Tüm alıştırma soruları

3881 soru

Soru 3301Soru →

A 28-year-old client is mechanically ventilated in the intensive care unit following a severe traumatic brain injury. The client is sedated and receiving continuous intracranial pressure (ICP) monitoring. Current assessment findings include:

- Vital signs: Blood pressure 155/85 mm Hg, Heart rate 62 bpm, SpO2 98%.
- Current ICP: 24 mm Hg (Baseline for this client: 12 mm Hg).
- Arterial Blood Gas (ABG) results: pH 7.31, PaCO2 54 mm Hg, PaO2 95 mm Hg, HCO3 26 mEq/L.

Which action should the nurse prioritize to reduce the client's risk for neurological deterioration?

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Cevap: Request a prescription to increase the ventilator's respiratory rate

Cevap

Requesting a prescription to increase the ventilator's respiratory rate.
The client's ABG results indicate respiratory acidosis with a significantly elevated PaCO2 (hypercapnia). Carbon dioxide is a potent cerebral vasodilator. In a client with a traumatic brain injury and an already elevated ICP (24 mm Hg), this vasodilation increases cerebral blood volume and further drives up intracranial pressure, placing the client at imminent risk for brain herniation. Increasing the ventilator's respiratory rate will increase minute ventilation, allowing the client to exhale excess CO2. This reduction in PaCO2 induces cerebral vasoconstriction, effectively reducing the ICP and mitigating the risk of neurological deterioration.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the ABG results.
The ABGs reveal respiratory acidosis (pH 7.31) driven by hypercapnia (PaCO2 54 mm Hg).
Identifying the primary acid-base imbalance is necessary to determine the physiological impact on the client's current status.
2
Correlate the hypercapnia with the client's neurological assessment.
The elevated PaCO2 is causing cerebral vasodilation, which is directly contributing to the critically elevated ICP of 24 mm Hg.
Carbon dioxide is a potent cerebral vasodilator; increased blood volume in the rigid cranial vault raises ICP and increases herniation risk.
3
Select the intervention that corrects the physiological root cause.
Increasing the respiratory rate on the ventilator will increase minute ventilation and blow off excess CO2.
Reducing PaCO2 induces cerebral vasoconstriction, which decreases cerebral blood volume and effectively lowers intracranial pressure.

Anahtar Kavram

Reduction of Risk Potential: Managing elevated intracranial pressure through physiological compensation (manipulating PaCO2).
Soru 3302Soru →

A nurse is receiving a client at 36 weeks gestation in the emergency department immediately following a severe motor vehicle collision. The client is immobilized flat on a rigid backboard with a cervical collar applied. The client's blood pressure is 88/50 mmHg and heart rate is 112 beats/minute. Which action should the nurse take first?

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Cevap: Manually displace the client's uterus to the left side

Cevap

Manually displace the client's uterus to the left side.
The correct answer addresses the immediate mechanical cause of the client's circulatory compromise. At 36 weeks gestation, laying strictly supine on a rigid backboard causes the gravid uterus to compress the inferior vena cava. This significantly reduces venous return to the heart, leading to supine hypotensive syndrome, which manifests as hypotension and compensatory tachycardia. Because the client is on spinal precautions and cannot be tilted or rolled as a single unit without specialized team coordination, manual left uterine displacement must be performed immediately by a responder. This action physically moves the uterus off the major vessels, restoring venous return and maternal cardiac output, which is the absolute priority for stabilizing both the mother and the fetus.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation.
The client is in the third trimester of pregnancy, is immobilized flat on a rigid backboard due to trauma, and exhibits signs of hemodynamic compromise (hypotension and tachycardia).
Establishing the baseline clinical picture and identifying abnormal, life-threatening findings is the first step in clinical judgment.
2
Determine the physiological cause of the vital signs.
At 36 weeks gestation, laying strictly supine causes the heavy gravid uterus to compress the inferior vena cava and descending aorta, drastically reducing venous return and cardiac output (supine hypotensive syndrome).
Understanding the anatomical and physiological changes of advanced pregnancy is essential to identifying the root cause of the shock state.
3
Apply prioritization principles (ABCs) alongside safety constraints.
Maternal circulation must be restored immediately. However, the client cannot be tilted or rolled into a lateral decubitus position due to the required spinal precautions.
Spinal alignment must be maintained to prevent neurological injury while simultaneously addressing the critical circulatory compromise.
4
Select the most appropriate initial intervention.
Manual left uterine displacement is the correct and necessary first action to relieve vena cava compression without compromising spinal alignment.
This mechanical intervention restores maternal venous return, which is the foundational priority for both maternal survival and fetal perfusion.

Anahtar Kavram

Maternal physiological adaptation and emergency trauma prioritization (Left Uterine Displacement)
Soru 3303Soru →

A nurse is coordinating care for an older adult client who is recovering from a right middle cerebral artery (MCA) infarction. The client exhibits left-sided hemiplegia, moderate dysphagia, and episodes of evening agitation. Which intervention demonstrates the correct application of basic care and comfort principles?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Begin morning dressing routines by placing clothing on the client's affected left arm and leg first.

