Tüm alıştırma soruları

3881 soru

Soru 3041Soru →

A nurse is evaluating a client who underwent a percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) via the right femoral artery approach 4 hours ago. The femoral sheath has been removed and hemostasis was achieved. The client now reports a new onset of dull, aching pain in the right flank and lower back. Current vital signs are: blood pressure 96/60 mmHg, heart rate 114 bpm, and respiratory rate 20/min. The puncture site dressing is dry and intact, and the right pedal pulse is +2. Which of the following is the priority action by the nurse?

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Cevap: Notify the rapid response team and prepare to administer intravenous isotonic fluids.

Cevap

Notify the rapid response team and prepare to administer intravenous isotonic fluids.
The client is exhibiting classic signs of a retroperitoneal hemorrhage, a severe complication of femoral artery cannulation. Blood pooling in the retroperitoneal space causes flank and back pain, while the loss of circulating volume leads to tachycardia and hypotension. Because the bleeding is internal, the external dressing remains dry. The priority risk reduction action is to activate the rapid response team to obtain immediate medical assistance and prepare for fluid resuscitation to combat impending hypovolemic shock.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's symptoms and vital signs.
The client has new right flank/back pain, hypotension (96/60 mmHg), and tachycardia (114 bpm).
These findings must be evaluated in the context of a recent femoral artery puncture.
2
Correlate the findings to potential post-procedure complications.
The combination of flank/back pain with signs of hypovolemia (tachycardia, hypotension) and a dry external puncture site strongly indicates internal bleeding, specifically a retroperitoneal hemorrhage.
Blood leaking from the femoral artery can track backward into the retroperitoneal space, causing back/flank pain and hidden blood loss.
3
Determine the priority risk reduction intervention.
The priority is to manage impending hypovolemic shock by calling for emergency assistance and initiating fluid resuscitation.
Prompt medical intervention and volume replacement are critical to stabilize the client's hemodynamic status and reduce the risk of mortality.

Anahtar Kavram

Recognition and immediate management of retroperitoneal hemorrhage following femoral artery instrumentation.
Soru 3042Soru →

A client is 4 hours post-coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG) surgery with mediastinal and pleural chest tubes in place. The nurse notes that the previously steady dark red mediastinal drainage has abruptly stopped over the last hour. The client has become highly restless. Current vital signs are heart rate 118 bpm, blood pressure 92/76 mmHg, and respiratory rate 22 breaths/min. The latest arterial blood gas (ABG) on 40% FiO2 reveals: pH 7.32, PaCO2 37 mm Hg, PaO2 88 mm Hg, and HCO3 18 mEq/L. Which action should the nurse take FIRST to reduce the risk of imminent mortality?

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Cevap: Notify the healthcare provider immediately and prepare the client for an emergency echocardiogram and potential chest reopening.

Cevap

The priority action is to notify the healthcare provider immediately and prepare the client for an emergency echocardiogram and potential surgical chest reopening to relieve the cardiac tamponade.
The correct action directly addresses the life-threatening emergency of cardiac tamponade. The clinical presentation—abrupt cessation of mediastinal drainage, narrowing pulse pressure, restlessness, and metabolic acidosis—strongly suggests that blood is accumulating in the pericardial sac, compressing the heart. Immediate echocardiography and decompression (via chest reopening or pericardiocentesis) are required to prevent mortality.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the chest tube drainage trend.
The abrupt cessation of previously steady mediastinal drainage indicates a high probability of a clotted tube, leading to blood accumulating in the mediastinal or pericardial space.
Recognizing sudden changes in drainage output is critical for early detection of postoperative complications.
2
Evaluate the vital signs for signs of decompensation.
The client has a very narrow pulse pressure (92 - 76 = 16 mmHg) and compensatory tachycardia (118 bpm), which are hallmark signs of cardiac tamponade.
Blood trapped in the pericardial space restricts ventricular filling, decreasing stroke volume and causing a narrow pulse pressure and tachycardia.
3
Interpret the arterial blood gas (ABG) values.
The ABG shows a pH of 7.32 (acidemia) and an HCO3 of 18 mEq/L (low) with a normal PaCO2 (37 mm Hg), indicating uncompensated metabolic acidosis.
Decreased cardiac output from the tamponade leads to tissue hypoperfusion, anaerobic metabolism, and subsequent lactic acidosis.
4
Determine the priority nursing intervention.
The nurse must immediately notify the provider and prepare for life-saving interventions like a bedside echocardiogram and chest reopening.
Cardiac tamponade is an obstructive shock emergency that requires immediate mechanical relief of the pressure around the heart to prevent mortality.

Anahtar Kavram

Cardiac tamponade is a life-threatening post-CABG complication indicated by abrupt cessation of mediastinal drainage, narrowing pulse pressure, and signs of shock, requiring immediate surgical or medical decompression.
Soru 3043Soru →

A nurse is evaluating a client admitted 48 hours ago with severe acute pancreatitis. The client has become increasingly restless and confused. Current assessment findings include:

* Respiratory rate: 34 breaths/min and shallow
* Heart rate: 132 beats/min
* Blood pressure: 78/50 mm Hg
* **Oxygen saturation (SpO2SpO_2):** 84% on 4 L/min via nasal cannula
* Urine output: 10 mL over the last 2 hours
* Arterial Blood Gas (ABG): pH 7.25, PaCO2PaCO_2 58 mm Hg, PaO2PaO_2 52 mm Hg, HCO3−HCO_3^- 24 mEq/L

Which of the following interventions should the nurse anticipate implementing? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

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Cevap: Prepare the client for immediate endotracheal intubation.; Initiate a rapid intravenous infusion of an isotonic crystalloid solution.

