru 2986Soru →

During the night shift, a registered nurse is called to the room of an 84-year-old client admitted with community-acquired pneumonia. The client has suddenly become severely agitated, is pulling at the intravenous (IV) tubing, and is attempting to get out of bed unassisted. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial nursing action?

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Cevap: Determine if the client has unmet physiological needs, such as a full bladder or pain, and initiate a bed alarm system.

Cevap

Determine if the client has unmet physiological needs, such as a full bladder or pain, and initiate a bed alarm system.
Sudden agitation in an older adult is highly suggestive of delirium, which is frequently triggered by unmet basic physiological needs such as a full bladder, pain, or hypoxia. The primary role of the nurse in promoting basic care and comfort is to identify and resolve these underlying issues while implementing the least restrictive safety measures possible, such as a bed alarm, to protect the client.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Recognize the clinical presentation.
The older adult client is exhibiting sudden severe agitation, confusion, and unsafe behaviors.
Identifying acute changes in mental status is critical, as they often point to underlying, reversible physiological problems rather than chronic cognitive decline.
2
Prioritize nursing interventions based on the least restrictive environment and fundamental care needs.
The nurse plans to assess for reversible causes (e.g., full bladder, hypoxia, pain) and utilize a bed alarm rather than immediately applying physical restraints.
Basic care and comfort principles dictate that addressing fundamental physiological needs and using non-pharmacological, non-restrictive measures must occur before escalating to restraints.

Anahtar Kavram

Basic Care and Comfort: Non-Pharmacological Comfort and Safety in Delirium
Soru 2987Soru →

A client admitted with an acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) has the following arterial blood gas (ABG) results: pH 7.26, PaCO₂ 58 mm Hg, and HCO₃⁻ 24 mEq/L. Based on these physiological values, which acid-base imbalance is the client experiencing?

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Cevap: Uncompensated respiratory acidosis

Cevap

Uncompensated respiratory acidosis
The client is experiencing uncompensated respiratory acidosis. The pH is 7.26, which is below the normal range (7.35-7.45) and indicates acidemia. The PaCO2 is 58 mm Hg, which is above the normal range (35-45 mm Hg) and acts as an acid, identifying the respiratory system as the source of the acidosis. The HCO3- is 24 mEq/L, which falls within the normal range (22-26 mEq/L), indicating that the kidneys have not yet initiated compensation by retaining bicarbonate.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the pH value.
The pH is 7.26 (normal is 7.35 to 7.45). Since it is below 7.35, the primary imbalance is acidosis.
Determining the pH establishes whether the overall state is acidotic or alkalotic.
2
Analyze the PaCO2 value.
The PaCO2 is 58 mm Hg (normal is 35 to 45 mm Hg). Because it is elevated and goes in the opposite direction of the pH, the cause is respiratory.
PaCO2 represents the respiratory component. An elevated PaCO2 causes acidosis.
3
Analyze the HCO3- value.
The HCO3- is 24 mEq/L (normal is 22 to 26 mEq/L). Since it is within the normal range, no metabolic compensation is occurring.
HCO3- represents the metabolic (renal) component. A normal value indicates the kidneys have not compensated for the respiratory problem.

Anahtar Kavram

Arterial Blood Gas (ABG) Interpretation
Soru 2988Soru →

A critical care nurse is monitoring a client admitted with severe acute necrotizing pancreatitis. The client's central venous pressure (CVP) has decreased from 8 mm Hg to 2 mm Hg over the last four hours. Which of the following assessment findings indicate the client is developing hypovolemic shock secondary to massive third-spacing of fluids? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

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Cevap: Narrowing of the arterial pulse pressure; Capillary refill time of 5 seconds; Urine output of 30 mL over the previous 2 hours

Cevap

The clinical indicators of developing hypovolemic shock in this client are a narrowing of the arterial pulse pressure, a capillary refill time of 5 seconds, and a urine output of 30 mL over the previous 2 hours.
In severe acute pancreatitis, increased capillary permeability leads to a massive shift of intravascular fluid into the third space (retroperitoneal cavity). This fluid loss reduces circulating blood volume, lowering the central venous pressure. As the body enters hypovolemic shock, compensatory mechanisms engage: peripheral vasoconstriction causes a narrowed arterial pulse pressure and a prolonged capillary refill time (> 3 seconds), while decreased renal perfusion leads to oliguria (urine output < 30 mL/hr).