Cevap

Begin morning dressing routines by placing clothing on the client's affected left arm and leg first.
For a client with unilateral weakness or hemiplegia, basic care principles dictate that clothing should always be put on the affected (weak) side first and removed from the unaffected (strong) side first. This sequence minimizes the need to move or stretch the paralyzed limbs awkwardly, thereby reducing the risk of joint subluxation, contractures, or pain. It also empowers the client to use their functional strong side to assist the nurse with the remainder of the dressing process.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation.
The client has left-sided hemiplegia due to a right MCA stroke, dysphagia, and behavioral changes.
Understanding the specific deficits is required to determine safe and effective basic care interventions.
2
Evaluate the safety and scope of practice for each proposed intervention.
Delegating evaluation to a UAP is unsafe. Positioning at 15 degrees during feeding risks aspiration. Dismissing agitation ignores potential pathology.
Nursing care must prioritize airway safety, correct delegation principles, and accurate clinical assessment.
3
Identify the standard protocol for dressing a client with unilateral weakness.
The correct protocol is to undress the unaffected side first, and dress the affected side first.
This technique minimizes excessive stretching or manipulation of the paralyzed limb, preventing joint subluxation and promoting client comfort.

Anahtar Kavram

Basic care and comfort for clients with unilateral hemiplegia involves specific dressing sequences to protect impaired limbs.
Soru 3304Soru →

The nurse is preparing a client for a bedside abdominal paracentesis. In what order should the nurse perform the following actions to ensure client safety and reduce the risk of complications? Arrange the actions in the correct chronological sequence.

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Cevap

The correct sequence is to first verify informed consent, then instruct the client to void, followed by obtaining baseline data, and finally positioning the client upright.
The proper sequence prioritizes legal requirements first, followed by anatomical risk reduction, baseline assessment, and finally procedural positioning. Verifying consent is always the initial action. Having the client void decreases bladder size, which is a critical safety step to reduce perforation risk. Baseline data is then collected (weight is most accurate after voiding) to monitor for subsequent fluid shifts or shock. Finally, the upright position allows ascitic fluid to pool in the lower abdomen for safe removal.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Verify informed consent
Ensures legal authorization
Must be done before any procedure preparation begins.
2
Instruct client to void
Empty bladder
Reduces the risk of accidental bladder perforation during trocar insertion.
3
Obtain baseline data
Records vital signs, weight, and abdominal girth
Provides a baseline to monitor for post-procedure hypovolemic shock or bleeding.
4
Position client upright
Fluid pools in lower abdomen
Facilitates safe fluid aspiration by gravity.

Anahtar Kavram

Preparation for a paracentesis focuses on legal authorization, anatomical safety (emptying the bladder to prevent perforation), baseline assessment for monitoring complications, and proper positioning to facilitate the procedure.
Soru 3305Soru →

An adult client being treated for severe sepsis has a double-lumen central venous catheter in place. One lumen is dedicated to a continuous infusion of total parenteral nutrition, and the other lumen is delivering a continuous infusion of norepinephrine. The provider prescribes an immediate intravenous dose of vancomycin. What is the safest action by the nurse?

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Cevap: Insert a new peripheral intravenous catheter to administer the vancomycin.

Cevap

The nurse must insert a new peripheral intravenous catheter to administer the vancomycin, as both central line lumens are occupied by continuous therapies that cannot be interrupted or shared.
The correct action is to establish new peripheral intravenous access. The client has two critical continuous infusions running: total parenteral nutrition and norepinephrine. Total parenteral nutrition requires a strictly dedicated line due to a high infection risk and chemical incompatibilities. Norepinephrine is a life-sustaining vasopressor; adding a secondary piggyback into its line alters the delivery rate of the vasopressor, potentially causing a dangerous bolus effect or diluting the medication. Additionally, pausing the vasopressor would lead to rapid and profound hypotension. Therefore, neither existing lumen can be safely used, and new access is required.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Evaluate the current use of the central venous catheter lumens.
One lumen is used for total parenteral nutrition and the other for a continuous norepinephrine infusion.
Before administering a new medication, the nurse must assess the availability and compatibility of existing intravenous access.
2
Analyze the administration requirements for total parenteral nutrition.
Total parenteral nutrition requires a strictly dedicated line and cannot be mixed with secondary medications.
Mixing medications with parenteral nutrition increases the risk of infection, precipitation, and complex chemical incompatibilities.
3
Analyze the administration requirements for continuous norepinephrine.
Norepinephrine is a critical vasoactive medication that must infuse continuously and should not share a line with intermittent infusions.
Altering the flow rate of a vasopressor line with a secondary medication's volume can cause life-threatening hemodynamic instability. Furthermore, pausing the vasopressor will cause rapid hypotension.
4
Determine the safest method to administer the newly prescribed vancomycin.
Since neither central lumen can be used safely, a new peripheral intravenous access must be established.
Establishing new access ensures the client receives the necessary antibiotic immediately without compromising their nutritional support or hemodynamic stability.