Cevap

The correct interventions are to prepare the client for immediate endotracheal intubation and to initiate a rapid intravenous infusion of an isotonic crystalloid solution.
The client is experiencing Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome (SIRS) and Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS), which are life-threatening complications of severe acute pancreatitis. The profound hypoxemia (SpO2SpO_2 84%, PaO2PaO_2 52 mm Hg) and hypercapnia (PaCO2PaCO_2 58 mm Hg) despite supplemental oxygen, combined with altered mental status, indicate acute respiratory failure requiring immediate endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation. Simultaneously, the hypotension (78/50 mm Hg), tachycardia, and oliguria signify hypovolemic and distributive shock caused by massive fluid shifts (third-spacing). A rapid infusion of isotonic crystalloid fluids is critical to restore intravascular volume and prevent irreversible organ ischemia.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the vital signs and clinical presentation to identify the primary physiological compromises.
The client exhibits signs of distributive/hypovolemic shock (blood pressure 78/50 mm Hg, heart rate 132 beats/min, urine output 10 mL/2 hr) and worsening acute respiratory failure (respiratory rate 34 breaths/min, SpO2SpO_2 84%, confusion).
Acute pancreatitis frequently triggers Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome (SIRS), leading to massive fluid shifts (third-spacing) and Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS).
2
Interpret the provided Arterial Blood Gas (ABG) values.
The values show a low pH (7.25), elevated PaCO2PaCO_2 (58 mm Hg), and normal HCO3−HCO_3^- (24 mEq/L), along with severe hypoxemia (PaO2PaO_2 52 mm Hg). This confirms uncompensated respiratory acidosis.
Accurate ABG interpretation ensures the correct physiological derangement is targeted (ventilation vs. metabolic buffering).
3
Determine the highest priority interventions based on the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation).
Airway and Breathing require endotracheal intubation due to refractory hypoxemia, hypercapnia, and altered mental status. Circulation requires aggressive isotonic fluid resuscitation to restore perfusion.
Life-threatening ABC deficits must be addressed simultaneously in a rapidly deteriorating client.
4
Evaluate the remaining options for contraindications.
Diuretics are contraindicated due to profound shock. Bicarbonate is inappropriate for respiratory acidosis. Abdominal skin assessment is a low priority.
Interventions that worsen the client's hemodynamic instability or delay life-saving care must be actively avoided.

Anahtar Kavram

Prioritization in Multi-System Organ Failure
Soru 3044Soru →

A nurse is planning discharge teaching regarding self-care management for a 15-year-old client recently diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate to promote the client's independence?

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Cevap: Collaborating with the client to incorporate blood glucose monitoring into their daily school and sports schedule.

Cevap

Collaborating with the client to incorporate blood glucose monitoring into their daily school and sports schedule.
Promoting self-care in an adolescent requires recognizing their need for autonomy and normalcy. By collaborating to integrate blood glucose monitoring into their existing school and sports schedule, the nurse empowers the client, respects their developmental stage, and increases the likelihood of long-term adherence to the prescribed regimen.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the client's developmental stage.
The client is a 15-year-old adolescent.
The client's developmental stage dictates the most effective approach for teaching self-care.
2
Determine the psychosocial needs of an adolescent.
Adolescents seek autonomy, identity, and peer acceptance.
Self-care plans must align with these psychosocial needs to ensure engagement and adherence.
3
Evaluate the nursing actions based on adolescent developmental needs and safe nursing practice.
Integrating care into the client's existing schedule promotes autonomy and peer integration. The other options represent developmental, delegation, or communication errors.
The best action empowers the client to manage their condition while maintaining safe, therapeutic boundaries.

Anahtar Kavram

Self-Care Promotion in Adolescence
Soru 3045Soru →

An adult client hospitalized with a deep vein thrombosis is receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of heparin. The healthcare provider prescribes a scheduled dose of intravenous vancomycin to treat a concurrent wound infection. The client currently has a single patent 2020-gauge peripheral venous catheter. Upon checking the facility drug reference, the nurse notes that heparin and vancomycin are physically incompatible at the Y-site. Which action by the nurse is the most appropriate?

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Cevap: Insert a second peripheral intravenous catheter to administer the vancomycin infusion.