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the pathophysiology of the condition.
Severe acute pancreatitis causes systemic inflammation and increased capillary permeability, leading to massive fluid shifts from the intravascular space into the retroperitoneal space (third-spacing).
Understanding the fluid shift explains the drop in central venous pressure (CVP) and the development of relative hypovolemia.
2
Identify the expected physiological compensation for hypovolemia.
The body activates the sympathetic nervous system to maintain blood pressure by inducing peripheral vasoconstriction and shunting blood to vital organs.
This compensation directly manifests as specific clinical signs in the patient.
3
Evaluate the options against the signs of hypovolemic shock.
Vasoconstriction causes narrowed pulse pressure and prolonged capillary refill. Decreased renal perfusion causes oliguria. Acidosis, not alkalosis, is expected. Neck veins should be flat, and skin should be cool/clammy.
Matching the expected physiological responses to the options isolates the correct findings.

Anahtar Kavram

Hypovolemic Shock and Third-Spacing in Acute Pancreatitis
Soru 2989Soru →

A client is admitted to the intensive care unit with a severe intra-abdominal infection. The nurse is monitoring the client's hemodynamic parameters to assess for the development of early (hyperdynamic) septic shock. Which clinical and hemodynamic findings indicate that the client is experiencing this specific physiological state? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

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Cevap: Cardiac index of 4.8 L/min/m²; Widening pulse pressure; Central venous oxygen saturation (ScvO₂) of 84%

Cevap

The findings indicating early (hyperdynamic) septic shock are a cardiac index of 4.8 L/min/m², a widening pulse pressure, and a central venous oxygen saturation (ScvO₂) of 84%.
Early (hyperdynamic) septic shock is characterized by massive vasodilation, resulting in a widened pulse pressure. The body compensates with an increased heart rate and stroke volume, leading to an elevated cardiac index. Despite the high oxygen delivery, cellular mitochondrial dysfunction prevents tissues from extracting oxygen, causing the central venous oxygen saturation (ScvO₂) to be abnormally high.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the physiological characteristics of the early (hyperdynamic) phase of septic shock.
Early septic shock is a distributive shock caused by massive systemic vasodilation, increased capillary permeability, and a cellular inability to utilize oxygen.
Understanding the underlying pathophysiology is required to interpret the complex hemodynamic parameters accurately.
2
Evaluate the systemic vascular resistance (SVR) and pulse pressure.
Massive vasodilation causes a profound decrease in SVR and a disproportionate drop in diastolic blood pressure, leading to a widened pulse pressure.
Vasodilation is the hallmark of distributive shock, differentiating it from cardiogenic or hypovolemic shock where SVR is compensatory and elevated.
3
Analyze the compensatory cardiac response.
To compensate for the low SVR and maintain perfusion, the heart rate and stroke volume increase, resulting in an elevated cardiac output (CO) and cardiac index (CI) above the normal 2.5-4.0 L/min/m².
This hyperdynamic state is responsible for the 'warm' presentation of early sepsis, contrasting with the low cardiac output of other shock states.
4
Assess cellular oxygen extraction via ScvO₂.
Due to mitochondrial dysfunction and microvascular shunting, tissues cannot extract oxygen efficiently, causing the ScvO₂ to rise above the normal 65-75%.
This highly specific finding distinguishes early sepsis from conditions with low cardiac output where tissues extract maximum oxygen, causing a low ScvO₂.

Anahtar Kavram

Hemodynamic profile and cellular oxygen utilization in the hyperdynamic phase of septic shock
Soru 2990Soru →

A client is receiving care in the intensive care unit 48 hours after sustaining a complete spinal cord transection at the T3 level. The bedside monitor suddenly alarms. Assessment reveals a blood pressure of 72/40 mm Hg, a heart rate of 42 beats/minute, and profoundly warm, flushed skin below the level of the injury. The client is lethargic but maintains a patent airway. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

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Cevap: Initiate a prescribed intravenous vasopressor infusion and prepare to administer atropine.