Anahtar Kavram

Continuous critical infusions such as total parenteral nutrition and vasopressors require dedicated intravenous access and should not be interrupted or used for secondary medication administration.
Soru 3306Soru →

A client presents to a crowded emergency department triage desk reporting a sudden onset of high fever, severe muscle pain, and unexplained epistaxis. The client reports returning three days ago from a region currently experiencing a high-consequence viral hemorrhagic fever outbreak. Activate the facility's emergency response plan by arranging the following immediate nursing actions in the correct priority sequence.

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Cevap

The correct sequence prioritizes immediate public safety via source control, followed by physical isolation, staff protection, institutional notification, and finally administrative security.
In a biological threat scenario involving a high-consequence infectious disease, the 'Identify, Isolate, Inform' framework dictates immediate priorities. Once the threat is identified at triage, the absolute first priority is source control (masking the client), followed instantly by physical isolation. Only after the immediate risk to the crowded waiting area is mitigated should the nurse step away to don time-consuming, high-level PPE. Once protected, the nurse notifies infection control to activate the emergency response plan. Finally, administrative controls, such as a personnel log, are established.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Apply source control.
The client wears a medical mask.
Instantly prevents droplet dispersion in the waiting room before any movement occurs.
2
Isolate the client.
The client is moved to a private room.
Removes the biological hazard from the public area to contain the exposure risk.
3
Don appropriate PPE.
The nurse applies high-level protective gear.
Ensures the nurse is fully protected before conducting any direct care or extended assessment.
4
Notify authorities.
Infection control and public health are alerted.
Activates the facility's emergency response plan and mobilizes necessary specialized resources.
5
Secure the area.
An entry log and perimeter are established.
Prevents unauthorized exposure and facilitates strict contact tracing for all interacting staff.

Anahtar Kavram

Identify, Isolate, and Inform (High-Consequence Infectious Disease Protocol)
Soru 3307Soru →

A nurse is evaluating a client who is 2 hours2\text{ hours} post-procedure following a right-sided cardiac catheterization via the femoral artery. Which of the following clinical findings indicate a developing complication and require immediate intervention? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

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Cevap: The client's resting heart rate increases from 7676 to 114 beats per minute114\text{ beats per minute}.; The client reports sudden, severe lower back and flank pain.

Cevap

The findings requiring immediate intervention are the increased resting heart rate and the sudden, severe lower back and flank pain.
Following a femoral cardiac catheterization, the most critical priority is monitoring for arterial hemorrhage and retroperitoneal bleeding. An unexplained increase in heart rate (tachycardia) is one of the earliest compensatory signs of hypovolemic shock due to internal volume loss. Additionally, sudden, severe back or flank pain is the classic hallmark presentation of a retroperitoneal hematoma. Both of these specific findings indicate a life-threatening complication that requires immediate medical intervention.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the specific risks associated with the clinical procedure.
The primary severe risk following a femoral cardiac catheterization is arterial hemorrhage, specifically retroperitoneal bleeding.
The femoral artery is a major high-pressure vessel, and inadequate hemostasis can lead to rapid internal blood loss.
2
Evaluate the assessment findings to detect signs of physiological decompensation.
An escalating heart rate and sudden back or flank pain are identified as abnormal indicators of hemodynamic instability.
Tachycardia serves as an early compensatory mechanism for hypovolemic shock, while retroperitoneal blood accumulation typically presents as severe back or flank pain.
3
Differentiate expected post-procedure baselines from actual complications.
Supine positioning with an extended leg, normal arterial blood gases, and mild insertion site discomfort are confirmed as expected or stable findings.
Intervening on expected physiological baselines or correct positional protocols delays critical care for the actual hemorrhagic complications.

Anahtar Kavram

Post-Cardiac Catheterization Hemorrhage Complications
Soru 3308Soru →

An adult client who is 24 hours24\text{ hours} postoperative following a small bowel resection remains NPO (nothing by mouth). The primary healthcare provider prescribes a continuous intravenous (IV) infusion of 1000 mL1000\text{ mL} of lactated Ringer's solution to be administered over an 8-hour8\text{-hour} period.

At what rate in milliliters per hour (mL/hr) should the nurse set the electronic IV infusion pump? Record your answer as a whole number.

