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3881 soru

Soru 3061Soru →

A nurse is caring for a client who is 12 hours postoperative following an open abdominal surgery. Which interventions should the nurse implement to reduce the client's risk of developing a venous thromboembolism (VTE)? Select all that apply.

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Cevap: Apply sequential compression devices (SCDs) to the lower extremities.; Encourage the client to perform active ankle and foot exercises hourly while awake.; Assist the client with early ambulation as prescribed by the healthcare provider.

Cevap

The correct interventions are applying sequential compression devices, encouraging active leg exercises, and assisting with early ambulation.
Applying sequential compression devices, encouraging active leg exercises, and assisting with early ambulation are standard, evidence-based nursing interventions. These actions mechanically promote venous return, activate the calf muscle pump, and prevent blood stasis, thereby significantly reducing the risk of venous thromboembolism in immobile postoperative clients.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's status and the clinical goal.
The client is postoperative and at risk for venous thromboembolism (VTE) due to immobility and surgical trauma. The goal is to identify actions that prevent blood stasis and promote venous return.
Understanding the physiological risks of the postoperative period guides appropriate prophylactic nursing care.
2
Evaluate each intervention for its effect on venous circulation.
SCDs, leg exercises, and ambulation all actively promote blood flow back to the heart. Pillows placed under the knees and leg massages are contraindicated.
Evidence-based practice dictates that nursing actions must support, not hinder, physiological processes.

Anahtar Kavram

Venous Thromboembolism (VTE) Prophylaxis
Soru 3062Soru →

An emergency department nurse is managing a client in a hypertensive crisis. The client weighs 85 kg85\text{ kg} and is currently receiving a continuous intravenous (IV) infusion of sodium nitroprusside at 25 mL/hr25\text{ mL/hr}. The IV bag contains 50 mg50\text{ mg} of sodium nitroprusside mixed in 250 mL250\text{ mL} of 5%5\% Dextrose in Water (D5WD_5W). According to the facility protocol, the nurse must titrate the infusion upward by 0.5 mcg/kg/min0.5\text{ mcg/kg/min} if the mean arterial pressure (MAP) remains above 80 mm Hg80\text{ mm Hg}. The client's current MAP is 94 mm Hg94\text{ mm Hg}. After increasing the dosage by one increment, what will be the new infusion pump rate in mL/hr\text{mL/hr}? Record your answer to the nearest tenth.

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Cevap: 37.8

Cevap

37.8
To safely titrate the sodium nitroprusside, the nurse must first establish the concentration of the solution (50,000 mcg/250 mL=200 mcg/mL50,000\text{ mcg} / 250\text{ mL} = 200\text{ mcg/mL}). Next, the nurse calculates the required dose increase based on the client's weight (0.5 mcg/kg/min×85 kg=42.5 mcg/min0.5\text{ mcg/kg/min} \times 85\text{ kg} = 42.5\text{ mcg/min}). Because infusion pumps run in mL/hr\text{mL/hr}, this dose must be multiplied by 6060 minutes to find the hourly dose increase (2,550 mcg/hr2,550\text{ mcg/hr}). Dividing the hourly dose by the concentration yields the rate increase in volume (2,550 mcg/hr÷200 mcg/mL=12.75 mL/hr2,550\text{ mcg/hr} \div 200\text{ mcg/mL} = 12.75\text{ mL/hr}). Finally, adding this increase to the current rate gives the new total rate (25 mL/hr+12.75 mL/hr=37.75 mL/hr25\text{ mL/hr} + 12.75\text{ mL/hr} = 37.75\text{ mL/hr}), which rounds to 37.8 mL/hr37.8\text{ mL/hr}.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Convert the total medication mass from milligrams to micrograms.
50 mg×1,000 mcg/mg=50,000 mcg50\text{ mg} \times 1,000\text{ mcg/mg} = 50,000\text{ mcg}
The prescribed titration increment is provided in micrograms, so the concentration must be in the same unit.
2
Calculate the concentration of the sodium nitroprusside IV solution.
50,000 mcg÷250 mL=200 mcg/mL50,000\text{ mcg} \div 250\text{ mL} = 200\text{ mcg/mL}
Determining the amount of medication per milliliter of fluid is necessary to convert the required dose into a pump rate.
3
Calculate the dose increase per minute based on the client's weight.
0.5 mcg/kg/min×85 kg=42.5 mcg/min0.5\text{ mcg/kg/min} \times 85\text{ kg} = 42.5\text{ mcg/min}
Weight-based dosing requires multiplying the prescribed parameter by the client's total body weight in kg.
4
Convert the per-minute dose increase to a per-hour dose.
42.5 mcg/min×60 min/hr=2,550 mcg/hr42.5\text{ mcg/min} \times 60\text{ min/hr} = 2,550\text{ mcg/hr}
IV infusion pumps are programmed in milliliters per hour, so the dose must reflect an hourly rate.
5
Calculate the volume increase required to deliver the hourly dose.
2,550 mcg/hr÷200 mcg/mL=12.75 mL/hr2,550\text{ mcg/hr} \div 200\text{ mcg/mL} = 12.75\text{ mL/hr}
Dividing the desired hourly dose by the fluid concentration yields the required increase in the pump rate.
6
Add the rate increase to the client's current continuous infusion rate.
25 mL/hr+12.75 mL/hr=37.75 mL/hr25\text{ mL/hr} + 12.75\text{ mL/hr} = 37.75\text{ mL/hr}
The question asks for the new total infusion rate, which is the sum of the previous rate and the titration increase.
7
Round the final answer to the nearest tenth as directed.
37.8 mL/hr37.8\text{ mL/hr}
Clinical calculations must adhere strictly to the rounding instructions provided in the order or prompt.