Cevap

Initiate a prescribed intravenous vasopressor infusion and prepare to administer atropine.
A spinal cord injury at or above the T6 level disrupts sympathetic nervous system pathways. This client is exhibiting classic signs of neurogenic shock: unopposed parasympathetic stimulation leading to profound bradycardia, and a loss of vasomotor tone leading to massive vasodilation, which presents as severe hypotension and warm, flushed skin (unlike hypovolemic shock where the skin is cold and clammy). The immediate life-saving priority is to restore vascular tone and cardiac output using vasopressors and atropine.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's injury level, time since injury, and vital signs.
The client has a T3 spinal cord injury, is 48 hours post-trauma, and is presenting with profound hypotension, bradycardia, and warm, flushed skin.
Establishing the complete clinical picture is required to differentiate between various types of spinal cord complications.
2
Differentiate between neurogenic shock and autonomic dysreflexia based on hemodynamic parameters.
The presence of severe hypotension and bradycardia indicates neurogenic shock, whereas autonomic dysreflexia would present with severe hypertension.
Both conditions can occur with injuries above T6, but their hemodynamic profiles and required treatments are physiological opposites.
3
Determine the priority pharmacological intervention based on the physiological deficit.
The priority is to restore vascular tone and increase the heart rate using vasopressors and anticholinergics like atropine.
The loss of sympathetic nervous system outflow causes massive vasodilation and unopposed vagal tone, requiring immediate pharmacological circulatory support.

Anahtar Kavram

Early Recognition and Management of Neurogenic Shock
Soru 2991Soru →

A client with a systemic fungal infection has a double-lumen peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC). The proximal lumen is dedicated to a continuous total parenteral nutrition (TPN) infusion. The distal lumen is infusing 0.9% sodium chloride with 20 mEq of potassium chloride at 75 mL/hr. The healthcare provider prescribes a daily intermittent intravenous (IV) infusion of amphotericin B deoxycholate. Which of the following actions by the nurse demonstrates the correct technique for administering this medication?

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Cevap: Pause the saline and potassium infusion, flush the distal lumen with 5% dextrose in water (D5W), administer the amphotericin B, and flush again with D5W.

Cevap

The correct approach is to pause the incompatible saline and potassium infusion, flush the line thoroughly with 5% dextrose in water (D5W), administer the amphotericin B, and then flush again with D5W before restarting the primary fluids.
The correct action demonstrates advanced pharmacological knowledge of high-risk parenteral therapies. Because the TPN line must remain dedicated, the nurse must use the distal lumen. Since amphotericin B precipitates when mixed with normal saline or electrolytes (potassium), the nurse must pause the primary infusion and clear the line completely using 5% dextrose in water (D5W), which is the only compatible flush solution for this medication.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the current IV infusions and line access.
The client has a double-lumen PICC. One lumen has TPN, the other has normal saline with potassium chloride.
Establishing what access is available is the first step in safe parenteral medication administration.
2
Determine the compatibility of amphotericin B with the existing continuous infusions.
Amphotericin B is highly incompatible with both TPN and 0.9% sodium chloride (normal saline).
Amphotericin B precipitates in the presence of electrolytes and saline, posing a severe risk to the client if mixed.
3
Select the appropriate lumen for administration.
The distal lumen must be used.
The proximal lumen contains TPN, which must remain a dedicated line and cannot be interrupted or used for secondary medications.
4
Determine the correct flush protocol for the selected lumen.
The primary saline infusion must be paused, and the line must be flushed with 5% dextrose in water (D5W) before and after the amphotericin B infusion.
D5W is the only compatible solution for flushing and diluting amphotericin B. Using the standard normal saline flush will cause immediate medication precipitation in the catheter.

Anahtar Kavram

Amphotericin B Parenteral Compatibility and Dedicated IV Line Management
Soru 2992Soru →

A nurse is caring for a client with acute decompensated heart failure who weighs 198 lbs198 \text{ lbs}. The healthcare provider prescribes a continuous intravenous (IV) infusion of milrinone at 0.375 mcg/kg/min0.375 \text{ mcg/kg/min}. The pharmacy supplies milrinone as 20 mg20 \text{ mg} in 100 mL100 \text{ mL} of 5% Dextrose5\% \text{ Dextrose} in water (D5W). At what rate, in mL/hr\text{mL/hr}, should the nurse set the IV infusion pump? (Record answer to the nearest tenth.)