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Cevap: 125

Cevap

The nurse should set the electronic IV infusion pump to deliver 125 mL/hr125\text{ mL/hr}.
To determine the correct programmed rate for an electronic intravenous infusion pump, the nurse must calculate the volume of fluid to be administered per hour. The standardized formula is Total Volume (mL)÷Total Time (hours)\text{Total Volume (mL)} \div \text{Total Time (hours)}. Dividing 1000 mL1000\text{ mL} by 8 hours8\text{ hours} yields a precise continuous rate of 125 mL/hr125\text{ mL/hr}.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the total prescribed volume.
1000 mL1000\text{ mL}
This value serves as the numerator in the infusion rate calculation.
2
Identify the prescribed duration for the infusion.
8 hours8\text{ hours}
This value serves as the denominator in the infusion rate calculation.
3
Divide the total volume by the total time.
1000÷8=1251000 \div 8 = 125
This mathematical operation determines the specific amount of fluid that must be delivered each hour to complete the infusion on time.

Anahtar Kavram

Basic intravenous fluid infusion rate calculation for an electronic pump
Soru 3309Soru →

A severe thunderstorm causes a massive regional power outage, and the hospital immediately transitions to emergency backup generator power. A nurse is providing care for a group of hemodynamically unstable clients in the intensive care unit (ICU). Which actions should the nurse take during this internal utility emergency? Select all that apply.

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Cevap: Plug all mechanical ventilators and critical continuous intravenous infusion pumps into the designated red emergency electrical outlets.; Ensure a manual bag-valve-mask (BVM) resuscitator is physically present and accessible at every client's bedside.; Verify that the internal backup battery indicators on all life-support equipment are actively charging.

Cevap

The correct actions include plugging critical equipment into red emergency outlets, ensuring manual resuscitators are at every bedside, and verifying that internal equipment batteries are charging.
During a hospital power outage, the primary objective in an intensive care unit is to maintain life-sustaining treatments. Emergency generators provide electricity to designated red outlets. The nurse must ensure all critical devices (ventilators, IV pumps) are plugged into these specific outlets and that their internal batteries are actively charging to prepare for any subsequent power disruptions. Furthermore, a manual bag-valve-mask (BVM) resuscitator must be kept at the bedside to provide immediate, manual ventilation if mechanical respiratory support completely fails.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Assess the immediate impact of the power transition on critical life-support equipment.
Identifies which devices require emergency generator power to sustain life.
Mechanical ventilators and vasoactive infusions cannot be safely interrupted.
2
Secure backup ventilation methods at the point of care.
Provides a fail-safe mechanism if the generator fails or a specific outlet malfunctions.
The ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) must be maintained at all times, requiring immediate manual intervention if mechanical support drops.
3
Prioritize nursing interventions and avoid inappropriate delegation.
The registered nurse maintains direct responsibility for evaluating client stability.
Hemodynamically unstable clients require continuous advanced clinical judgment that falls outside the UAP scope of practice.

Anahtar Kavram

Internal Emergency Response: Utility Power Failure
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 3310Soru →

A client weighing 154 lbs154\text{ lbs} is experiencing continuous generalized tonic-clonic seizures. The healthcare provider orders a loading dose of intravenous phenytoin 18 mg/kg18\text{ mg/kg} to be administered at the maximum safe rate. The client currently has a single 20-gauge peripheral IV in the right forearm with a continuous infusion of 5%5\% dextrose in 0.45%0.45\% sodium chloride (D5 1/2 NS) running at 100 mL/hr100\text{ mL/hr}. Phenytoin is supplied in 50 mg/mL50\text{ mg/mL} vials.

Which action by the nurse represents the safest and most appropriate administration technique?

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Cevap: Pause the continuous IV infusion, flush the line with 0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride, administer the 1260 mg1260\text{ mg} dose over a minimum of 2626 minutes, and flush again with 0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride before resuming.

Cevap

Pause the continuous IV infusion, flush the line with 0.9% sodium chloride, administer the 1260 mg dose over a minimum of 26 minutes, and flush again with 0.9% sodium chloride before resuming.
The correct action synthesizes accurate weight-based dosing, rate calculation, and compatibility principles. The client weighs 70 kg70\text{ kg}, requiring a total dose of 1260 mg1260\text{ mg}. Because intravenous phenytoin must not be administered faster than 50 mg/min50\text{ mg/min} to avoid severe hypotension and fatal arrhythmias, the dose must be given over a minimum of 25.225.2 minutes. Additionally, phenytoin is highly incompatible with dextrose solutions and will precipitate. Therefore, the nurse must pause the dextrose-containing primary fluid, flush the line with compatible 0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride, administer the medication slowly, and flush again before resuming the primary fluid.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Calculate the client's weight in kilograms.
154 lbs÷2.2 lbs/kg=70 kg154\text{ lbs} \div 2.2\text{ lbs/kg} = 70\text{ kg}.
Accurate weight in kilograms is necessary for precise weight-based dosing.
2
Calculate the total ordered dose of phenytoin.
18 mg/kg×70 kg=1260 mg18\text{ mg/kg} \times 70\text{ kg} = 1260\text{ mg}.
Determines the absolute amount of medication to administer based on the provider's order.
3
Determine the minimum safe administration time.
1260 mg÷50 mg/min=25.2 minutes1260\text{ mg} \div 50\text{ mg/min} = 25.2\text{ minutes}.
Intravenous phenytoin administration must not exceed 50 mg/min50\text{ mg/min} in adults to prevent severe cardiovascular collapse.
4
Evaluate intravenous compatibility with the primary fluid.
Phenytoin is strictly incompatible with dextrose-containing solutions such as D5 1/2 NS.
Mixing phenytoin with dextrose causes immediate crystal formation and precipitation in the tubing.
5
Formulate the safe administration procedure.
Pause the primary infusion, flush thoroughly with 0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride, administer the drug over at least 25.225.2 minutes (e.g., 2626 minutes), and flush again before resuming.
This ensures no mixing of incompatible fluids and adheres to strict rate limits.

