Tüm alıştırma soruları

3881 soru

Soru 3341Soru →

While monitoring a client receiving an infusion of packed red blood cells, the nurse notes the client suddenly develops chills, dyspnea, and flank pain. Arrange the following nursing actions in the correct priority sequence to mitigate further physiological risk.

Öğeleri doğru sıraya koymak için sürükleyin

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Cevap

The correct sequence is to first stop the transfusion, maintain the IV line with normal saline using new tubing, assess the client, notify the provider and blood bank, and finally return the blood products for testing.
When a hemolytic transfusion reaction is suspected (indicated by chills, dyspnea, and flank pain), the absolute highest priority is stopping the source of harm. Immediately after stopping the transfusion, the nurse must maintain a patent IV line for emergency medications by infusing normal saline through entirely new tubing. Once the client's line is secure, the nurse assesses the client to gather data, notifies the provider to get medical orders, and finally sends the remaining blood products to the lab for investigation. This chronological sequence prioritizes immediate life-saving actions over assessment and reporting.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Stop the blood transfusion immediately.
The administration of the incompatible blood product is halted.
Preventing further antigen exposure is the absolute highest priority to minimize physiological harm.
2
Disconnect the blood tubing and initiate a normal saline infusion with new IV tubing.
The IV line remains patent and free of additional blood.
Emergency medications and fluids will be needed; new tubing ensures that any blood left in the old tubing is not inadvertently flushed into the client.
3
Assess the client's vital signs and respiratory status.
Current physiological data is obtained.
The nurse needs a rapid, accurate clinical picture of the client's stability to communicate to the provider.
4
Notify the healthcare provider and the blood bank.
Medical interventions are ordered and the facility protocol is activated.
The provider will prescribe medications like antihistamines, corticosteroids, or vasopressors based on the assessment findings.
5
Send the blood bag, attached tubing, and labels back to the blood bank.
The physical evidence is secured for investigation.
Laboratory analysis is required to confirm a hemolytic reaction and prevent future mismatches.

Anahtar Kavram

Management of Acute Hemolytic Transfusion Reactions
Tahmini Süre:1m 0s
Soru 3342Soru →

A nurse is assessing a client who underwent a bedside thoracentesis 1 hour ago to drain a large pleural effusion. To reduce the risk of a life-threatening complication, which assessment finding requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?

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Cevap: Sudden-onset tachypnea, asymmetric chest wall expansion, and absent breath sounds on the procedural side

Cevap

The sudden onset of tachypnea, asymmetric chest wall expansion, and absent breath sounds on the procedural side.
The correct answer identifies the hallmark signs of a pneumothorax: tachypnea, unequal chest expansion, and diminished or absent breath sounds on the affected side. A pneumothorax is a severe, life-threatening complication of a thoracentesis that requires immediate medical intervention, such as chest tube placement, to re-expand the lung.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the procedure and its associated risks.
A thoracentesis involves inserting a needle into the pleural space. The most significant immediate risk is a pneumothorax (lung collapse) due to inadvertent puncture of the lung tissue.
Understanding the high-risk complications of a specific procedure directs the focused assessment.
2
Evaluate the clinical significance of each option.
The ABG values are normal, the high-Fowler's position is beneficial, and mild insertion site pain is expected. Asymmetric chest expansion and absent breath sounds, however, indicate a loss of lung inflation.
Differentiating between expected outcomes, normal variants, and pathological indicators is essential for safe triage.
3
Prioritize the findings based on the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation).
The finding indicating a pneumothorax directly compromises breathing and oxygenation, making it the highest priority.
Life-threatening respiratory compromise always takes precedence over expected procedural discomfort or normal physiological findings.

Anahtar Kavram

Thoracentesis Complications and Pneumothorax Assessment
Soru 3343Soru →

A client receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of unfractionated heparin at 1,500 units/hr1,500\text{ units/hr} through a dedicated 20-gauge peripheral catheter suddenly reports a severe "thunderclap" headache and exhibits unequal pupils. The nurse immediately stops the infusion pump due to suspected intracranial hemorrhage. The healthcare provider prescribes stat intravenous protamine sulfate. What is the most critical action the nurse must take to safely utilize the existing vascular access for the antidote administration?