Cevap

The nurse should insert a second peripheral intravenous catheter to administer the vancomycin infusion.
The correct action is to establish a second peripheral intravenous site. Because heparin and vancomycin are physically incompatible, they cannot be mixed in the same line without risking precipitation. Additionally, heparin is a critical continuous infusion with a short half-life; stopping it for the duration of a vancomycin infusion (typically 6060 to 9090 minutes) would cause subtherapeutic anticoagulation levels, placing the client at high risk for clot extension.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the clinical scenario and the properties of the prescribed medications.
The client requires both continuous heparin and scheduled vancomycin, but the drug reference confirms they are physically incompatible at the Y-site.
Identifying drug incompatibility is a mandatory first step to prevent adverse patient outcomes during parenteral therapy.
2
Evaluate the clinical risks of pausing the primary continuous infusion.
Heparin has a short half-life; pausing it for the duration of a vancomycin infusion would lead to subtherapeutic anticoagulation levels.
Maintaining continuous therapeutic anticoagulation is the highest priority for a client diagnosed with an active deep vein thrombosis.
3
Determine the safest method to deliver both the continuous drip and the scheduled antibiotic without chemical precipitation.
The nurse must initiate a new, separate vascular access site.
A second peripheral intravenous line allows both the critical continuous infusion and the necessary antibiotic to be administered safely, simultaneously, and independently.

Anahtar Kavram

Safe administration of incompatible intravenous medications and management of continuous high-alert infusions
Soru 3046Soru →

The charge nurse at an inpatient neurological rehabilitation center is coordinating care for several clients recovering from brain injuries. The nursing team consists of a Registered Nurse (RN), a Licensed Practical Nurse (LPN/VN), and an Unlicensed Assistive Personnel (UAP). Which of the following task assignments are safe and appropriate? Select all that apply.

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Cevap: Assigning the LPN/VN to administer enteral tube feedings via an established percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube; Assigning the UAP to apply bilateral sequential compression devices (SCDs) to a client with limited mobility; Assigning the LPN/VN to insert an indwelling urinary catheter for a client experiencing acute urinary retention

Cevap

The appropriate assignments are having the LPN/VN administer enteral tube feedings, having the UAP apply sequential compression devices, and having the LPN/VN insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
Delegation must align with the legal scope of practice and the client's stability. LPNs/VNs possess the necessary licensure to execute routine sterile procedures (such as urinary catheter insertion) and administer therapies via established routes (such as PEG tube feedings). UAPs are trained to perform standard, non-invasive tasks on stable clients, such as applying sequential compression devices, which have predictable outcomes and require no clinical judgment.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the scope of practice for an Unlicensed Assistive Personnel (UAP).
Identify that UAPs can perform standard, non-invasive tasks with predictable outcomes on stable clients, such as applying sequential compression devices, but cannot perform tasks requiring clinical assessment, such as monitoring neurological status or feeding a high-risk dysphagia client.
Delegating tasks that require clinical judgment to UAPs compromises client safety and violates the principles of delegation.
2
Analyze the scope of practice for a Licensed Practical Nurse (LPN/VN).
Identify that LPNs/VNs can perform routine sterile procedures (like catheterization) and administer medications or feedings through established routes, but they cannot independently modify care plans.
The RN retains the ultimate responsibility for the nursing process, including assessment, planning, and evaluation.
3
Evaluate each assignment against the Five Rights of Delegation.
Determine that assigning PEG tube feedings and catheterization to the LPN/VN, and SCD application to the UAP, represents the right task, right circumstance, and right person.
Matching the complexity of the task and the stability of the client to the competency of the healthcare worker ensures safe and effective care.

Anahtar Kavram

Scope of Practice and Delegation Principles
Soru 3047Soru →

A nurse is preparing to perform open suctioning for an adult client with a tracheostomy tube. To minimize the risk of complications such as hypoxia and mucosal trauma, in what order should the nurse perform the following actions? Arrange the steps in the correct sequence.

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Cevap

The correct sequence for tracheostomy suctioning is to first assess the client's baseline respiratory status, hyperoxygenate to prevent hypoxia, advance the catheter without suction to prevent trauma, apply intermittent suction only while withdrawing the catheter, and finally document the findings.
Following the standard sequence of assessment, pre-oxygenation, careful insertion, active withdrawal suctioning, and documentation ensures that the client's airway is cleared while systematically mitigating the risks of severe hypoxemia and mucosal tissue damage.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Assess the client's baseline breath sounds and oxygen saturation.
Establishes a baseline for comparison.
Risk reduction begins with obtaining accurate baseline data to determine the necessity of the procedure.
2
Hyperoxygenate the client with 100% oxygen.
Increases alveolar oxygen reserves.
Prevents procedure-induced hypoxia, a critical risk during airway clearance.
3
Advance the catheter into the tracheostomy tube without applying suction.
Positions the catheter safely near the carina.
Prevents severe tissue trauma to the mucosal lining.
4
Apply intermittent suction while rotating and withdrawing the catheter.
Clears mucus and respiratory secretions.
Safely removes secretions while minimizing airway damage.
5
Document the characteristics of the secretions and the client's response.
Completes the medical record.
Ensures continuity of care and legal documentation of the therapeutic procedure.

Anahtar Kavram

Therapeutic Procedures: Safe sequence for tracheostomy suctioning to reduce the risk of hypoxia and mucosal trauma.
Soru 3048Soru →

Following a motor vehicle collision, a young adult client is admitted to the neurosurgical unit with a traumatic brain injury. The latest assessment reveals a blood pressure of 172/68 mm Hg and a heart rate of 52 beats per minute. Previous vital signs were a blood pressure of 130/82 mm Hg and a heart rate of 88 beats per minute. What is the most appropriate initial action for the nurse to perform?