Anahtar Kavram

Phenytoin Administration: Dosage, Rate Limits, and IV Compatibility
Soru 3311Soru →

A client is admitted to the medical-surgical unit following a right-hemispheric stroke. The client exhibits severe left-sided neglect, impulsive behavior, and impaired judgment. Despite having dense left-sided hemiparesis, the client repeatedly attempts to stand up and walk unassisted. Which intervention is the most appropriate initial action to prevent injury?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Relocate the client to a room near the nurses' station and activate a bed-exit alarm.

Cevap

The most appropriate initial action is to relocate the client to a room near the nurses' station and activate a bed-exit alarm.
Relocating the client near the nurses' station increases visual surveillance, and a bed-exit alarm provides an immediate auditory warning when the client attempts to stand. This combination is highly effective for impulsive clients and strictly adheres to the fundamental nursing principle of using the least restrictive alternative to prevent falls and injury.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation and identify the primary safety risk.
The client has impulsivity, left-sided neglect, and hemiparesis, creating an extremely high risk for unassisted falls.
Right-hemispheric strokes frequently impair judgment and spatial-perceptual orientation, leading clients to overestimate their abilities.
2
Select an intervention based on the principle of least restrictive measures.
Implementing close observation and an electronic bed alarm provides safety without restricting the client's movement.
Nursing standards mandate that safety interventions must prioritize the least restrictive measures before any physical or chemical restraints are considered.

Anahtar Kavram

Accident and Injury Prevention: Least Restrictive Interventions
Tahmini Süre:1m 15s
Soru 3312Soru →

A nurse is preparing to mix and administer a prescribed dose of Regular insulin and NPH insulin in a single syringe. Arrange the steps of this procedure in the correct sequence from first to last.

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Cevap

The correct sequence for mixing insulins is to gently roll the NPH vial, inject air into the NPH vial, inject air into the Regular insulin vial, draw up the Regular insulin, and finally draw up the NPH insulin (Clear before Cloudy).
When mixing insulin, the fundamental rule is 'clear before cloudy' (Regular before NPH) to avoid contaminating the short-acting insulin with the intermediate-acting insulin. The correct sequence ensures the vials are pressurized properly while maintaining sterility and preventing cross-contamination.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Roll the NPH insulin vial between the palms.
The cloudy suspension is thoroughly mixed.
NPH insulin contains particles that settle at the bottom; rolling prevents bubble formation that can alter the dose measurement.
2
Inject air into the NPH insulin vial.
The NPH vial is pressurized.
Pressurizing the vial prevents a vacuum, and doing this first prevents contamination of the clear insulin.
3
Inject air into the Regular insulin vial.
The Regular insulin vial is pressurized.
The needle can now remain in this vial to draw the first medication.
4
Withdraw the prescribed dose of Regular insulin.
The clear insulin is drawn into the syringe.
Drawing clear insulin before cloudy insulin prevents contamination of the rapid-acting or short-acting insulin vial.
5
Withdraw the prescribed dose of NPH insulin.
Both insulins are successfully mixed in the syringe.
This completes the combined dose preparation safely.

Anahtar Kavram

Safe Parenteral Medication Administration: Mixing Insulins
Soru 3313Soru →

Following an industrial explosion resulting in a mass casualty incident, the hospital activates its Emergency Operations Plan (EOP) to surge capacity. The charge nurse on a medical-surgical unit is evaluating current clients for early discharge to make beds available for incoming victims. Which of the following clients is the safest candidate to recommend for immediate discharge?

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Cevap: A 48-year-old client admitted for acute pyelonephritis, who has been afebrile for the past 24 hours and successfully transitioned to oral antibiotics.