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Cevap: Disconnect the continuous infusion tubing at the catheter hub, aspirate the residual volume, and flush with 0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride.

Cevap

The nurse must disconnect the primary tubing at the hub, aspirate to remove residual medication from the catheter, and flush with normal saline.
The client is experiencing a highly critical bleeding event (suspected intracranial hemorrhage). While the heparin pump has been stopped, the intravenous catheter itself (the "dead space") is still filled with concentrated heparin. To safely use this existing line for the antidote, the nurse must first disconnect the heparin tubing and use a syringe to aspirate the residual blood and medication directly from the catheter hub. Flushing with 0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride afterward ensures the line is clear and safe for protamine sulfate administration.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Recognize the clinical emergency.
The client's severe headache and unequal pupils strongly suggest an intracranial hemorrhage, a life-threatening adverse effect of heparin.
Immediate cessation of the anticoagulant is required to prevent further bleeding.
2
Stop the infusion pump.
The continuous delivery of heparin is halted.
This is the first immediate action to limit further systemic anticoagulation.
3
Clear the intravenous catheter dead space.
The nurse disconnects the tubing, attaches a syringe directly to the hub, and aspirates a small amount of blood to remove residual heparin from the cannula.
Even though the pump is stopped, the catheter cannula inside the vein remains filled with highly concentrated heparin. Flushing without aspirating would inadvertently bolus this medication into the client.
4
Flush the line and administer the antidote.
The nurse flushes the cleared catheter with 0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride and slowly administers the prescribed protamine sulfate.
Ensures a patent, uncontaminated line for the safe delivery of the reversal agent without risking precipitation or an accidental heparin bolus.

Anahtar Kavram

Prevention of inadvertent medication bolus from intravenous dead space during critical medication reversals.
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 3344Soru →

While managing the care of a client recovering from a recent left total hip replacement (posterior approach), the nurse must implement specific positioning and safety measures. Which action by the nurse is correct?

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Cevap: Maintain an abduction wedge between the lower extremities when turning the client onto their unaffected side.

Cevap

The correct action is to maintain an abduction wedge between the lower extremities when turning the client onto their unaffected side.
For a client recovering from a posterior total hip arthroplasty, maintaining the affected leg in a neutral or slightly abducted position is critical to prevent joint dislocation. Using an abduction wedge or pillow between the lower extremities when turning the client onto their unaffected side ensures the affected hip does not cross the body's midline (adduction), thereby protecting the surgical site and maintaining joint stability.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the surgical procedure and its specific anatomical approach.
The client underwent a left total hip arthroplasty utilizing a posterior approach.
The surgical approach dictates the specific biomechanical precautions required to prevent joint dislocation during the recovery period.
2
Recall the positioning and movement restrictions for a posterior hip arthroplasty.
Postoperative precautions include avoiding hip flexion greater than 90 degrees, avoiding internal rotation, and avoiding adduction of the affected leg across the midline.
These specific joint movements place severe stress on the posterior joint capsule, heavily risking prosthesis dislocation.
3
Evaluate the nursing actions in the options against these precautions and standard care guidelines.
Using an abduction wedge correctly prevents adduction during turning. Sitting the client at 90 degrees violates the flexion restriction. Delegating an initial assessment violates nursing scope of practice. Dismissing acute confusion as normal aging ignores potential physiological complications.
Applying safe care principles ensures evidence-based, complication-free postoperative recovery.

Anahtar Kavram

Postoperative positioning and basic care precautions for posterior approach total hip arthroplasty
Soru 3345Soru →

While caring for a laboring client whose amniotic membranes ruptured two hours ago, the nurse evaluates the electronic fetal heart rate tracing. The nurse observes abrupt, U-shaped decreases in the fetal heart rate that fall 30 to 40 beats per minute below the baseline. These decreases do not have a consistent relationship to the timing of uterine contractions and typically last 20 to 40 seconds before rapidly returning to baseline. Which action should the nurse take first?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Assist the client in changing to a lateral or knee-chest position.