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Cevap: 10.1

Cevap

10.1
To solve this problem, first convert the weight to kilograms (198÷2.2=90 kg198 \div 2.2 = 90 \text{ kg}). Next, find the per-minute dose (0.375 mcg×90 kg=33.75 mcg/min0.375 \text{ mcg} \times 90 \text{ kg} = 33.75 \text{ mcg/min}). Convert this to an hourly dose by multiplying by 60 (33.75×60=2025 mcg/hr33.75 \times 60 = 2025 \text{ mcg/hr}). Then, find the concentration of the supplied bag by converting mg to mcg (20 mg=20,000 mcg20 \text{ mg} = 20,000 \text{ mcg}) and dividing by the volume (20,000 mcg÷100 mL=200 mcg/mL20,000 \text{ mcg} \div 100 \text{ mL} = 200 \text{ mcg/mL}). Finally, divide the required hourly dose by the concentration (2025÷200=10.1252025 \div 200 = 10.125) and round to the nearest tenth (10.110.1).

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Convert the client's weight from pounds (lbs) to kilograms (kg).
198 lbs÷2.2 lbs/kg=90 kg198 \text{ lbs} \div 2.2 \text{ lbs/kg} = 90 \text{ kg}
The medication is prescribed in a weight-based format using kilograms.
2
Calculate the prescribed dose per minute based on the client's weight in kilograms.
0.375 mcg/kg/min×90 kg=33.75 mcg/min0.375 \text{ mcg/kg/min} \times 90 \text{ kg} = 33.75 \text{ mcg/min}
This establishes the exact amount of medication the client needs to receive every minute.
3
Convert the dose per minute to the dose per hour.
33.75 mcg/min×60 min/hr=2025 mcg/hr33.75 \text{ mcg/min} \times 60 \text{ min/hr} = 2025 \text{ mcg/hr}
Infusion pumps are programmed in mL/hr, so the medication dose must reflect an hourly rate.
4
Convert the supplied milrinone dose from milligrams (mg) to micrograms (mcg).
20 mg×1000 mcg/mg=20,000 mcg20 \text{ mg} \times 1000 \text{ mcg/mg} = 20,000 \text{ mcg}
Standardizing units is required because the prescription is in micrograms but the supply is in milligrams.
5
Determine the concentration of the supplied medication in mcg/mL.
20,000 mcg÷100 mL=200 mcg/mL20,000 \text{ mcg} \div 100 \text{ mL} = 200 \text{ mcg/mL}
This shows how many micrograms of milrinone are contained in every 1 mL of the IV fluid.
6
Calculate the final infusion rate in mL/hr by dividing the hourly dose by the concentration.
2025 mcg/hr÷200 mcg/mL=10.125 mL/hr2025 \text{ mcg/hr} \div 200 \text{ mcg/mL} = 10.125 \text{ mL/hr}
This translates the required hourly medication dose into the fluid volume the pump must deliver.
7
Round the calculated infusion rate to the nearest tenth.
10.125 mL/hr10.125 \text{ mL/hr} rounds to 10.1 mL/hr10.1 \text{ mL/hr}
Adhering to the specific rounding instructions provided in the stem.

Anahtar Kavram

Weight-Based Continuous IV Infusion Dosage Calculations
Soru 2993Soru →

A nurse at an outpatient primary care clinic is planning health promotion interventions for several clients on the daily schedule. Which nursing action correctly demonstrates a secondary level of disease prevention?

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Cevap: Conducting a dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan for a postmenopausal client to assess bone density.