Anahtar Kavram

Weight-based Intravenous Medication Titration
Soru 3063Soru →

A charge nurse at a skilled rehabilitation center responds to a room where an 84-year-old client is experiencing a sudden, acute onset of severe confusion and hyperactivity, which is a stark change from their baseline. Arrange the following nursing actions in the priority order they should be implemented.

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Cevap

The correct sequence is to first ensure safety, then obtain vital signs and blood glucose, conduct a focused physical assessment, review the medication record, and finally notify the healthcare provider.
In the aging process, sudden and acute confusion is not normal; it indicates delirium, which is a medical emergency often caused by an underlying physiological issue. According to nursing prioritization frameworks, the nurse must first establish immediate safety for a hyperactive client. Next, the nurse assesses basic physiological parameters (vital signs, oxygenation, and blood glucose) to rule out life-threatening causes like hypoxia or hypoglycemia. Once these are stable, the nurse performs a focused physical assessment for other common triggers in older adults, such as urinary retention or infection. Reviewing the medication record for iatrogenic causes follows direct bedside client assessment. Finally, armed with comprehensive data, the nurse notifies the healthcare provider to facilitate prompt medical intervention.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Ensure the immediate physical safety of the client and remove potential environmental hazards.
The client is protected from immediate self-harm or injury.
Prioritization frameworks dictate that acute safety threats must be addressed first, particularly for hyperactive and disoriented clients.
2
Obtain current vital signs, oxygen saturation, and a capillary blood glucose reading.
Critical physiological baselines are established.
Assessing airway, breathing, circulation, and blood glucose identifies immediate, life-threatening causes of delirium such as hypoxia or hypoglycemia.
3
Assess for acute physical triggers such as a distended bladder, fecal impaction, or localized pain.
Additional common physiological triggers are evaluated at the bedside.
Older adults frequently develop delirium from easily reversible conditions like urinary retention or unrecognized pain.
4
Evaluate the recent medication administration record for newly added pharmacological agents.
Potential iatrogenic causes are identified from the chart.
After completing direct patient care, reviewing the chart for new medications helps complete the clinical picture before notifying the provider.
5
Communicate the comprehensive assessment findings to the attending healthcare provider.
The provider is informed using a complete and structured report.
The provider needs a full set of vital signs, physical findings, and medication history to make an accurate diagnosis and order appropriate medical interventions.

Anahtar Kavram

Prioritizing Care for Acute Delirium in Older Adults
Soru 3064Soru →

A client is prescribed an intravenous (IV) dose of phenytoin for seizure management. The client has a single peripheral IV access site with a continuous primary infusion of 5%5\% dextrose in water (D5W). Which action should the nurse take to safely administer the phenytoin?

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Cevap: Stop the primary D5W infusion and flush the IV line with 0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride before and after administering the medication.

Cevap

The nurse must stop the primary D5W infusion and flush the IV line with 0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride both before and after administering the phenytoin.
Phenytoin is physically incompatible with dextrose-containing solutions, such as D5W, and will precipitate (form solid crystals) if they mix. Because the client has only one IV access site, the safest and only correct method is to stop the D5W infusion and thoroughly flush the IV tubing with 0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride (normal saline) before administering the phenytoin. After the medication is fully administered, the line must be flushed again with normal saline before the D5W infusion can be safely resumed.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Assess the compatibility of the prescribed IV medication (phenytoin) with the current continuous IV fluid (D5W).
Identify that phenytoin is incompatible with all dextrose-containing solutions.
Mixing phenytoin with D5W causes rapid precipitation and crystallization in the IV tubing.
2
Determine the necessary intervention to safely administer the medication through the single existing IV line.
Plan to temporarily stop the primary continuous infusion and clear the line of any incompatible fluid.
The line must be completely free of dextrose before the phenytoin is introduced.
3
Select the correct flushing solution and proper sequence.
Flush the line with 0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride, administer the phenytoin at the correct safe rate, and flush again with 0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride.
0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride is the only standard IV fluid compatible with phenytoin.

Anahtar Kavram

Intravenous medication compatibility and safe administration practices for phenytoin.
Soru 3065Soru →

A nurse is caring for a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) who is receiving positive-pressure mechanical ventilation. The client's high-pressure ventilator alarm begins sounding continuously, and the nurse notes that the client has become highly agitated. The latest arterial blood gas (ABG) results show a pH of 7.217.21, PaCO2\text{PaCO}_2 of 72 mm Hg72\text{ mm Hg}, PaO2\text{PaO}_2 of 52 mm Hg52\text{ mm Hg}, and HCO3−\text{HCO}_3^- of 25 mEq/L25\text{ mEq/L}. Over the last 10 minutes, the client's blood pressure has dropped from 122/76 mm Hg122/76\text{ mm Hg} to 84/42 mm Hg84/42\text{ mm Hg}, and the heart rate has increased from 98 bpm98\text{ bpm} to 136 bpm136\text{ bpm}. Auscultation reveals absent breath sounds over the right lung field. Which action is the highest priority for the nurse to take to reduce the risk of cardiovascular collapse?

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Cevap: Prepare the client for an emergent needle thoracostomy.