Cevap

The client admitted for acute pyelonephritis who has been afebrile for 24 hours and successfully transitioned to oral antibiotics.
The client with acute pyelonephritis is the safest candidate for early discharge. During a mass casualty incident surge, clients considered for early discharge must be clinically stable, have resolving conditions, and be capable of continuing their treatment at home with oral medications. Being afebrile for 24 hours and successfully tolerating oral antibiotics indicates this client's condition is improving and can be safely managed outside the hospital.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the principles of early discharge during an Emergency Operations Plan (EOP) activation.
The primary goal is to safely clear inpatient beds for incoming mass casualty victims by identifying clients who are clinically stable and can continue their recovery at home.
Ensures critical resources are available for incoming trauma victims while maintaining a baseline of safety for existing hospital clients.
2
Evaluate the client with acute pyelonephritis for discharge readiness.
The client has been afebrile for 24 hours and is successfully tolerating oral antibiotics without issue.
This demonstrates a resolving infection and clinical stability. The client can easily complete the therapeutic regimen in an outpatient setting, making them the safest candidate for discharge.
3
Evaluate the remaining clients for instability or ongoing acute hospital needs.
The TIA client is at high risk for a stroke and needs urgent diagnostics. The post-operative client requires intravenous analgesia. The heart failure client has acute weight gain indicating a failed transition to oral diuretics.
Discharging clients with a high risk of life-threatening complications, ongoing intravenous medication needs, or signs of clinical deterioration violates fundamental safety standards, even during a disaster surge.

Anahtar Kavram

Discharge Prioritization during an Emergency Operations Plan (EOP)
Soru 3314Soru →

During an interdisciplinary case review, the healthcare team evaluates several clients exhibiting challenging behaviors on a medical unit. According to regulatory standards and safety guidelines, for which client is the application of physical restraints clinically justified?

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Cevap: A client with metabolic encephalopathy who persistently attempts to remove a life-sustaining chest tube despite continuous reorientation and a trial of alternative sensory items

Cevap

A client with metabolic encephalopathy who persistently attempts to remove a life-sustaining chest tube despite continuous reorientation and a trial of alternative sensory items
The correct answer identifies that physical restraints are only legally and clinically appropriate when they are necessary to prevent the disruption of life-sustaining medical therapy, and only after less restrictive measures have been attempted and documented. The client with metabolic encephalopathy pulling at a chest tube meets these strict criteria.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Evaluate the clinical indication for each client's behavior.
Identify that wandering, resisting a bed bath, and attempting to get out of bed to use the restroom do not threaten immediate medical stability in a way that requires restraints.
Restraints must only be used for the immediate physical safety of the client or others, never for convenience, discipline, or routine fall prevention.
2
Determine if less restrictive alternatives were attempted.
The client pulling the chest tube had continuous reorientation and alternative sensory items trialed first, which failed.
Regulatory standards mandate that physical restraints are an intervention of last resort after alternative measures have been documented as ineffective.
3
Select the client for whom restraints are legally and clinically indicated.
The client attempting to remove the life-sustaining chest tube is the only appropriate candidate.
Removal of a chest tube is a life-threatening event, justifying the temporary use of restraints to protect the medical device.

Anahtar Kavram

Physical restraints are an intervention of last resort, justified only to prevent immediate physical harm to the client (such as pulling out life-sustaining equipment) after less restrictive alternatives have failed, and cannot be used for fall prevention or staff convenience.
Soru 3315Soru →

A nurse is providing morning care for a client who is in balanced suspension skeletal traction for a fractured right femur. Which action by the nurse demonstrates the correct application of basic care and comfort principles?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Assisting the client to use an overhead trapeze bar to lift the upper body off the bed for a linen change

Cevap

The correct answer is assisting the client to use an overhead trapeze bar to lift their upper body off the bed for a linen change.
The use of an overhead trapeze bar allows a client in balanced suspension skeletal traction to safely lift their upper body off the bed. This facilitates independent movement, assists with bedpan placement, and allows the nurse to perform back care and linen changes without disrupting the continuous line of pull required for fracture alignment.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's specific medical intervention and its physical constraints.
The client is in balanced suspension skeletal traction, which requires continuous, uninterrupted pull to maintain bone alignment.
Basic care must be adapted to avoid disrupting the traction setup or causing injury.
2
Evaluate each nursing action against the safety rules for skeletal traction and general nursing scope of practice.
Lifting weights and turning side-to-side disrupt traction. Delegating assessment is outside the UAP scope of practice. Using a trapeze bar safely facilitates care.
Identifying contraindicated actions eliminates incorrect choices based on foundational basic care and delegation principles.
3
Select the action that promotes basic care and comfort while maintaining the safety and integrity of the traction.
Assisting the client to use an overhead trapeze bar is the correct action.
This is the only evidence-based, safe action for a client with skeletal traction who requires hygiene and linen changes.

Anahtar Kavram

Basic Care and Positioning for Clients in Skeletal Traction
Soru 3316Soru →

A nurse hears a loud noise from a client's room and enters to find the client lying on the floor. Arrange the following nursing actions in the correct chronological order from first to last.