Cevap

Conducting a dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan for a postmenopausal client to assess bone density.
Secondary prevention strategies are aimed at early detection and diagnosis of health problems in asymptomatic or at-risk individuals to facilitate early treatment. A dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan is a screening test used to identify decreased bone density and diagnose osteoporosis early in high-risk populations, such as postmenopausal clients, before major complications like fractures occur.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the question requirements.
The scenario requires identifying a clinical intervention that specifically represents secondary disease prevention.
Establishing the precise level of prevention targeted by the question is required to accurately evaluate the given clinical actions.
2
Recall the definitions for the three levels of prevention.
Primary prevents disease onset (vaccines, education); Secondary focuses on early detection/screening in asymptomatic individuals; Tertiary manages established disease to prevent complications.
Applying core definitions accurately is necessary to classify each nursing option.
3
Evaluate each option using the established definitions.
Vaccinations and dietary education are primary. Post-stroke safety teaching is tertiary. The DEXA scan is a screening test, making it secondary.
Systematic evaluation ensures the correct classification of the DEXA scan as a secondary prevention measure.

Anahtar Kavram

Levels of Disease Prevention
Tahmini Süre:1m 0s
Soru 2994Soru →

The charge nurse on a medical-surgical unit is reviewing the electronic health records of four assigned clients. Which client requires the most immediate assessment to reduce the risk of severe physiological deterioration?

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Cevap: A client 6 hours post-percutaneous renal biopsy who is exhibiting sudden restlessness, a resting heart rate of 115 bpm, and a urinary output of 15 mL over the past hour

Cevap

The client who is 6 hours post-percutaneous renal biopsy exhibiting sudden restlessness, tachycardia, and oliguria requires the most immediate assessment.
The correct answer identifies the client post-percutaneous renal biopsy as the highest priority. The kidney is highly vascular, placing the client at significant risk for hemorrhage. Sudden restlessness is often the earliest sign of diminished cerebral perfusion. Combined with tachycardia and a sharp drop in urinary output (oliguria), this clinical picture strongly indicates early hypovolemic (hemorrhagic) shock due to retroperitoneal bleeding. This client requires immediate physiological intervention to prevent cardiovascular collapse.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Evaluate the clinical presentation of the client post-renal biopsy.
The client has developed sudden restlessness, a heart rate of 115 bpm, and a urinary output of 15 mL/hr.
The kidney is a highly vascular organ. These findings are classic early indicators of hemorrhagic shock secondary to retroperitoneal bleeding, representing an acute life-threatening emergency.
2
Analyze the ABG results for the client with COPD.
The ABG shows a pH of 7.36, PaCO2 of 57 mmHg, and HCO3 of 31 mEq/L.
This indicates a fully compensated respiratory acidosis. For a client with severe COPD, this is an expected chronic baseline rather than an acute deterioration.
3
Assess the symptoms and positioning of the client post-lumbar puncture.
The client has a positional headache while lying flat.
A post-dural puncture headache is an expected complication caused by CSF leakage. Maintaining a flat, supine position is the correct intervention, and the symptom is not life-threatening.
4
Review the laboratory values for the client with ESRD awaiting hemodialysis.
Elevated creatinine (7.5 mg/dL), BUN (88 mg/dL), and mild metabolic acidosis (pH 7.32).
These values represent chronic, expected uremia and acidosis that will be corrected by the scheduled treatment, not an immediate physiological crisis.

Anahtar Kavram

Prioritization requires distinguishing between expected chronic or post-procedural baselines and subtle, early indicators of acute, life-threatening complications such as hemorrhagic shock.
Soru 2995Soru →

A nurse is evaluating a 6565-year-old client admitted for a severe acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The client is currently prescribed oxygen at 22 L/min via nasal cannula. During the latest assessment, the nurse discovers that the client is extremely lethargic, difficult to arouse, and breathing at a shallow rate of 1010 breaths/min. The results of a stat arterial blood gas (ABG) draw are as follows:

* pH: 7.227.22
* PaCO 2_2: 7474 mm Hg
* PaO 2_2: 5858 mm Hg
* HCO 3−_3^-: 2929 mEq/L

To mitigate the risk of impending physiological decompensation, which of the following is the priority nursing action?