Cevap

The correct action is to prepare the client for an emergent needle thoracostomy.
The client is exhibiting classic signs of a tension pneumothorax, a known complication of positive-pressure ventilation (barotrauma). The high-pressure ventilator alarm, sudden hypotension, tachycardia, severe hypoxemia, and absent unilateral breath sounds indicate that air is trapped in the pleural space, causing a mediastinal shift and obstructive shock. The immediate life-saving intervention to reduce the risk of cardiovascular collapse is a needle thoracostomy to release the trapped air.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation and assessment findings.
The client has a sudden onset of severe hypotension, tachycardia, absent breath sounds on the right side, and a continuously sounding high-pressure ventilator alarm.
Identifying acute changes in vital signs and physical assessment helps determine the underlying physiological complication.
2
Correlate the clinical findings with the arterial blood gas (ABG) results.
The ABG demonstrates severe, uncompensated respiratory acidosis (low pH, significantly elevated PaCO2), indicating a sudden, catastrophic failure of ventilation.
Understanding the gas exchange failure confirms a severe structural or mechanical impairment in the pulmonary system.
3
Diagnose the specific complication based on the synthesis of all data.
The combination of positive-pressure mechanical ventilation, absent unilateral breath sounds, high airway pressures, and obstructive shock strongly indicates a right-sided tension pneumothorax.
Recognizing a tension pneumothorax (barotrauma) is critical because it is a life-threatening emergency requiring a specific, immediate intervention.
4
Determine the highest priority risk-reduction intervention.
The immediate life-saving action is to release the trapped intrapleural air via an emergent needle thoracostomy, followed by chest tube insertion.
Decompressing the pleural space removes the mechanical pressure on the mediastinum, restoring venous return to the heart and resolving the obstructive shock.

Anahtar Kavram

Early recognition and emergency management of a tension pneumothorax as a complication of positive-pressure mechanical ventilation.
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 3066Soru →

Following a craniotomy, a hospitalized individual develops postoperative delirium and forcefully tugs at their external ventricular drain. After determining that environmental modifications, a bed alarm, and verbal redirection are ineffective, the care team decides that physical safety devices are necessary to prevent life-threatening tube dislodgment. Which nursing action demonstrates adherence to proper safety protocols for this intervention?

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Cevap: Fasten the securing straps to the articulating section of the bedframe utilizing a knot that releases instantly with a single pull.

Cevap

The most appropriate action is to fasten the securing straps to the articulating section of the bedframe utilizing a knot that releases instantly with a single pull.
Securing the device to the movable portion of the bedframe ensures that the tension remains consistent when the bed is adjusted, preventing constriction and neurovascular injury. Utilizing a quick-release knot is a critical safety standard that allows healthcare staff to instantly free the client in the event of an emergency, such as a code blue or fire.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the clinical scenario
The client requires non-violent (medical-surgical) physical restraints to prevent removal of a life-sustaining device (external ventricular drain) after alternatives have failed.
Understanding the indication for the restraint determines the specific regulations and monitoring frequency required.
2
Evaluate the correct application and securing of restraints
Restraints must be tied to a movable part of the bed frame using a quick-release knot.
Tying to a movable part prevents the restraints from becoming too tight or causing injury when the bed's head or foot is adjusted. A quick-release knot ensures the nurse can rapidly free the client during emergencies (e.g., cardiac arrest or evacuation).
3
Assess the incorrect options against safety and delegation standards
Delegating the initial assessment, obtaining a PRN order, and checking every 4 hours all violate strict restraint protocols.
Initial assessments require RN judgment. PRN restraint orders are illegal. Medical restraints require removal and assessment at least every 2 hours.

Anahtar Kavram

Physical restraints must be secured to the movable portion of the bed frame using a quick-release knot, ordered for specific timeframes (never PRN), requiring RN-level initial assessment and at least 2-hour monitoring.
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 3067Soru →

A nurse is formulating a basic care and comfort plan for an 82-year-old client who experienced a right hemispheric ischemic stroke 48 hours ago. The client exhibits left-sided hemiparesis, impulsive behavior, moderate dysphagia, and new-onset urinary incontinence. Which intervention is the most appropriate for the nurse to include in the plan of care?

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Cevap: Elevate the head of the bed to a high-Fowler's position during meals and maintain this position for at least 30 minutes after oral intake.

Cevap

The most appropriate intervention is to elevate the head of the bed to a high-Fowler's position during meals and maintain this position for at least 30 minutes after oral intake.
For a client with moderate dysphagia following a stroke, airway protection is the highest priority. Elevating the head of the bed to a high-Fowler's (90-degree) position during meals and keeping it elevated for 30 to 45 minutes afterward utilizes gravity to prevent aspiration of food or fluids into the lungs.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation.
The client has a recent stroke, left-sided hemiparesis, impulsive behavior, dysphagia, and new-onset incontinence.
Identifying the client's deficits helps prioritize basic care interventions, particularly those related to airway safety.
2
Evaluate the risk associated with moderate dysphagia.
Dysphagia places the client at a high risk for aspiration pneumonia, which is a life-threatening complication.
Airway protection is the highest priority in this scenario according to standard nursing guidelines.
3
Select the appropriate nursing intervention for dysphagia.
Positioning the client upright at 90 degrees (high-Fowler's) uses gravity to facilitate swallowing and prevent aspiration.
Maintaining the upright position during and after meals allows time for food to safely clear the esophagus.

Anahtar Kavram

Basic Care and Comfort: Dysphagia Management and Positioning
Soru 3068Soru →

A nurse is caring for a client newly admitted to the intensive care unit with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). The client is lethargic and exhibits deep, rapid respirations. Initial laboratory results reveal a serum blood glucose of 680 mg/dL (37.7 mmol/L), an arterial pH of 7.12, and a serum potassium of 2.7 mEq/L (2.7 mmol/L). In what order should the nurse implement the collaborative interventions? Arrange the actions from first to last.