Cevap

Assist the client in changing to a lateral or knee-chest position.
The clinical presentation describes variable decelerations, which are caused by transient umbilical cord compression. The immediate priority nursing action is to assist the client into a lateral, Sims, or knee-chest position. This mechanically shifts the weight of the fetus, relieving the physical pressure on the umbilical cord and restoring adequate blood flow. If maternal repositioning does not resolve the decelerations, additional intrauterine resuscitation measures (such as administering oxygen, increasing intravenous fluids, and notifying the healthcare provider) would then be indicated.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the fetal heart rate tracing description.
The abrupt, U-shaped decreases that vary in timing relative to uterine contractions indicate variable decelerations.
Identifying the specific deceleration pattern is required to determine the underlying physiological etiology.
2
Identify the cause of variable decelerations.
Variable decelerations are caused by umbilical cord compression, reducing blood flow to the fetus.
Connecting the fetal heart rate pattern to its physiological cause allows the nurse to select the correct targeted intervention.
3
Determine the priority nursing intervention.
Changing the maternal position is the immediate, non-invasive action to physically relieve pressure on the umbilical cord.
Basic nursing interventions must be prioritized to resolve the complication before escalating to extreme medical or surgical interventions.

Anahtar Kavram

Management of Variable Fetal Heart Rate Decelerations
Soru 3346Soru →

A charge nurse is observing a newly licensed nurse prepare to care for a client who has suspected active pulmonary tuberculosis and a sacral wound infected with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Which statements by the newly licensed nurse indicate a correct understanding of the required precautions? (Select all that apply.)

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

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Cevap: I will wear a fit-tested N95 respirator, a disposable gown, and gloves when entering the client's room.; During transport to another department, the client must wear a standard surgical mask.; I should place dedicated patient-care equipment, such as a stethoscope, inside the client's room.

Cevap

The correct statements are that the nurse must wear a fit-tested N95 respirator along with a gown and gloves, the client must wear a standard surgical mask during transport, and dedicated patient-care equipment must be placed inside the room.
When a client has multiple infections, the nurse must adhere to the precautions required for all of them. Active pulmonary tuberculosis requires airborne precautions, which mandate the use of a fit-tested N95 respirator, placement in a negative-pressure Airborne Infection Isolation Room (AIIR) with the door kept completely closed, and placing a standard surgical mask on the client if transport is necessary. The MRSA wound infection requires contact precautions, which mandate donning a disposable gown and gloves upon entering the room and dedicating patient-care equipment (such as a stethoscope or blood pressure cuff) to that specific room to prevent cross-contamination. Hand hygiene with an alcohol-based hand rub is appropriate for MRSA unless the hands are visibly soiled.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the transmission-based isolation requirements for all of the client's diagnoses.
Active pulmonary tuberculosis requires airborne precautions, while the MRSA wound infection requires contact precautions.
When a client has multiple infectious processes, the nurse must implement the required precautions for all concurrent infections simultaneously.
2
Evaluate each statement against the standard guidelines for combining airborne and contact precautions.
Statements describing the use of an N95 respirator with a gown and gloves, masking the client during transport, and using dedicated equipment align perfectly with established infection control protocols.
Nursing actions must comply with evidence-based practice to protect healthcare workers, the client, and other individuals in the facility.
3
Identify and exclude statements that reflect unsafe practices or clinical misconceptions.
Statements regarding an open door, a mandate for soap and water for MRSA, and positive-pressure airflow violate established isolation guidelines.
Recognizing unsafe practices is crucial to maintaining a safe care environment and preventing the spread of healthcare-associated infections.