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Cevap: Activate the rapid response team and prepare the client for immediate positive pressure ventilation

Cevap

The correct action is to activate the rapid response team and prepare the client for immediate positive pressure ventilation to address the acute respiratory failure.
The correct answer requires prioritizing airway and ventilation. The client is exhibiting signs of acute, uncompensated respiratory acidosis (pH 7.227.22, elevated PaCO 2_2 of 7474 mm Hg) superimposed on chronic COPD (indicated by the elevated HCO 3−_3^- of 2929 mEq/L). The clinical signs of lethargy and severe bradypnea (1010 breaths/min) indicate hypercapnic encephalopathy and impending respiratory failure. The priority is to establish effective ventilation, which requires rapid response team activation and mechanical support (such as BiPAP or intubation) to clear the excess carbon dioxide.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation.
The client is lethargic with a slow, shallow respiratory rate (1010 breaths/min).
These are classic signs of hypercapnic encephalopathy (carbon dioxide narcosis) indicating impending respiratory failure.
2
Interpret the arterial blood gas (ABG) values.
pH is 7.227.22 (acidosis), PaCO 2_2 is 7474 mm Hg (respiratory origin), and HCO 3−_3^- is 2929 mEq/L (partial compensation).
This represents an uncompensated, acute-on-chronic respiratory acidosis.
3
Determine the priority nursing action based on risk reduction.
Recognize that the client can no longer adequately ventilate independently.
Immediate positive pressure ventilation (BiPAP or intubation) is required to reduce the risk of cardiopulmonary arrest.

Anahtar Kavram

Recognition and Management of Acute Hypercapnic Respiratory Failure in COPD
Soru 2996Soru →

A nurse is caring for a client at 40 weeks gestation who is receiving a continuous transcervical amnioinfusion for the management of recurrent, severe variable decelerations. The nurse evaluates the electronic fetal monitor and intrauterine pressure catheter (IUPC) data. The fetal heart rate baseline is 145 bpm with moderate variability, and the variable decelerations have ceased. However, the nurse observes that the uterine resting tone has steadily increased from 15 mm Hg to 45 mm Hg over the past 20 minutes, and the client's perineal underpads are completely dry. Which of the following is the nurse's priority action?

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Cevap: Stop the amnioinfusion pump immediately.

Cevap

The priority action is to stop the amnioinfusion pump immediately to prevent uterine overdistention and potential uterine rupture.
The assessment findings of a steadily increasing IUPC resting tone (normal is 10-20 mm Hg) combined with a lack of vaginal fluid return (dry underpads) indicate that the amnioinfusion fluid is being trapped inside the uterus. This creates dangerous uterine overdistention, which severely increases the risk of uterine rupture or abruptio placentae. The immediate priority is to stop the pump to halt further fluid accumulation.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the purpose of the treatment and the current fetal status.
The amnioinfusion successfully resolved the variable decelerations, and the fetal heart rate is currently stable and reassuring.
Establishes that there is no immediate fetal distress requiring interventions like maternal repositioning.
2
Evaluate the intrauterine pressure catheter (IUPC) data and physical assessment findings.
The IUPC resting tone is dangerously high (45 mm Hg), and the dry perineal pads indicate no fluid is draining out.
Normal resting tone should remain between 10-20 mm Hg. The discrepancy between input and output indicates fluid retention.
3
Determine the physiological risk of the assessment findings.
Retained amnioinfusion fluid causes severe uterine overdistention, placing the client at imminent risk for uterine rupture.
The uterus is a confined space; adding continuous fluid without drainage drastically increases intrauterine pressure.
4
Select the most direct and immediate intervention.
Stopping the amnioinfusion pump is the priority.
It immediately halts the source of the rising pressure, preventing catastrophic uterine trauma.

Anahtar Kavram

Amnioinfusion complications and management of uterine overdistention
Soru 2997Soru →

An adult client receiving volume-controlled mechanical ventilation suddenly exhibits profound clinical deterioration. The ventilator triggers continuous high peak airway pressure alarms. Simultaneously, the cardiac monitor displays a heart rate of 142142 beats per minute, and the arterial line shows a precipitous blood pressure drop to 68/38 mmHg68/38 \text{ mmHg}. Arrange the following emergency nursing actions in the correct chronological sequence for managing this acute crisis.