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Cevap

The correct sequence is: 1) Initiate 0.9% sodium chloride, 2) Administer potassium chloride, 3) Begin regular insulin infusion, 4) Assess blood glucose hourly, 5) Add 5% dextrose to fluids when glucose reaches 250 mg/dL.
In the management of DKA, restoring intravascular volume with isotonic saline is always the first priority to reverse hypovolemic shock. While standard protocols follow fluid resuscitation immediately with a continuous insulin infusion, this client presents with severe hypokalemia (2.7 mEq/L). Insulin actively transports potassium from the extracellular fluid into the cells. Administering insulin prior to correcting this profound hypokalemia would induce a lethal drop in serum potassium, triggering fatal cardiac arrhythmias. Therefore, potassium replacement is the critical second step and must strictly precede the insulin infusion. Once potassium is suitably replaced (>3.3 mEq/L), regular insulin is initiated to halt ketogenesis and lower glucose. Because IV insulin rapidly alters glucose levels, hourly monitoring is mandatory. Finally, when the blood glucose approaches 250 mg/dL, 5% dextrose is added to the maintenance fluids to prevent a rapid fluid shift into the brain (cerebral edema) and to avoid iatrogenic hypoglycemia.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's laboratory values and clinical presentation.
The client has severe DKA complicated by critical hypokalemia (potassium 2.7 mEq/L).
Identifying critical values alters the standard DKA algorithm, specifically regarding the timing and safety of continuous insulin administration.
2
Identify the most immediate life-threatening physiological deficit.
Profound dehydration and hypovolemia are the most immediate threats to systemic perfusion.
Initial fluid resuscitation with isotonic saline (0.9% NaCl) is required to restore blood pressure and vital organ perfusion before addressing the underlying metabolic derangements.
3
Determine the safety of initiating insulin therapy.
Insulin therapy is currently contraindicated due to the serum potassium level being critically below 3.3 mEq/L.
Insulin facilitates the intracellular shift of both glucose and potassium. Administering insulin to a severely hypokalemic client will rapidly lower intravascular potassium further, risking lethal cardiac arrhythmias. Potassium replacement must occur first.
4
Sequence the remaining metabolic interventions.
Insulin is started after potassium is replaced, followed by strict monitoring and eventually adding dextrose.
Once potassium is safe, insulin corrects the acidosis. Hourly glucose monitoring ensures safe titration. Dextrose is added at 250 mg/dL to prevent cerebral edema from rapid osmolality shifts.

Anahtar Kavram

Prioritization of interventions in Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA) with concurrent severe hypokalemia.
Soru 3069Soru →

A nurse in an outpatient clinic is conducting a clinical risk evaluation for a 75-year-old community-dwelling client to promote healthy aging and prevent fall-related injuries. Arrange the following nursing actions in the correct sequential order according to the nursing process.

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Cevap

The correct sequence strictly follows the nursing process. The nurse must first gather comprehensive assessment data by reviewing the chart, interviewing the client, and performing a physical examination. Next, the nurse analyzes this data to categorize the risk level. Finally, the nurse formulates and implements a targeted health promotion plan.
The nursing process dictates a logical, sequential approach to client care. Assessment (chart review, interview, physical exam) must always precede analysis (risk categorization), which in turn must precede planning and implementation (formulating the prevention plan).

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Review the medical record
Gathers baseline health history and medication data
Provides essential context before directly interacting with the client
2
Interview the client
Obtains subjective information about fall history
Identifies the client's personal concerns and unrecorded adverse events
3
Conduct a physical assessment
Collects objective data on gait and balance
Measures the physical capabilities contributing to fall risk
4
Synthesize the assessment data
Determines the overall fall risk category
Transitions from data collection to clinical analysis and nursing diagnosis
5
Formulate a personalized plan
Establishes a targeted fall prevention strategy
Completes the process by applying the clinical judgment to health promotion interventions

Anahtar Kavram

Application of the nursing process (ADPIE) to clinical risk evaluation and health promotion
Soru 3070Soru →

A registered nurse (RN) is planning morning hygiene care for a client who has right-sided hemiparesis and is receiving continuous enteral nutrition. The RN is delegating parts of the care to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which instruction provided by the RN is the most appropriate?

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Cevap: Please notify me when you are ready to begin so I can pause the enteral feeding pump before the bed is lowered.

Cevap

The most appropriate instruction is to have the UAP notify the RN so the RN can pause the feeding pump before the bed is lowered.
The correct answer protects the client from aspiration while ensuring care is performed safely and within legal scopes of practice. To properly bathe the back and change linens, the client must be rolled side-to-side. Doing this with the head of the bed elevated causes harmful shearing forces on the skin and is physically difficult. Therefore, the bed must be lowered. Because the client is on continuous enteral feeding, lowering the bed without pausing the feeding creates a severe aspiration risk. Since managing the feeding pump is strictly an RN responsibility, the UAP must coordinate with the RN to pause the feeding before repositioning the bed.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the primary risks associated with the client's current treatments during hygiene care.
The client receives continuous enteral feeding (risk of aspiration if flat) and requires turning for a bath (risk of shearing if elevated).
Understanding competing safety needs dictates the correct sequence of care.
2
Determine the necessary positioning for a complete bed bath and linen change.
The bed should be lowered to a flat or nearly flat position to safely roll the client and minimize skin shearing.
Proper ergonomics and skin protection are essential components of basic care and comfort.
3
Apply delegation principles and aspiration precautions to the required positioning.
The RN must intervene to pause the feeding pump before the UAP lowers the bed, as UAPs cannot manage the pump.
Maintaining the client's airway and adhering to scope of practice are non-negotiable safety standards.