Anahtar Kavram

Clients with multiple transmissible infections require the simultaneous implementation of all applicable isolation categories. Active pulmonary tuberculosis necessitates airborne precautions (N95, negative pressure, door closed), while MRSA necessitates contact precautions (gown, gloves, dedicated equipment).
Soru 3347Soru →

During bedside rounds on an orthopedic unit, the charge nurse observes a newly hired nurse preparing to assist a client onto a bedpan. The client had a left total hip arthroplasty (posterior surgical approach) two days ago. Which action by the newly hired nurse demonstrates the safest technique for this procedure?

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Cevap: Instructing the client to maintain the left leg in a straight, neutral position while bending the right knee and pushing down to lift the pelvis for a fracture pan

Cevap

The safest technique is for the client to keep the operative (left) leg straight and neutral while bending the non-operative (right) knee to lift the pelvis, allowing the nurse to slide a fracture pan underneath.
Following a total hip arthroplasty with a posterior approach, the client must strictly avoid hip flexion greater than 90 degrees, hip adduction (crossing the midline), and internal rotation to prevent prosthesis dislocation. Instructing the client to keep the operative leg straight and neutral while using the non-operative leg to bridge the pelvis safely adheres to all hip precautions. Using a fracture pan is also correct, as its low profile requires less pelvic elevation than a standard bedpan.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the surgical procedure and associated movement restrictions.
The client had a left total hip arthroplasty via a posterior approach. Hip flexion greater than 90 degrees, adduction across the midline, and internal rotation are contraindicated.
These specific movements can cause the head of the femur to dislocate posteriorly from the acetabulum.
2
Evaluate the safest method for bedpan placement while maintaining precautions.
A fracture pan should be used to minimize the need for lifting the pelvis high. The operative leg must remain straight and in neutral alignment.
Standard bedpans require significant lifting and hip flexion, which can compromise the surgical site.
3
Select the option that adheres to these constraints.
Keeping the left leg straight while bending the right knee to bridge the pelvis avoids adduction, internal rotation, and excessive hip flexion.
The non-operative leg is used safely to assist with movement without putting stress on the newly placed hip prosthesis.

Anahtar Kavram

Basic Care and Comfort: Safe Client Positioning and Elimination
Soru 3348Soru →

To promote hemostasis and prevent bleeding complications after a percutaneous liver biopsy, the healthcare team must ensure the client maintains a specific resting posture. Which positioning strategy is correct for this client during the immediate post-procedure period?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Right side-lying position with a small towel or pillow placed under the puncture site

Cevap

Right side-lying position with a small towel or pillow placed under the puncture site
Because the liver is a highly vascular organ situated in the right upper quadrant, it is extremely susceptible to bleeding after a percutaneous puncture. The correct position utilizes the client's own body weight against the bed to apply continuous, direct pressure to the right side, which splints the puncture site and actively promotes hemostasis.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the primary anatomical location of the liver.
The liver is a highly vascular organ located in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen.
Knowing the anatomical location dictates the intervention needed for localized compression.
2
Recognize the most significant immediate complication of a percutaneous liver biopsy.
Hemorrhage is the highest risk because the liver is highly vascular and the procedure involves puncturing its capsule.
Prioritization of care focuses on minimizing life-threatening risks immediately after an invasive procedure.
3
Determine the physical mechanism required to stop or prevent bleeding.
Applying direct, external pressure to the puncture site promotes clotting and hemostasis.
Direct pressure mechanically occludes severed vessels until a stable clot forms.
4
Select the position that best achieves this mechanical compression.
Placing the client on their right side allows their own body weight and the mattress (or a small towel) to splint the puncture site.
This utilizes gravity and body mass to provide continuous, non-invasive pressure to the right side.

Anahtar Kavram

Post-procedure Positioning for Hemostasis
Soru 3349Soru →

A clinical team is providing hygiene and mobility support for a bedfast client who exhibits new-onset urinary incontinence and a localized, non-blanchable redness over the sacral area. Which interventions are appropriate for this client? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

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Cevap: Apply a zinc oxide-based moisture barrier cream to the perineum after cleansing.; Utilize a friction-reducing device, such as a lift sheet, when repositioning the client in bed.; Establish an individualized turning schedule that rotates the client's position at least every two hours.