Öğeleri doğru sıraya koymak için sürükleyin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

The correct chronological sequence is to first detach the client from the ventilator and manually ventilate, then assess the lung fields for signs of tension pneumothorax. This is followed by preparing for immediate needle decompression, assembling a chest drainage unit for definitive treatment, and finally obtaining a post-procedure chest radiograph.
When a mechanically ventilated client develops sudden high peak airway pressures accompanied by hemodynamic collapse (tachycardia and severe hypotension), a tension pneumothorax causing obstructive shock must be suspected immediately. The evidence-based DOPE mnemonic (Displacement, Obstruction, Pneumothorax, Equipment) guides the initial approach. The absolute first action is to disconnect the ventilator and manually ventilate using a bag-valve-mask with 100%100\% oxygen. This safely removes equipment malfunction as a variable, halts forced barotrauma, and allows the nurse to feel for severe resistance (stiff compliance). Second, the nurse rapidly assesses for asymmetric breath sounds and tracheal deviation to clinically confirm the complication. Third, once tension pneumothorax is identified, the priority shifts to assisting with immediate, life-saving needle decompression to relieve intrapleural pressure and restore cardiac output. Fourth, a chest tube drainage unit is prepared for definitive, continuous evacuation of the pleural space. Finally, diagnostic imaging is obtained to evaluate the effectiveness of the interventions and verify correct tube placement.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Detach the endotracheal tube from the mechanical ventilator and manually ventilate.
Halts continuous positive pressure from the machine and allows the nurse to manually assess lung compliance.
Continuing mechanical ventilation in the presence of a tension pneumothorax exacerbates intrathoracic pressure and obstructive shock.
2
Auscultate bilateral lung fields and assess tracheal deviation.
Identifies absent breath sounds on one side and a trachea shifted away from the affected side.
Confirms the clinical suspicion of a tension pneumothorax before initiating invasive emergency procedures.
3
Delegate alerting the provider and prepare a 1414-gauge catheter.
Ensures the life-saving equipment is immediately ready for the provider to perform a needle thoracostomy.
Needle decompression is the most rapid way to vent trapped pleural air and restore cardiac output in a crashing client.
4
Assemble a closed water-seal chest drainage unit.
Prepares the equipment needed for chest tube insertion.
Needle decompression is a temporary measure; a chest tube is the definitive treatment for a pneumothorax.
5
Coordinate a portable chest radiograph.
Provides visual confirmation of lung re-expansion and correct tube placement.
Post-procedure evaluation is necessary to ensure the interventions were successful and no further complications exist.

Anahtar Kavram

Prioritization of Respiratory Emergencies and Obstructive Shock Management
Soru 2998Soru →

A client receiving an intravenous infusion of vincristine reports severe pain and burning at the peripheral intravenous site. The nurse observes swelling and blanching around the insertion site. Arrange the following nursing actions in the correct sequence.

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Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

The correct sequence for managing a vincristine extravasation is to first stop the infusion, then aspirate the residual drug, remove the intravenous catheter, administer the subcutaneous antidote (hyaluronidase), and finally apply a warm compress and elevate the affected extremity.
Managing a vesicant extravasation requires a prioritized, protocol-driven approach to minimize severe tissue necrosis. The infusion must be stopped immediately as the absolute first action to halt further exposure. Leaving the catheter in place temporarily allows the nurse to aspirate any residual drug from the catheter and the immediate subcutaneous pocket. Once aspirated, the catheter is removed. For vinca alkaloids like vincristine, the specific antidote (hyaluronidase) is injected subcutaneously around the site to break down connective tissue. Finally, warm compresses are applied—a unique requirement for vinca alkaloids—to induce vasodilation, which helps disperse the drug systemically and reduces local tissue damage. Elevation helps to reduce edema.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the primary emergency intervention.
The infusion must be stopped immediately.
Vincristine is a vesicant. Halting the infusion is the most critical first step to prevent further extravasation into the tissue.
2
Determine the sequence for local catheter management.
Aspirate residual medication before removing the catheter.
Aspiration removes drug remaining in the catheter lumen and immediate tissue. Removing the catheter first would leave this toxic volume in the subcutaneous tissue.
3
Remove the access device.
The peripheral intravenous catheter is discontinued.
The catheter is no longer viable and must be removed to allow for the administration of the subcutaneous antidote.
4
Administer the specific pharmacologic antidote.
Inject hyaluronidase subcutaneously around the extravasation site.
Hyaluronidase breaks down hyaluronic acid in connective tissue, allowing the extravasated vincristine to disperse and be absorbed rapidly, minimizing local necrosis.
5
Apply appropriate thermal and positional therapy.
Apply a warm compress and elevate the extremity.
Unlike most vesicants which require cold compresses to localize the drug, vinca alkaloids uniquely require warm compresses to induce vasodilation and further disperse the drug. Elevation helps reduce local edema.