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Cevap: Elevate the head of the client's bed to 30 degrees.

Cevap

The most appropriate initial action is to elevate the head of the client's bed to 30 degrees.
The client's vital signs demonstrate a significantly widening pulse pressure and new-onset bradycardia. In a client with a traumatic brain injury, these are classic components of Cushing's triad, which indicates a dangerous physiological adaptation to an increase in intracranial pressure (ICP). Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees is the priority initial action because it promotes venous return from the brain, helping to reduce ICP.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the vital sign changes over time.
The systolic blood pressure increased from 130 to 172 mm Hg (creating a significantly widening pulse pressure), and the heart rate decreased from 88 to 52 beats per minute.
Recognizing these specific trends is crucial for identifying Cushing's triad, a classic physiological response to increased intracranial pressure (ICP).
2
Determine the immediate clinical priority.
The priority is to implement measures that reduce intracranial pressure and maintain adequate cerebral perfusion.
Unrelieved increased ICP can rapidly lead to fatal brain herniation.
3
Select the most appropriate initial nursing intervention.
Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees is selected.
This specific position promotes jugular venous outflow by gravity, thereby lowering intracranial pressure effectively without causing harm.

Anahtar Kavram

Cushing's Triad and Management of Increased Intracranial Pressure
Tahmini Süre:1m 0s
Soru 3049Soru →

A home healthcare nurse is developing a comprehensive care plan for a 68-year-old client recovering from a recent myocardial infarction. The nurse identifies several interventions to include in the plan of care to promote optimal health outcomes. Which of the following planned interventions specifically represents a secondary level of disease prevention?

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Cevap: Administering the Patient Health Questionnaire-9 (PHQ-9) to assess for early signs of depression.

Cevap

Administering the Patient Health Questionnaire-9 (PHQ-9) to assess for early signs of depression.
Secondary prevention involves interventions aimed at early detection through screening and prompt treatment of a disease or condition to halt its progression. Clients recovering from a myocardial infarction are at a high risk for developing depression. Administering a screening tool such as the PHQ-9 allows the nurse to detect early signs of depression and initiate timely treatment, making this a classic example of secondary prevention.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Define the goal of secondary prevention in nursing practice.
Secondary prevention focuses on screening, early detection, and prompt treatment of diseases or conditions.
Understanding the definitions of prevention levels is necessary to accurately classify nursing interventions.
2
Analyze each intervention to determine its prevention level.
Vaccinations and fall hazard removal are primary prevention (preventing illness/injury). Cardiac rehabilitation is tertiary prevention (managing existing disease). The PHQ-9 is a screening tool.
Matching each intervention to the correct prevention level eliminates distractors.
3
Select the intervention that aligns with secondary prevention.
The depression screening (PHQ-9) is the only intervention that represents early detection and secondary prevention.
Screening for depression in a high-risk client allows for early intervention before the condition worsens.

Anahtar Kavram

Levels of Disease Prevention
Soru 3050Soru →

A nurse is reviewing the arterial blood gas (ABG) results for a client with a long history of severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following ABG findings indicates that the client's body has physiologically compensated for the chronic respiratory condition?

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Cevap: An elevated bicarbonate (HCO3-) level

Cevap

An elevated bicarbonate (HCO3-) level
In clients with severe COPD, chronic retention of carbon dioxide leads to respiratory acidosis. Over time, the body physiologically adapts to this state through renal compensation. The kidneys retain and increase the production of bicarbonate (a base) to buffer the excess acid and maintain the blood pH as close to the normal range as possible.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the primary acid-base imbalance associated with COPD.
COPD causes chronic airflow limitation, leading to the retention of carbon dioxide (CO2), which creates a state of chronic respiratory acidosis.
Understanding the underlying pathophysiology is necessary to anticipate the body's compensatory mechanisms.
2
Determine the body's physiological compensatory mechanism for respiratory acidosis.
The kidneys respond to elevated CO2 levels by retaining and producing more bicarbonate (HCO3-) to buffer the acid and raise the blood pH back toward normal.
Renal compensation is the primary way the body adapts to chronic respiratory acid-base imbalances.

Anahtar Kavram

Renal compensation in chronic respiratory acidosis
Soru 3051Soru →

A client with a history of severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving non-invasive positive pressure ventilation (NIPPV) for an acute exacerbation. The client's initial arterial blood gas (ABG) values on admission were pH 7.247.24, PaCO 2_2 7676 mm Hg, PaO 2_2 5252 mm Hg, and HCO 3−_3^- 3434 mEq/L. After 90 minutes of continuous NIPPV therapy, a repeat ABG reveals pH 7.317.31, PaCO 2_2 6464 mm Hg, PaO 2_2 6262 mm Hg, and HCO 3−_3^- 3434 mEq/L. Upon entering the room to review these results, the nurse observes that the client is now difficult to arouse, moans only in response to a sternal rub, and exhibits absent gag and swallow reflexes. Which action should the nurse take immediately?

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Cevap: Remove the non-invasive ventilation mask and prepare the client for emergent endotracheal intubation.