Cevap

The appropriate interventions include applying a moisture barrier cream to the perineum, utilizing a friction-reducing device during repositioning, and establishing a turning schedule of at least every two hours.
Maintaining basic care and comfort for a bedfast client with impaired skin integrity requires strategies that minimize pressure, shear, and moisture. Applying a zinc-oxide moisture barrier protects the skin from the corrosive effects of urine. Using a lift sheet minimizes friction and shearing forces that damage fragile epidermal layers during movement. Repositioning the client at least every two hours ensures that blood flow is restored to vulnerable tissues over bony prominences like the sacrum.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's risk factors and clinical presentation.
The client is bedfast (immobility risk), has new-onset incontinence (moisture/pathology risk), and has non-blanchable sacral redness (Stage 1 pressure injury).
Identifying the specific threats to the client's skin integrity and basic comfort guides appropriate evidence-based interventions.
2
Evaluate each intervention for safety, efficacy, and scope of practice.
Moisture barriers, friction-reducing devices, and frequent turning directly mitigate moisture and pressure risks. High Fowler's positioning, delegating assessments, and ignoring new-onset incontinence are unsafe or improper practices.
Nursing interventions must adhere to standard protocols for pressure injury prevention and proper delegation guidelines.

Anahtar Kavram

Basic Care and Comfort: Skin Integrity and Mobility Interventions
Soru 3350Soru →

A nurse is caring for a 62-year-old client who underwent a cardiac catheterization via the right femoral artery 2 hours ago for the evaluation of ischemic heart disease. Which of the following nursing actions will reduce the client's risk for post-procedure complications? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Instructing the client to keep the right leg straight and immobilized.; Palpating the bilateral pedal pulses and comparing the temperature of the lower extremities.; Encouraging an increased intake of oral fluids unless contraindicated by the client's cardiopulmonary status.

Cevap

The correct actions include instructing the client to keep the right leg straight, assessing bilateral pedal pulses and limb temperature, and encouraging oral fluid intake.
To reduce risk potential after a femoral cardiac catheterization, the nurse must prevent bleeding by keeping the affected extremity straight, monitor for arterial occlusion via frequent bilateral neurovascular checks, and promote the excretion of nephrotoxic contrast media by encouraging fluid hydration.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the anatomical site and the specific procedure performed.
The client had a cardiac catheterization via the right femoral artery.
Determines the specific procedural risks, such as femoral bleeding, retroperitoneal hemorrhage, and distal limb ischemia.
2
Evaluate each nursing action against evidence-based risk reduction strategies for femoral artery punctures.
Straightening the leg, frequent neurovascular checks, and hydration are protective measures. High Fowler's positioning, delegating critical assessments, and ignoring early shock signs are harmful.
Differentiates between actions that mitigate complications and those that actively increase the risk of physiological decompensation.

Anahtar Kavram

Post-Cardiac Catheterization Care and Complication Prevention
Soru 3351Soru →

A nurse is evaluating a 48-hour-old newborn prior to discharge. The newborn's birth weight was 3,500 g3,500\text{ g}, and the current weight is 3,255 g3,255\text{ g}. Calculate the newborn's percentage of body weight loss. Enter only the numeric value.

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: 7

Cevap

The correct answer is 7.
In the first few days of life, it is normal for a newborn to lose up to 10%10\% of their birth weight due to fluid shifts, meconium passage, and limited initial intake. To calculate the percentage of weight loss, subtract the current weight from the birth weight to find the total loss (3,500 g−3,255 g=245 g3,500\text{ g} - 3,255\text{ g} = 245\text{ g}). Next, divide the lost weight by the original birth weight (245 g÷3,500 g=0.07245\text{ g} \div 3,500\text{ g} = 0.07) and multiply by 100100 to convert to a percentage (7%7\%). Since the loss is less than 10%10\%, this is an expected physiological finding that requires continued routine care.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Calculate the total weight lost in grams.
3,500−3,255=245 g3,500 - 3,255 = 245\text{ g}
Determines the absolute amount of fluid and tissue weight the newborn has lost since birth.
2
Divide the total weight lost by the initial birth weight.
245÷3,500=0.07245 \div 3,500 = 0.07
Finds the proportion of weight loss relative to the starting physiological baseline.
3
Multiply the proportion by 100100 to get the percentage.
0.07×100=7%0.07 \times 100 = 7\%
Converts the decimal value into a percentage for standard clinical evaluation.