Anahtar Kavram

Vesicant Extravasation Management (Vinca Alkaloids)
Soru 2999Soru →

An 7878-year-old client with a history of heart failure is receiving a continuous intravenous (IV) infusion of furosemide and is scheduled for an intermittent IV push dose of digoxin. During the morning assessment, the client reports nausea, anorexia, and seeing "yellow halos" around the lights in the room. The nurse assesses an irregular apical heart rate of 52 beats/min52 \text{ beats/min}. Based on these findings, which of the following is the priority nursing action?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Withhold the scheduled dose of intravenous digoxin, obtain a serum potassium level, and notify the healthcare provider.

Cevap

Withhold the scheduled dose of intravenous digoxin, obtain a serum potassium level, and notify the healthcare provider.
The correct action prioritizes client safety by immediately recognizing life-threatening medication toxicity. Digoxin has a very narrow therapeutic index, and toxicity manifests with gastrointestinal (nausea, anorexia), neurological (visual halos), and cardiac (bradycardia, dysrhythmias) symptoms. Because furosemide causes rapid potassium depletion, this client is at extreme risk for hypokalemia-induced digoxin toxicity. Withholding the drug, assessing the potassium level, and notifying the provider are the essential priority actions.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's assessment findings and vital signs.
The client presents with bradycardia (52 beats/min52 \text{ beats/min}), nausea, anorexia, and yellow visual halos.
These specific manifestations are classic systemic and neurological indicators of digoxin toxicity.
2
Identify contributing pharmacological factors from the medication record.
The client is receiving a continuous infusion of furosemide.
Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes potassium excretion. Hypokalemia strongly precipitates and exacerbates digoxin toxicity.
3
Determine the highest priority nursing intervention.
The nurse must prioritize withholding the digoxin dose and notifying the provider to obtain a serum potassium and digoxin level.
Administering further doses would worsen the toxicity and potentially cause life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias.

Anahtar Kavram

Digoxin Toxicity and Pharmacological Interactions
Soru 3000Soru →

A nurse is caring for a client with a confirmed pulmonary embolism who is receiving a continuous intravenous (IV) infusion of heparin at 18 units/kg/hr18 \text{ units/kg/hr} through a single-lumen peripheral venous catheter. The healthcare provider prescribes a scheduled dose of IV levofloxacin 500 mg500 \text{ mg} to infuse over 60 minutes60 \text{ minutes} for a concurrent bacterial pneumonia. Upon reviewing a pharmacological reference, the nurse discovers that heparin and levofloxacin are physically incompatible. Which of the following is the most appropriate action by the nurse?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Insert a new peripheral venous catheter in a different extremity to administer the levofloxacin.

Cevap

Insert a new peripheral venous catheter in a different extremity to administer the levofloxacin.
The correct action is to establish a new peripheral intravenous access site. Because heparin and levofloxacin are physically incompatible, they cannot be mixed in the same IV tubing or single-lumen catheter without risking crystallization and precipitation. Furthermore, because heparin is a critical high-alert medication with a very short half-life, pausing the infusion for the 60 minutes required to administer the antibiotic would place the client at immediate risk for thrombus extension.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the pharmacological properties of the current continuous infusion.
Heparin has a very short half-life and is critical for preventing thrombus extension in a client with a pulmonary embolism.
To determine if the infusion can be safely interrupted for secondary medication administration.
2
Evaluate the physical compatibility of the prescribed medications.
Heparin and levofloxacin are physically incompatible.
To determine if the medications can be administered simultaneously through the same intravenous line.
3
Formulate a safe administration plan based on the client's vascular access.
The client only has a single-lumen catheter. A second intravenous access site must be established.
Mixing incompatible drugs causes precipitation, and pausing a critical heparin infusion for 60 minutes severely compromises patient safety.

Anahtar Kavram

Intravenous Medication Compatibility and Continuous Infusion Safety
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