Anahtar Kavram

To prevent aspiration during basic hygiene care, continuous enteral feedings must be paused by the RN before lowering the head of the bed to turn the client.
Soru 3071Soru →

Following the removal of 1,5001,500 mL of pleural fluid via a right-sided thoracentesis, a client suddenly develops acute respiratory distress. The continuous monitor displays a heart rate of 128128 beats/minute and a blood pressure of 84/5284/52 mm Hg. Physical examination reveals absent breath sounds on the right side and a leftward tracheal shift. Which of the following is the priority nursing action?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Gather equipment for an immediate needle thoracostomy and chest tube placement

Cevap

Gather equipment for an immediate needle thoracostomy and chest tube placement.
The client's sudden respiratory distress, absent unilateral breath sounds, hypotension, tachycardia, and tracheal deviation are classic signs of a tension pneumothorax. This is a life-threatening complication of thoracentesis that causes obstructive shock. The condition requires immediate decompression via needle thoracostomy or chest tube placement. The nurse must recognize these signs of decompensation and immediately prepare the necessary equipment for the provider.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the post-procedure clinical presentation.
The client exhibits sudden respiratory distress, absent unilateral breath sounds, hypotension, tachycardia, and a tracheal shift.
Identifying these classic signs is necessary to diagnose a tension pneumothorax, a known severe complication of thoracentesis.
2
Determine the physiological impact of the complication.
Trapped air in the pleural space is rapidly increasing intrathoracic pressure, collapsing the right lung, and compressing the heart and great vessels.
This compression leads to decreased venous return and obstructive shock, explaining the severe hypotension and tachycardia.
3
Prioritize the required nursing intervention based on ABC principles.
Immediate mechanical decompression of the pleural space is required to restore cardiac output and ventilation.
Gathering equipment for needle decompression and chest tube insertion prepares for the only definitive life-saving treatment.

Anahtar Kavram

Recognition and emergency management of a tension pneumothorax following thoracentesis.
Soru 3072Soru →

A nurse is evaluating the electronic fetal monitoring tracing of a client at 39 weeks gestation who is in active labor. The client has not received any systemic medications. The tracing reveals a baseline fetal heart rate of 135 beats/min. Over the past 25 minutes, the tracing demonstrates a smooth, undulating, sine wave-like pattern with an amplitude of 15 beats/min and a frequency of 4 cycles per minute. There are no accelerations, and baseline variability is absent. Which action is the priority for the nurse?

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Cevap: Notify the healthcare provider immediately and prepare for an expedited delivery.

Cevap

The priority action is to immediately notify the healthcare provider and prepare for an expedited delivery due to the presence of a Category III true sinusoidal fetal heart rate pattern.
The description of a smooth, undulating, sine wave-like pattern with absent baseline variability is the definition of a true sinusoidal fetal heart rate pattern. This is a Category III tracing that indicates severe fetal hypoxia, acidosis, or severe fetal anemia (such as from fetal-maternal hemorrhage). It is an obstetric emergency that requires immediate notification of the healthcare provider and preparation for an expedited (usually cesarean) delivery.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the fetal heart rate (FHR) tracing characteristics described in the stem.
The tracing shows a smooth, undulating, sine wave-like pattern with an amplitude of 15 beats/min, a frequency of 4 cycles per minute, and absent baseline variability.
Accurate identification of FHR patterns is required to determine fetal well-being and categorize the tracing.
2
Correlate the FHR characteristics with standard NCLEX definitions.
The findings define a true sinusoidal FHR pattern, which is a Category III (abnormal) tracing.
A sinusoidal pattern indicates severe fetal derangement, most commonly severe fetal anemia (e.g., from Rh alloimmunization or vasa previa rupture), severe hypoxia, or acidosis.
3
Determine the priority nursing intervention based on the tracing category.
Because this is a life-threatening Category III tracing and not a Category II tracing (which might respond to intrauterine resuscitation), the priority is immediate medical intervention and preparation for emergency delivery.
Delaying delivery for standard resuscitative measures or observation in the presence of a true sinusoidal pattern can result in fetal demise.

Anahtar Kavram

A true sinusoidal fetal heart rate pattern is a Category III tracing indicating severe fetal anemia or hypoxia, requiring immediate notification of the provider and emergency delivery.
Soru 3073Soru →

A nurse is monitoring a client who is at risk for internal hemorrhage following a percutaneous liver biopsy. Which of the following vital sign trends represents the earliest physiological adaptation to intravascular fluid loss?

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Cevap: Narrowing of the pulse pressure

Cevap

The earliest physiological adaptation to intravascular fluid loss is a narrowing of the pulse pressure.
In the initial stages of hypovolemia or hemorrhage, the body compensates by activating the sympathetic nervous system. This causes peripheral vasoconstriction, which increases systemic vascular resistance. As a result, the diastolic blood pressure rises while the systolic pressure is temporarily maintained, leading to a narrowed pulse pressure. This is one of the earliest detectable physiological adaptations to fluid loss, occurring even before a significant drop in systolic blood pressure.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the primary clinical risk for the client.
The client is at risk for hemorrhage (intravascular fluid loss) following a liver biopsy.
Understanding the primary risk determines which physiological changes the nurse should monitor for.
2
Recall the body's initial compensatory mechanisms for fluid loss.
The sympathetic nervous system activates, causing tachycardia and peripheral vasoconstriction.
These mechanisms attempt to maintain cardiac output and vital organ perfusion before total blood volume drops critically low.
3
Determine how vasoconstriction affects blood pressure readings.
Vasoconstriction increases systemic vascular resistance, which primarily elevates the diastolic blood pressure, leading to a narrowed pulse pressure before the systolic pressure significantly drops.
This makes a narrowed pulse pressure one of the earliest detectable changes in shock.