Anahtar Kavram

Neonatal physiological weight loss
Soru 3352Soru →

An adult client is admitted to the gastroenterology unit and requires continuous total parenteral nutrition (TPN). The TPN is infusing through a single-lumen peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC). The client has a new prescription for a scheduled intravenous (IV) dose of pantoprazole. Which action should the nurse take to safely administer the medication?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Establish a new peripheral intravenous access site to administer the prescribed pantoprazole

Cevap

The correct action is to establish a new peripheral intravenous access site to administer the prescribed pantoprazole.
Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is a complex, highly concentrated solution that requires a dedicated intravenous line due to the high risk of chemical incompatibility and precipitation with other medications. Additionally, the high glucose content of TPN makes the line highly susceptible to bacterial and fungal infections. Because the client has a single-lumen PICC currently dedicated to the TPN, the nurse cannot use this line for any other infusions or medications. The safest and only appropriate action is to establish a separate peripheral intravenous site for the administration of the pantoprazole.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the client's current intravenous access and existing continuous infusions.
The client has a single-lumen PICC that is actively being used for a continuous TPN infusion.
Recognizing the type of line and current infusion is necessary to evaluate if the site can be safely used for additional medications.
2
Evaluate the compatibility and safety guidelines for administering medications alongside TPN.
Evidence-based practice dictates that TPN must always have a dedicated intravenous line or a dedicated lumen in a multi-lumen central catheter.
TPN has a high risk of chemical incompatibility with most medications and poses a high risk for infection due to its concentrated glucose and lipid content.
3
Determine the safest method to administer the newly prescribed intravenous medication.
The nurse must start a new peripheral intravenous catheter for the pantoprazole.
Since the current single-lumen PICC is occupied by TPN and cannot be shared, piggybacked into, or safely interrupted, a secondary access site is clinically required.

Anahtar Kavram

Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN) Safe Administration and Dedicated Line Protocol
Soru 3353Soru →

A nurse is preparing to administer a scheduled dose of intravenous (IV) piggyback ceftriaxone to a client admitted with pneumonia. The client currently has a continuous IV infusion of parenteral nutrition (PN) running at 75 mL/hr75\text{ mL/hr} through a central venous catheter. Which action must the nurse prioritize first?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Verify the compatibility of ceftriaxone with the parenteral nutrition using a drug reference guide.

Cevap

The nurse must first verify the compatibility of ceftriaxone with the parenteral nutrition using a drug reference guide.
The most critical priority when administering multiple intravenous fluids or medications through a single line is to ensure they are chemically and physically compatible. Parenteral nutrition is a highly complex nutritional mixture that is incompatible with a wide variety of medications. Verifying compatibility prevents the formation of precipitates, which can occlude the central venous catheter or cause a fatal embolism in the client.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the primary continuous infusion and the prescribed secondary medication.
The client is receiving complex parenteral nutrition (PN) continuously and is prescribed a secondary IV piggyback antibiotic.
Recognizing that multiple IV fluids will be infusing through the same central line access prompts the need for an immediate safety check.
2
Prioritize nursing actions based on fundamental safety principles.
Safety checks must precede any procedural setup, calculation, or delegation.
Administering incompatible medications can result in line occlusion from precipitation, drug inactivation, or systemic harm to the client.
3
Select the intervention that addresses the most critical physiological safety risk.
Checking a drug reference guide for compatibility is determined to be the absolute first priority action.
Compatibility must be established definitively before taking any physical steps to administer the medication.