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Cevap

The correct sequence is to first assess responsiveness and ABCs, then inspect for physical injuries, followed by obtaining vital signs, returning the client to bed, and finally notifying the provider and completing an incident report.
This sequence follows the nursing process and the ABCs prioritization framework. When a client falls, the immediate priority is to assess for life-threatening conditions (responsiveness and airway). Next, the nurse must rule out physical injuries (like a hip fracture or head trauma) before moving the client, as premature movement can exacerbate injuries. Vital signs provide further assessment data regarding the client's stability. Only after confirming the client is stable and uninjured should they be moved. Finally, reporting and documentation are completed once the client is safe.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Assess responsiveness and ABCs.
Determines if there is an immediate life-threatening emergency.
Airway, breathing, and circulation are the highest priorities.
2
Inspect for visible injuries.
Identifies bleeding, skin tears, or deformities.
Rules out injuries that would contraindicate moving the client.
3
Obtain baseline vital signs.
Evaluates hemodynamic stability.
Helps identify physiological causes for the fall.
4
Return the client to bed.
Client is safely placed back in a secure environment.
Assessment is complete and client is cleared for safe movement.
5
Notify provider and document.
Healthcare team is informed and legal documentation is filed.
Ensures continuity of care and facility protocol compliance.

Anahtar Kavram

Post-Fall Nursing Assessment and Prioritization
Soru 3317Soru →

Thick, black smoke begins pouring from a linen storage room on a medical-surgical floor. The fire alarm is activated, and the charge nurse initiates a horizontal evacuation to the adjacent fire compartment. In what order should the nurse direct the evacuation of the following clients? Arrange the clients from first to be evacuated to last.

Öğeleri doğru sıraya koymak için sürükleyin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

The correct sequence is to first evacuate the client in immediate danger (adjacent to the fire), followed by the ambulatory client, then the semi-ambulatory client (wheelchair), and finally the non-ambulatory client (stretcher).
Facility fire evacuation protocols require staff to first rescue anyone in immediate danger (the client next to the fire). Once the immediate danger area is cleared, the strategy shifts to moving the greatest number of people in the shortest amount of time. This means directing ambulatory clients out first, as they require little to no assistance. Next, semi-ambulatory clients (wheelchair-bound) are moved. Finally, non-ambulatory or bedbound clients (requiring stretchers and multiple staff) are evacuated, as they are the most labor-intensive and time-consuming to transport.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the client in the most immediate danger from the fire.
The client with pelvic fractures is in the room sharing a wall with the fire source.
The 'R' in the RACE protocol stands for Rescue; anyone in immediate proximity to the hazard must be moved first to prevent injury or death.
2
Prioritize the remaining clients based on the principle of doing the greatest good for the greatest number in the shortest time.
The ambulatory client pacing with an IV pole is selected next.
Ambulatory clients can evacuate themselves with minimal direction, freeing up staff and clearing the hallways quickly.
3
Determine the next fastest group of clients to move.
The client requiring a wheelchair is selected third.
Semi-ambulatory clients require some staff assistance but are much faster to transport than fully bedbound clients.
4
Assign the most resource-intensive clients to be evacuated last.
The unarousable client requiring a stretcher is evacuated last.
Moving non-ambulatory clients requires multiple staff members and takes significant time, which could delay the evacuation of many others if done earlier.

Anahtar Kavram

During a facility fire, evacuation prioritization follows the RACE protocol (Rescue clients in immediate danger first) and then prioritizes based on mobility: ambulatory clients first, semi-ambulatory second, and non-ambulatory last.
Soru 3318Soru →

A nurse is caring for a client who underwent a right transfemoral (above-the-knee) amputation 24 hours ago. Which positioning strategy should be incorporated into the daily routine to ensure optimal joint mobility for future prosthesis use?

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Cevap: Place the client on their abdomen for 30 minutes, three to four times a day.

Cevap

Place the client on their abdomen for 30 minutes, three to four times a day.
Placing the client in a prone position for short periods several times a day physically extends the hip joint. This action stretches the flexor muscles, preventing the development of a hip flexion contracture, which is critical for future ambulation with a prosthesis.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the primary long-term mobility goal for a client with a transfemoral amputation.
The goal is successful fitting and ambulation with a lower extremity prosthesis.
Understanding the desired outcome dictates which physical complications must be prioritized and prevented.
2
Determine the anatomical risks associated with a transfemoral amputation.
The client is at high risk for developing hip flexion contractures due to muscle imbalance and prolonged sitting.
Without the weight of the lower leg to naturally extend the hip, the flexor muscles tend to tighten and shorten.
3
Select the nursing intervention that directly counteracts hip flexion.
Prone positioning (lying on the abdomen) physically extends the hip joint.
Routine prone positioning stretches the hip flexors, preserving the range of motion required to properly align and use a prosthetic leg.

Anahtar Kavram

Post-Amputation Positioning and Contracture Prevention
Soru 3319Soru →

An interdisciplinary healthcare team is coordinating care for a newly admitted client presenting with generalized, weeping vesicular lesions diagnosed as disseminated herpes zoster. When establishing the infection control and safety protocols for this client, which of the following actions are appropriate? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Assign the client to a private room equipped with negative-pressure airflow.; Wear a clean, disposable gown and non-sterile gloves when providing direct physical care.; Ensure the door to the client's room remains securely closed at all times.