Cevap

The nurse must immediately prepare for endotracheal intubation because the client has lost the ability to protect their airway, which is an absolute contraindication for continuing non-invasive ventilation.
Although the client's arterial blood gas values are demonstrating objective physiological improvement (increasing pH, decreasing PaCO2, and increasing PaO2), the clinical neurological assessment indicates severe deterioration. A decreased level of consciousness to the point of responding only to pain, combined with the loss of protective airway reflexes (absent gag and swallow), are absolute contraindications for non-invasive positive pressure ventilation (NIPPV). The risk of emesis and subsequent massive aspiration is critically high. The nurse must recognize that treating the patient's airway patency (the 'A' in ABCs) supersedes the improving ventilation numbers, necessitating immediate endotracheal intubation.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the progression of the arterial blood gas values.
The pH has increased, PaCO2 has decreased, and PaO2 has increased, indicating that the NIPPV is effectively improving alveolar ventilation and oxygenation.
To evaluate the physiological effectiveness of the current respiratory intervention.
2
Evaluate the current neurological and airway assessment findings.
The client is obtunded (responding only to pain) and lacks gag and swallow reflexes, demonstrating a profound inability to clear secretions or protect the airway from aspiration.
To determine if the client meets the strict safety criteria required for non-invasive positive pressure ventilation.
3
Synthesize the objective data with the clinical presentation to determine priority.
The life-threatening clinical deterioration (loss of airway protection) supersedes the improving laboratory data. NIPPV is now inherently dangerous, and an advanced airway is required.
Airway patency is the highest physiological priority. A patient must be alert enough to protect their airway to safely use NIPPV.

Anahtar Kavram

Clinical indications and contraindications for invasive versus non-invasive airway management during acute respiratory failure.
Soru 3052Soru →

While a nurse is changing the needleless connector caps on a 65-year-old client's right subclavian central venous catheter, the client suddenly gasps for air, reports sharp chest pain, and develops peripheral cyanosis. Recognizing the signs of a potential air embolism, in what order should the nurse perform the following emergency interventions? Arrange the steps from first priority to last priority.

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Cevap

The correct sequence of actions for a suspected central line air embolism is to first clamp the catheter, then position the client in a left lateral Trendelenburg position, followed by administering 100% oxygen, activating the rapid response team, and finally continuously monitoring vital signs.
In the event of a suspected air embolism from a central venous catheter, priority interventions follow the principles of source control and preventing further physiological harm. The nurse must first clamp the line to stop the influx of air. Immediately after, the client is placed in a left lateral Trendelenburg position. This is a critical, specific intervention that uses gravity and buoyancy to keep the air bubble in the apex of the right ventricle, preventing it from migrating into the pulmonary arterial bed and causing a fatal outflow obstruction. Once the air is trapped, administering 100% oxygen is the next priority to treat hypoxia and create a nitrogen gradient that helps dissolve the bubble. Only after these immediate, life-saving physical maneuvers are complete should the nurse activate the rapid response team and prepare for further deterioration, as taking time to call for help first could allow the embolus to migrate fatally.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Clamp the central venous catheter.
Halts further introduction of air into the venous circulation.
When an air embolism is suspected, the immediate priority is to eliminate the source to prevent the embolus from becoming larger and more lethal.
2
Place the client in a left lateral Trendelenburg position.
Traps the air in the right side of the heart.
This specific gravitational positioning prevents the air bubble from traveling through the right ventricle into the pulmonary artery, averting a catastrophic right ventricular outflow tract obstruction.
3
Administer high-flow 100% oxygen via a non-rebreather mask.
Alleviates hypoxia and reduces the size of the air embolus.
High-concentration oxygen not only treats the resulting hypoxemia but also establishes a nitrogen diffusion gradient that accelerates the resorption of the air bubble, which is primarily composed of nitrogen.
4
Activate the rapid response team and notify the healthcare provider.
Summons advanced medical assistance.
After immediate life-saving physical interventions are complete, the nurse must quickly mobilize the medical team for further stabilization, such as potential needle aspiration of the air or transfer to the ICU.
5
Obtain continuous vital signs and prepare equipment for possible intubation.
Ensures readiness for physiological deterioration.
The client remains critically unstable and may rapidly progress to cardiopulmonary arrest. Continuous monitoring and preparation for advanced airway management are essential while awaiting the rapid response team.

Anahtar Kavram

Management of a Central Line-Associated Air Embolism requires immediate cessation of air entry, specialized positioning to prevent pulmonary obstruction, and oxygen therapy to shrink the embolus.
Soru 3053Soru →

A nurse is preparing to administer a unit of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) to a client with symptomatic anemia. Arrange the following actions in the correct chronological sequence to ensure safe administration.