Anahtar Kavram

Early Signs of Hypovolemic Shock
Soru 3074Soru →

The nurse receives the shift report for four clients on a medical-surgical unit. Which client should the nurse assess first?

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Cevap: A client with a history of gastrointestinal bleeding who has a blood pressure of 108/86 mm Hg, a heart rate of 112 bpm, and new-onset restlessness.

Cevap

The client with a history of gastrointestinal bleeding who has a blood pressure of 108/86 mm Hg, a heart rate of 112 bpm, and new-onset restlessness.
The correct answer identifies a client experiencing early compensatory hypovolemic (hemorrhagic) shock. Normal pulse pressure is 30 to 50 mm Hg. This client has a narrowed pulse pressure of 22 mm Hg (108 - 86 = 22). As intravascular volume is lost, peripheral vasoconstriction increases the diastolic blood pressure, narrowing the gap between systolic and diastolic values. The compensatory tachycardia (112 bpm) and early signs of cerebral hypoxia (new-onset restlessness) indicate the client is actively deteriorating and requires immediate intervention.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the vital signs of the client with a gastrointestinal bleed.
The pulse pressure is narrow (108 - 86 = 22 mm Hg), heart rate is elevated (112 bpm), and the client is restless.
Identifying subtle vital sign changes is critical. Vasoconstriction narrows the pulse pressure as the body compensates for volume loss, and restlessness indicates early cerebral hypoxia.
2
Evaluate the arterial blood gas (ABG) for the client with chronic bronchitis.
The pH is normal (7.37), but PaCO2 (54 mm Hg) and HCO3 (30 mEq/L) are elevated.
This represents fully compensated respiratory acidosis, an expected baseline state for a client with chronic lung disease, and does not require urgent action.
3
Assess the post-operative findings for the client who had a laparoscopic cholecystectomy.
Right shoulder pain and a low-grade temperature (37.7°C) are present.
Carbon dioxide used to inflate the abdomen during surgery irritates the phrenic nerve, causing referred shoulder pain. Mild fever is a normal surgical inflammatory response.
4
Interpret the aPTT laboratory value for the client on a continuous heparin infusion.
The aPTT is 70 seconds.
The normal therapeutic goal for heparin is 1.5 to 2.5 times the baseline (typically 45-80 seconds). A value of 70 seconds is therapeutic and safe.
5
Compare all client presentations to determine the highest priority.
The client with the gastrointestinal bleed is the most unstable.
Using the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) prioritization framework, the client demonstrating early signs of hypovolemic shock represents an immediate, life-threatening circulation issue.

Anahtar Kavram

Early Signs of Hypovolemic Shock and Prioritization
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 3075Soru →

A nurse is preparing to administer a large-volume cleansing enema to an adult client who is experiencing severe constipation. In what order should the nurse perform the following actions? Arrange the steps in the correct sequence.

Öğeleri doğru sıraya koymak için sürükleyin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

The correct sequence is to position the client on their left side, lubricate the tubing, gently insert the tube while the client exhales, initiate the fluid flow with the bag held at hip level, and finally elevate the bag to the appropriate height.
Safe and effective enema administration requires following a sequence that minimizes discomfort and maximizes fluid retention. The left lateral Sims' position is established first because it aligns with the anatomy of the descending colon. Next, lubrication is applied to prevent mucosal injury. Having the client exhale relaxes the sphincter for smooth insertion of the tube. Once inserted, initiating the flow with the bag at hip level prevents a sudden surge of fluid. Finally, gradually raising the bag to a maximum of 12 to 18 inches provides the appropriate hydrostatic pressure for instillation without causing severe bowel spasms.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Assist the client into the left lateral Sims' position.
The client's anatomy is aligned for gravity-assisted fluid flow.
This position exposes the anus and allows fluid to flow naturally into the descending colon.
2
Lubricate the distal tip of the rectal tube.
The tube is prepared for smooth insertion.
Water-soluble lubricant prevents tissue trauma and friction against the delicate rectal mucosa.
3
Insert the tube 3 to 4 inches while the client exhales.
The tube passes the internal sphincter safely.
Exhalation relaxes the sphincter, and the depth ensures fluid enters the rectum rather than leaking out.
4
Open the clamp with the container held at hip level.
Fluid begins to flow slowly into the rectum.
Low initial pressure prevents a sudden surge of fluid that could trigger immediate cramping and expulsion.
5
Elevate the container 12 to 18 inches above the anus.
A steady, controlled flow rate is established.
This height provides optimal hydrostatic pressure for a high enema without causing excessive bowel distention.

Anahtar Kavram

Safe Administration of a Cleansing Enema
Soru 3076Soru →

A nurse is admitting a client presenting with a severe headache, nuchal rigidity, and photophobia. The healthcare provider suspects Neisseria meningitidis. Additionally, the client reports experiencing frequent, watery diarrhea over the past two days, and a stool sample has been sent for Clostridioides difficile testing. Which of the following infection control interventions should the nurse include in the client's plan of care? (Select all that apply.)

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Don a standard surgical mask upon entering the client's room.; Ensure dedicated medical equipment, such as a stethoscope, remains inside the client's room.; Instruct unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to wear a gown and gloves when assisting the client with a bedpan.