Cevap

The appropriate actions are assigning the client to a negative-pressure room, wearing a gown and gloves for direct care, and keeping the room door closed.
Disseminated herpes zoster presents a high risk of transmission through both aerosolized particles and direct contact with weeping lesions. Therefore, the client requires strict airborne and contact precautions. This includes placement in a negative-pressure Airborne Infection Isolation Room (AIIR) with the door kept closed to contain the virus. Furthermore, healthcare personnel must wear clean gowns and gloves to prevent contact transmission during direct physical care.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the transmission-based precautions required for the client's specific diagnosis.
Disseminated herpes zoster requires both airborne and contact precautions.
The virus can spread through aerosolized droplets from the respiratory tract or generalized lesions, as well as through direct physical contact with vesicular fluid.
2
Determine the environmental requirements for airborne precautions.
The client must be placed in a negative-pressure Airborne Infection Isolation Room (AIIR) with the door closed.
Negative pressure and a closed door prevent the virus from escaping into adjoining hospital corridors.
3
Select the appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE) for healthcare staff and the client.
Staff must wear an N95 respirator, gown, and gloves. If the client leaves the room, the client wears a standard surgical mask.
An N95 protects staff from inhalation, while gowns/gloves prevent physical contamination. A standard mask on the client serves as adequate source control without compromising their respiration.
4
Evaluate the proposed delegation tasks against the RN scope of practice.
Assessment and evaluation cannot be delegated to a UAP.
The UAP can assist with basic hygiene, but clinical evaluation of skin integrity requires RN judgment.

Anahtar Kavram

Disseminated Herpes Zoster requires both Airborne and Contact Precautions, necessitating specific environmental controls (negative pressure), appropriate PPE (N95, gown, gloves), and strict adherence to RN delegation principles.
Soru 3320Soru →

A client with stage 5 chronic kidney disease (CKD) arrives at the emergency department after missing three consecutive hemodialysis sessions. The client is lethargic and exhibits deep, rapid respirations at a rate of 34 breaths/min34 \text{ breaths/min}. An electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals tall, peaked T waves. The most recent arterial blood gas (ABG) shows a pH of 7.227.22, PaCO2 of 28 mm Hg28 \text{ mm Hg}, PaO2 of 96 mm Hg96 \text{ mm Hg}, and HCO3- of 12 mEq/L12 \text{ mEq/L}. To reduce the risk of imminent physiological collapse, which prescribed action should the nurse implement FIRST?

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Cevap: Administer intravenous regular insulin concurrently with 50%50\% dextrose.

Cevap

The correct priority action is to administer intravenous regular insulin concurrently with 50% dextrose.
The correct action directly addresses the most critical, life-threatening physiological abnormality: severe hyperkalemia. In a client with stage 5 CKD who has missed dialysis, the presence of peaked T waves indicates imminent cardiac toxicity. Intravenous regular insulin facilitates the rapid intracellular shift of potassium, temporarily lowering serum levels and protecting the myocardium from fatal dysrhythmias, while concurrent 50%50\% dextrose prevents severe hypoglycemia.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the clinical history and physical presentation.
The client has stage 5 CKD and missed three dialysis sessions, putting them at extreme risk for uremia, volume overload, and severe hyperkalemia. The lethargy and rapid breathing are critical systemic signs.
Identifying the root cause of the client's deterioration guides the entire resuscitation effort.
2
Interpret the ECG findings.
The presence of tall, peaked T waves is a hallmark electrocardiographic sign of critical hyperkalemia.
Hyperkalemia decreases the resting membrane potential of the myocardium, leading to fatal arrhythmias such as ventricular fibrillation or asystole if not rapidly treated.
3
Interpret the Arterial Blood Gas (ABG) values.
The pH (7.227.22) and HCO3- (12 mEq/L12 \text{ mEq/L}) demonstrate severe uncompensated/partially compensated metabolic acidosis. The PaCO2 (28 mm Hg28 \text{ mm Hg}) is low due to Kussmaul respirations (hyperventilation), which is the body's attempt to compensate by blowing off volatile acids.
Accurate ABG interpretation prevents the dangerous misstep of treating compensatory hyperventilation as a primary respiratory failure.
4
Select the intervention that addresses the most immediate life threat.
Administering IV regular insulin with 50%50\% dextrose is chosen.
Insulin acts rapidly to shift potassium from the intravascular space into the intracellular space, stabilizing the cardiac membrane within minutes. Dextrose is required to prevent profound hypoglycemia.

Anahtar Kavram

Emergency Management of Severe Hyperkalemia and ABG Interpretation

Alternatif Yöntem

Another valid, immediate first-line intervention for severe hyperkalemia with ECG changes is the administration of intravenous calcium gluconate. While it does not lower the serum potassium level, it immediately stabilizes the myocardial resting membrane potential, reducing the risk of lethal dysrhythmias while potassium-shifting agents are prepared.
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