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Cevap

The correct sequence is to first verify the prescription and consent, then assess IV patency and baseline vital signs, followed by obtaining the blood from the blood bank. Afterward, perform the two-nurse bedside verification, and finally, initiate the transfusion slowly.
Safe administration of blood products requires a strict, logical sequence to prevent life-threatening errors and product waste. The nurse must first ensure authorization (prescription and consent). Next, the nurse must ensure the client is physically ready (patent IV and stable baseline vitals) before obtaining the blood, because PRBCs must be hung within 30 minutes of leaving the blood bank. After retrieving the blood, the nurse must perform the mandatory two-nurse verification at the bedside to ensure exact compatibility. Finally, the transfusion is started slowly while the nurse remains with the client for the first 15 minutes to monitor for acute severe reactions.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Verify the healthcare provider's prescription and confirm informed consent.
Legal and medical authorization is confirmed.
Blood administration requires explicit consent due to the risk of severe reactions and transmission of infectious diseases.
2
Assess the patency of the IV catheter and obtain baseline vital signs.
The client's physical readiness to receive the transfusion is established.
If IV access fails or the client has an elevated temperature, the transfusion cannot proceed. Blood must be returned to the blood bank if not hung within 30 minutes, so readiness must be verified before retrieval.
3
Obtain the unit of PRBCs from the blood bank.
The blood product is brought to the clinical unit.
The blood must be retrieved only when the client is fully prepared to receive the transfusion immediately.
4
Perform a joint verification with another registered nurse at the bedside.
The correct blood product is verified for the correct client.
Strict two-nurse verification is the primary safeguard against fatal ABO incompatibility errors.
5
Initiate the transfusion slowly and remain with the client for 15 minutes.
The transfusion begins safely, and the client is monitored during the highest-risk period.
Most life-threatening transfusion reactions occur within the first 15 minutes or first 50 mL of the infusion.

Anahtar Kavram

Safe Administration of Blood Products
Soru 3054Soru →

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a transfusion of packed red blood cells. Fifteen minutes after the transfusion begins, the client suddenly reports severe lower back pain, chills, and dyspnea. Place the following nursing interventions in the correct order of priority from first to last.

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Cevap

The correct sequence is to first stop the transfusion, then maintain intravenous access with normal saline using new tubing, assess the client's vital signs, notify the healthcare provider, and finally send the blood products back to the blood bank.
In an acute hemolytic or allergic transfusion reaction, the priority follows a strict physiological adaptation protocol. The absolute highest priority is stopping the source of harm (the blood). The second priority is maintaining vascular access with new tubing to avoid flushing more blood into the client. Once the line is secure, the nurse assesses the client to determine the extent of the physiological compromise. This assessment data is then communicated to the healthcare provider to obtain emergency prescriptions. Returning the blood bag for diagnostic analysis is an administrative task that occurs last.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Stop the transfusion immediately.
The infusion of the potentially incompatible blood product is halted.
This is the most critical step to prevent further antigen exposure and minimize the severity of the reaction.
2
Disconnect tubing and start 0.9% sodium chloride with new tubing.
Intravenous access is maintained with a neutral fluid.
It ensures a route for emergency medications is open while preventing the remaining blood in the old tubing from being pushed into the client.
3
Assess vital signs and respiratory status.
Baseline data on the severity of the reaction is obtained.
The nurse needs current hemodynamic data (blood pressure, heart rate, oxygenation) to provide a complete SBAR report to the provider.
4
Notify the healthcare provider and blood bank.
Medical intervention is initiated and the facility's reaction protocol is activated.
The provider must prescribe subsequent treatments (e.g., antihistamines, corticosteroids, or vasopressors).
5
Return the blood bag and tubing to the blood bank.
The offending blood product is secured for laboratory investigation.
The blood bank must analyze the remaining blood and tubing to identify the exact cause of the adverse reaction.

Anahtar Kavram

Management of Acute Blood Transfusion Reactions
Soru 3055Soru →

A registered nurse is preparing to apply knee-length anti-embolism stockings to a client who is on strict bed rest. Place the following nursing actions in the correct order from first to last. (All steps are required.)

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Cevap

The correct sequence begins with measuring the client's legs to ensure proper sizing, followed immediately by elevating the legs to promote venous drainage. The nurse then prepares the stocking by turning it inside out, applies it over the foot and heel, and finally smooths it up the calf to prevent wrinkles.
The correct sequence ensures that stockings provide optimal therapeutic benefit. Proper sizing and pre-elevation of the legs prevent the trapping of venous blood. The specific inside-out application technique minimizes friction and prevents skin shearing during application, while smoothing the fabric prevents dangerous tourniquet effects.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Measure the client's calf circumference and leg length to determine the appropriate stocking size.
Secures the correct fit for the client's specific anatomy.
Accurate sizing is required prior to application to ensure therapeutic compression without restricting arterial flow.
2
Place the client in a supine position and elevate the legs for 15 to 30 minutes.
Empties engorged superficial veins.
Applying compression stockings while blood is pooled in the lower extremities traps venous blood and can promote, rather than prevent, thrombus formation.
3
Insert a hand into the stocking, grasp the heel pocket, and turn the stocking inside out.
Inverts the stocking down to the heel section.
This specific technique allows the stocking to be rolled smoothly onto the leg rather than bunched up, minimizing skin shearing.
4
Slide the foot portion of the stocking smoothly over the client's toes and heel.
Anchors the stocking correctly on the distal extremity.
Aligning the heel patch exactly over the client's heel prevents localized friction and pressure ulcers.
5
Pull the remaining fabric up over the calf and smooth out any wrinkles.
Completes the application process with uniform compression.
Wrinkles, folds, or rolled top edges act as a tourniquet, cutting off venous return and increasing the risk of deep vein thrombosis.