Cevap

The correct interventions are to don a surgical mask upon entry, keep dedicated medical equipment inside the room, and instruct all personnel to wear a gown and gloves for direct care.
The client's presentation necessitates concurrent droplet and contact/enteric precautions. Droplet precautions require staff to wear a standard surgical mask upon room entry. Contact precautions mandate the use of dedicated room equipment and require all personnel to wear a gown and gloves when providing direct care.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation to determine the necessary transmission-based precaution categories.
The client has symptoms of Neisseria meningitidis, which requires droplet precautions, and suspected Clostridioides difficile, which requires contact/enteric precautions.
Identifying the specific pathogen transmission routes dictates the correct combination of personal protective equipment and environmental controls needed.
2
Select the appropriate interventions for droplet precautions.
Staff must don a standard surgical mask upon entry. The client must wear a standard surgical mask (not an N95) if transported outside the room.
Droplet precautions prevent the transmission of large respiratory particles generated by coughing, sneezing, or talking, which travel only short distances.
3
Select the appropriate interventions for contact and enteric precautions.
All personnel must wear a gown and gloves for direct care, medical equipment must be dedicated to the client, and hand hygiene must be performed with soap and water.
Clostridioides difficile spores are transmitted via direct contact and are highly resistant to the alcohol found in standard hand sanitizers.

Anahtar Kavram

Standard and Transmission-Based Precautions
Soru 3077Soru →

During the administration of a first dose of intravenous ceftriaxone, the client suddenly grasps their neck, stating their throat is closing, and severe expiratory wheezing is noted. Place the following crisis management actions in the correct priority sequence from first to last.

Öğeleri doğru sıraya koymak için sürükleyin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

The correct priority sequence is to first stop the offending infusion, then secure the airway and oxygenation, followed by activating emergency support, and finally administering pharmacological reversal agents like epinephrine.
In an acute anaphylactic crisis, the physiological adaptation principles dictate that removing the trigger is the absolute first step. This must be immediately followed by securing the airway (ABCs), calling for specialized emergency assistance, and then administering definitive pharmacological treatments like epinephrine.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the clinical scenario to determine the primary pathophysiology.
The client is experiencing acute anaphylaxis, a rapid decompensation state characterized by airway compromise.
Recognizing the life-threatening nature of the allergic reaction dictates the speed and prioritization of interventions.
2
Determine the absolute first action to mitigate the cause.
Discontinuing the intravenous antibiotic infusion.
Further exposure to the antigen must be halted immediately to prevent the anaphylactic cascade from worsening.
3
Apply the ABC (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) prioritization framework.
Ensure a patent airway and apply supplemental oxygen.
Airway edema and bronchoconstriction are immediate life threats that take precedence over all other secondary actions.
4
Determine the next step for acquiring advanced medical support.
Activate the facility's rapid response system.
Additional personnel and advanced airway equipment may be required rapidly if the client's condition continues to deteriorate.
5
Provide definitive pharmacological intervention.
Administer intramuscular epinephrine.
Epinephrine is the definitive treatment for anaphylaxis, reversing vasodilation and bronchoconstriction, and should be administered per emergency protocol.

Anahtar Kavram

Anaphylaxis crisis management and prioritization
Tahmini Süre:1m 0s
Soru 3078Soru →

A community health nurse is conducting a home assessment for a 76-year-old client. The client mentions several recent physical and cognitive changes. Which of the following client statements should the nurse identify as an expected physiological change of aging rather than a manifestation of acute pathology?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: I need to wait a few minutes for my eyes to adjust when I walk from the sunny yard into my dark living room.

Cevap

The client stating they need to wait a few minutes for their eyes to adjust when walking into a dark room represents an expected age-related physiological change.
As individuals age, physiological changes in the eye, including decreased pupil resting size, reduced pupillary sphincter responsiveness, and increased lens density, lead to delayed dark adaptation. This is an expected physiological change of senescence that necessitates safety precautions but does not indicate an acute disease process.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's statements to distinguish between expected physiological changes of aging and signs of acute illness.
The nurse must identify which finding represents normal senescence and which findings represent medical emergencies.
Older adults often present with atypical signs of acute illness, making it critical for the nurse to recognize baseline physiological aging to prevent missing a reversible acute condition.
2
Evaluate the statement regarding delayed vision adjustment to darkness.
Delayed dark adaptation is an expected change due to a decrease in pupil size and loss of lens elasticity.
This is a normal physiological manifestation of the aging process that requires safety teaching (e.g., using nightlights) but not emergent medical intervention.
3
Evaluate the statements regarding sudden incontinence, acute confusion, and cardiopulmonary symptoms upon standing.
Sudden incontinence, new-onset confusion, and acute shortness of breath with chest tightness are all abnormal, pathological findings.
Sudden incontinence and confusion are classic atypical presentations of acute infections (like a urinary tract infection) or delirium in older adults, while chest tightness indicates a potential cardiac event.

Anahtar Kavram

Differentiating normal physiological changes of aging from acute pathological presentations
Soru 3079Soru →

An adult client with acute decompensated heart failure is admitted to the cardiac intensive care unit. The client is currently receiving a continuous intravenous (IV) infusion of dobutamine at 10 \mug/kg/min10 \text{ \mu g/kg/min} via a dedicated single-lumen peripheral IV catheter. During the shift, the client suddenly develops severe dyspnea, and the nurse auscultates coarse bilateral crackles. The healthcare provider immediately prescribes a stat dose of furosemide 40 mg40 \text{ mg} IV push. Which of the following is the most appropriate action by the nurse?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Establish a second peripheral IV access immediately to administer the furosemide.