Anahtar Kavram

Immobility Interventions: Anti-embolism Stockings Application
Soru 3056Soru →

A registered nurse is evaluating a newly licensed nurse's understanding of confidentiality, information security, and legal mandates in the clinical setting. Which of the following actions by the newly licensed nurse demonstrate appropriate adherence to these principles? (Select all that apply.)

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Logging off the electronic workstation immediately before stepping away to assist a client.; Using a facility-approved, encrypted mobile device to send a text message to the physician regarding a client's status.; Refusing to provide a client's room number to a visitor who does not know the designated privacy passcode.

Cevap

The correct actions are logging off the electronic workstation before stepping away, using a facility-approved encrypted device for clinical text messages, and requiring a designated privacy passcode before sharing the client's room number.
Appropriate adherence to confidentiality involves actively securing electronic information (logging off, using encrypted facility devices) and strictly enforcing privacy protocols (requiring passcodes). These actions ensure that protected health information (PHI) is only accessible to authorized individuals directly involved in the client's care.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the stem to determine what is being asked.
The question requires selecting all actions that correctly align with HIPAA, information security, and legal/ethical mandates.
Identifying the core concepts ensures that both data security rules and legal exceptions are considered.
2
Evaluate the actions related to electronic and verbal data security.
Logging off the computer, using encrypted messaging, and strictly enforcing passcode policies actively protect protected health information (PHI) and are correct actions.
These actions prevent unauthorized access to physical and electronic health records.
3
Evaluate the action related to mandatory reporting.
Refusing to report child abuse is incorrect because mandatory reporting laws supersede general confidentiality protections.
Nurses are mandatory reporters, and withholding such information is a legal violation.
4
Evaluate the actions related to delegation and communication.
Delegating the explanation of privacy practices to UAP is outside their scope, and giving vague reassurances to unauthorized individuals is both a HIPAA violation and non-therapeutic.
Initial teaching must be done by the RN, and unauthorized individuals should not receive any updates, implicit or explicit.

Anahtar Kavram

Information security requires protecting electronic health records and physical data from unauthorized access, though nurses must also recognize legal exceptions to confidentiality, such as mandatory reporting of abuse.
Soru 3057Soru →

During the first post-surgical shift following an exploratory laparotomy, a client's clinical parameters demonstrate a subtle but continuous shift. The client's systolic blood pressure has drifted from 138138 mm Hg to 118118 mm Hg, while the diastolic pressure has climbed from 7070 mm Hg to 8888 mm Hg. Concurrently, the resting heart rate has accelerated from 7878 to 115115 beats per minute, and the respiratory rate is currently 2828 breaths per minute. The most recent hourly urine measurement yielded 1515 mL. Which underlying pathophysiological mechanism best accounts for this symptom complex?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Sympathetic nervous system activation aiming to maintain cardiac output in the presence of an absolute fluid deficit.

Cevap

The client's presentation reflects sympathetic nervous system activation aiming to maintain cardiac output in the presence of an absolute fluid deficit.
The correct answer accurately identifies the compensatory stage of hypovolemic shock. The client is experiencing an absolute fluid deficit (likely hemorrhage or third-spacing post-surgery). To compensate and preserve perfusion to vital organs, the sympathetic nervous system triggers peripheral vasoconstriction, which drives the diastolic pressure up. Simultaneously, decreased venous return and stroke volume cause the systolic pressure to fall, resulting in a distinctly narrowed pulse pressure. Tachycardia and oliguria further confirm this compensatory hypovolemic state.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the blood pressure trend.
The initial pulse pressure was 6868 mm Hg (138−70138 - 70). It has now narrowed significantly to 3030 mm Hg (118−88118 - 88).
Calculating pulse pressure is critical for differentiating the types of physiological shock.
2
Evaluate the remaining vital signs and urine output.
The client has developed tachycardia (115115 bpm), tachypnea (2828 breaths/min), and oliguria (1515 mL/hr).
These parameters indicate how well the body is perfusing vital organs and compensating for physiological stress.
3
Synthesize the findings to identify the pathophysiological state.
A narrowing pulse pressure combined with tachycardia and low urine output is the hallmark presentation of early, compensated hypovolemic (or hemorrhagic) shock.
The sympathetic nervous system causes vasoconstriction (raising diastolic BP) to compensate for the fluid loss (lowering systolic BP), while increasing the heart rate to maintain overall cardiac output.

Anahtar Kavram

Early recognition of hypovolemic shock through narrowing pulse pressure and compensatory autonomic responses.
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 3058Soru →

A client with osteoarthritis is prescribed oral ibuprofen 600 mg600 \text{ mg} every 8 hours as needed for joint pain. The medication is available on the unit as an oral suspension with a concentration of 100 mg/5 mL100 \text{ mg} / 5 \text{ mL}. How many milliliters (mL\text{mL}) should the nurse administer for a single dose?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: 30 mL30 \text{ mL}

Cevap

The nurse should administer 30 mL30 \text{ mL} for a single dose.
To calculate the correct liquid dosage, the formula (Desired / Have) × Volume is used. The desired dose is 600 mg600 \text{ mg} and the available dose is 100 mg100 \text{ mg} in a volume of 5 mL5 \text{ mL}. Calculating 600100×5\frac{600}{100} \times 5 yields 30 mL30 \text{ mL}.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the desired (prescribed) dose.
Desired dose = 600 mg600 \text{ mg}
This is the target amount of medication the provider ordered for the client.
2
Identify the dose you have available and its corresponding volume.
Have = 100 mg100 \text{ mg}, Volume = 5 mL5 \text{ mL}
This represents the concentration of the medication supplied by the pharmacy.
3
Apply the standard dosage formula: (Desired / Have) × Volume.
600 mg100 mg×5 mL=6×5 mL=30 mL\frac{600 \text{ mg}}{100 \text{ mg}} \times 5 \text{ mL} = 6 \times 5 \text{ mL} = 30 \text{ mL}
This determines the exact physical volume of liquid needed to deliver the prescribed milligrams of medication.

Anahtar Kavram

Basic Medication Dosage Calculation
Soru 3059Soru →

A nurse is assessing a postoperative client who recently underwent major abdominal surgery. Which clinical findings should indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing the early, compensatory stage of hypovolemic shock? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Heart rate of 118 beats per minute; Restlessness and apprehension; Cool, pale skin on the extremities

Cevap

The correct findings are a heart rate of 118 beats per minute, restlessness and apprehension, and cool, pale skin on the extremities.
In the early (compensatory) stage of hypovolemic shock, the body attempts to maintain adequate cardiac output and vital organ perfusion despite volume loss. This is achieved through sympathetic nervous system stimulation, which increases the heart rate (tachycardia) and causes peripheral vasoconstriction, leading to cool, pale extremities. Additionally, mild hypoxia to the brain causes early neurological changes such as restlessness, anxiety, or apprehension.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's condition and the stage of shock asked in the question.
The question asks specifically for signs of the 'early, compensatory stage' of hypovolemic shock.
Different stages of shock present with vastly different clinical symptoms. Focusing on early mechanisms is key.
2
Identify physiological responses during the compensatory stage.
The body activates the sympathetic nervous system to maintain blood pressure and perfusion to vital organs. This results in an increased heart rate, peripheral vasoconstriction, and mild hypoxia.
These compensatory mechanisms attempt to overcome the loss of circulating volume.
3
Evaluate each option against known early compensatory mechanisms.
Tachycardia, restlessness (from mild hypoxia), and cool/pale skin (from vasoconstriction) are early signs. Hypotension and bounding pulses are incorrect.
Eliminating late signs and pathophysiologically incorrect findings isolates the correct early indicators.

Anahtar Kavram

Compensatory Mechanisms in Early Shock
Tahmini Süre:1m 0s
Soru 3060Soru →

An emergency department nurse initiates a prescribed sodium nitroprusside continuous intravenous infusion for a patient presenting with acute hypertensive encephalopathy and underlying renal insufficiency. To ensure patient safety during this high-alert parenteral therapy, which interventions must the nurse implement? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Shield the medication reservoir with an opaque cover immediately upon preparation to prevent rapid photodegradation.; Discontinue the infusion immediately if the solution in the intravenous tubing turns dark blue, green, or red.; Assess the patient for tinnitus, hyperreflexia, and confusion, as these indicate thiocyanate accumulation.

Cevap

The essential nursing interventions include shielding the medication from light, discontinuing the solution if it changes to a dark blue, green, or red color, and closely monitoring for neurological signs of thiocyanate toxicity due to the patient's renal insufficiency.
Sodium nitroprusside requires specialized handling because of its rapid degradation when exposed to light, which can be identified by the solution turning dark blue, green, or red (normal is faint brown). Furthermore, it is metabolized into thiocyanate, which is renally excreted. Because this patient has renal insufficiency, the nurse must rigorously monitor for thiocyanate toxicity, characterized by central nervous system disturbances such as tinnitus, confusion, and hyperreflexia.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the pharmacological properties of sodium nitroprusside.
Identify that it is a highly potent, light-sensitive vasodilator metabolized into cyanide and thiocyanate.
Understanding the drug's metabolism and physical properties dictates safe handling, such as using opaque covers and assessing fluid color.
2
Evaluate the patient's comorbid conditions in the context of the therapy.
Recognize that underlying renal insufficiency severely impairs the excretion of thiocyanate.
Impaired renal function exponentially increases the risk of life-threatening thiocyanate toxicity, requiring vigilant neurological assessment for hyperreflexia and confusion.
3
Assess the incorrect options for safety violations related to parenteral therapies and physiological adaptation.
Identify that placing a hypotensive patient in high-Fowler's, sharing an IV line with pantoprazole, and expecting respiratory alkalosis are critical clinical errors.
Safe parenteral administration requires dedicated lines for vasoactive drips, correct interpretation of metabolic acidosis as a toxicity sign, and appropriate flat or Trendelenburg positioning for shock.

Anahtar Kavram

Safe administration, compatibility rules, and toxicity monitoring for continuous sodium nitroprusside infusions.
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