Cevap

Establish a second peripheral IV access immediately to administer the furosemide.
The correct action is to establish a second peripheral IV line. Dobutamine is a critical vasoactive medication with a very short half-life (approximately 2 minutes). Pausing the infusion can lead to rapid hemodynamic deterioration. More importantly, flushing the existing line would inadvertently force a concentrated bolus of dobutamine into the client's bloodstream, risking severe tachycardia and hypertension. Furthermore, furosemide is highly alkaline and physically incompatible with acidic solutions like dobutamine, meaning they cannot be administered simultaneously through a Y-site without causing precipitation. Given the emergent nature of the pulmonary edema, a second IV line is the only safe and effective way to administer the diuretic.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's current clinical status and existing therapies.
The client has acute pulmonary edema requiring immediate diuresis with IV furosemide, but only has one IV line currently infusing continuous dobutamine.
Understanding the urgency and the limitations of current access is the first step in prioritization.
2
Evaluate the pharmacological properties of the continuous infusion.
Dobutamine is a short-acting vasoactive inotrope. The infusion cannot be paused without causing hemodynamic instability, and the line cannot be flushed without delivering an unsafe bolus to the client.
Vasoactive medications require dedicated lines and strict administration protocols to prevent adverse cardiovascular events.
3
Check the physical compatibility of the two medications.
Furosemide and dobutamine are physically incompatible and will precipitate if mixed in the same line.
Administering incompatible medications concurrently can cause crystal formation, leading to catheter occlusion or embolism.
4
Determine the safest method of administration.
Because the primary line cannot be paused, flushed, or used for concurrent administration, a new peripheral IV line must be initiated.
A secondary access site ensures the rapid delivery of the emergent diuretic without compromising the life-sustaining inotropic support.

Anahtar Kavram

Administration Safety for Vasoactive Infusions and IV Incompatibilities

İpuçları

1
Consider the characteristics of continuous vasoactive infusions. What happens if they are suddenly stopped, or if the tubing is flushed?
2
Think about the physical space inside the IV tubing. If you flush the line with normal saline, where does the dobutamine that was sitting in the tubing go?
3
Because the dobutamine line cannot be flushed (it would cause a dangerous bolus) and the medications are incompatible to mix, you must find an entirely different route to administer the IV push medication safely.

Daha Fazla Pratik

Review facility protocols regarding dedicated IV lines for high-alert vasoactive medications and memorize common IV incompatibilities.

Alternatif Yöntem

N/A
Tahmini Süre:1m 15s
Soru 3080Soru →

An emergency department nurse is caring for an older adult client who presents with profound lethargy and confusion. The client has a known medical history of heart failure with a severely reduced ejection fraction. The client's family reports a three-day history of dysuria, chills, and fever prior to admission.

Current vital signs:
- Blood pressure: 76/48 mm Hg (MAP 57 mm Hg)
- Heart rate: 134 bpm
- Respiratory rate: 32 breaths/min
- Temperature: 39.2 °C (102.6 °F)
- Oxygen saturation: 88% on 4 L/min via nasal cannula

Physical assessment reveals prominent jugular venous distention at a 45-degree angle, cool and mottled extremities, and coarse crackles auscultated bilaterally up to the mid-lung fields.

Arterial Blood Gas (ABG) and laboratory results:
ParameterValue
pH7.25
PaCO228 mm Hg
PaO258 mm Hg
HCO3-12 mEq/L
Lactate6.1 mmol/L

Based on the client's clinical presentation and laboratory data, which of the following prescribed interventions is the highest priority for the nurse to implement?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Initiate a prescribed norepinephrine infusion to restore mean arterial pressure and tissue perfusion.

Cevap

Initiate a prescribed norepinephrine infusion to restore mean arterial pressure and tissue perfusion.
The client is experiencing septic shock complicated by severe left- and right-sided heart failure, evidenced by the dangerously low mean arterial pressure (MAP of 57 mm Hg), elevated lactate (6.1 mmol/L), jugular venous distention, and pulmonary edema (crackles). While the standard initial treatment for septic shock is large-volume intravenous fluid resuscitation, this is strictly contraindicated when there are clear clinical signs of profound fluid overload and cardiogenic failure. Administering fluids would worsen the pulmonary edema and respiratory failure. Furthermore, although the client has pulmonary edema, administering a diuretic like furosemide is contraindicated because it would further decrease the already critically low preload and cardiac output, exacerbating the shock state. Therefore, the most immediate priority is to initiate a vasopressor (norepinephrine) to restore systemic vascular resistance and maintain organ perfusion (MAP > 65 mm Hg) without adding volume that the failing heart cannot pump.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the vital signs and physical assessment to determine the client's hemodynamic stability.
The MAP is 57 mm Hg (normal > 65), indicating severe hypoperfusion (shock). Concurrently, JVD and bilateral crackles in a client with a history of heart failure indicate severe fluid overload and pump failure.
Identifying the simultaneous presence of septic shock and acute cardiogenic decompensation is required to avoid harmful standard interventions.
2
Interpret the ABG and laboratory results.
pH is 7.25 (acidosis), HCO3- is 12 mEq/L (metabolic), and PaCO2 is 28 mm Hg (respiratory alkalosis compensation). This is metabolic acidosis with partial respiratory compensation, driven by severe lactic acidosis (lactate 6.1 mmol/L) due to tissue hypoxia.
Accurate ABG interpretation prevents treating the wrong acid-base imbalance (e.g., mistakenly assuming respiratory acidosis due to crackles and hypoxia).
3
Evaluate standard treatment protocols against the specific client presentation to prioritize the first intervention.
Standard sepsis protocol demands fluid boluses. However, signs of acute decompensated heart failure (JVD, crackles) make fluid administration life-threatening. Diuretics are also unsafe due to profound hypotension. Vasopressors (norepinephrine) must be prioritized.
Vasopressors will safely restore systemic vascular resistance and maintain organ perfusion (MAP > 65 mm Hg) without adding volume that the failing heart cannot pump.

Anahtar Kavram

Prioritizing hemodynamic support using vasopressors in complex shock scenarios when standard fluid resuscitation is contraindicated due to severe heart failure.
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