Anahtar Kavram

IV Medication Compatibility and Administration Safety
Soru 3354Soru →

A hospital's emergency response plan is activated due to a confirmed tornado warning in the immediate vicinity. A nurse is caring for a critically ill client who is mechanically ventilated and cannot be safely moved from their room, which contains a large exterior window. Which action is the most appropriate for the nurse to take to protect this client?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Close the window blinds and cover the client with thick blankets, ensuring the airway and equipment remain secure.

Cevap

The correct action is to close the room's blinds and cover the client with thick blankets, ensuring the airway and equipment remain secure.
During a severe weather emergency such as a tornado, the safest location is an interior room away from windows. However, if a critically ill client cannot be safely moved, the nurse must protect them in place. Closing blinds or curtains and covering the client with thick blankets or pillows provides a crucial physical barrier against shattered glass and flying debris. It is critical to ensure that these protective measures do not obstruct the client's airway or interfere with mechanical ventilation.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the imminent environmental threat (tornado) and the specific client constraint (mechanically ventilated, cannot be safely evacuated to an interior hallway).
The nurse must implement a 'protect in place' strategy.
Moving highly unstable clients rapidly can cause life-threatening complications, so alternate protection measures are required when evacuation is unsafe.
2
Recognize the primary danger to the client in a room with an exterior window during a tornado.
The main risk is injury from shattering glass and flying debris.
High winds and structural damage can turn environmental objects into dangerous projectiles.
3
Apply the standard emergency protocol for immovable clients.
Close the blinds or curtains to catch flying glass, and place heavy blankets or pillows over the client's body and head.
This provides a physical barrier against debris while allowing life-sustaining mechanical ventilation to continue uninterrupted.

Anahtar Kavram

Internal Disaster Management: Severe Weather Protocols for Immovable Clients
Soru 3355Soru →

A client hospitalized with severe cellulitis requires scheduled doses of intravenous vancomycin. The client has an active, continuous heparin drip running via a dedicated single-lumen peripheral catheter. Which of the following nursing actions are necessary for safe administration and monitoring? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

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Cevap: Administer the medication over a minimum of 60 minutes to reduce the risk of severe hypotension.; Assess the client for a sudden onset of severe flushing and a macular rash on the upper body.; Review the client's serum creatinine and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) laboratory results regularly.

Cevap

The correct actions include administering the medication over at least 60 minutes, assessing for signs of flushing and rash (Red Man Syndrome), and monitoring serum creatinine and BUN levels.
Vancomycin is a potent antibiotic with known risks of nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity, and infusion-related reactions. It is essential to monitor renal function markers (BUN and creatinine) to prevent kidney damage. The medication must be infused slowly over at least 60 minutes to prevent Red Man Syndrome, which presents as intense flushing, erythema, and pruritus of the face, neck, and upper torso. The nurse must actively assess for this reaction during the infusion.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Evaluate the medication's administration guidelines and known adverse effects.
Identified that vancomycin requires slow infusion (minimum 60 minutes) and can cause Red Man Syndrome and nephrotoxicity.
Understanding the pharmacokinetic profile of high-alert medications prevents severe infusion reactions and end-organ damage.
2
Assess the compatibility of vancomycin with the client's current intravenous therapy.
Determined that vancomycin and heparin are physically incompatible.
Preventing drug precipitation in the IV line avoids potential emboli and loss of venous access.
3
Determine appropriate delegation of care for the infusion site.
Recognized that IV site assessment cannot be delegated to unlicensed assistive personnel.
Clinical judgment and evaluation are exclusively the responsibility of the registered nurse.

Anahtar Kavram

Safe administration of high-alert parenteral medications requires assessing IV compatibility, monitoring for specific toxicities, and adhering to strict infusion rate limits.
Soru 3356Soru →

Match each client's clinical presentation to the appropriate transmission-based isolation precautions required for their care.

Soldaki öğeye tıklayın, sonra eşleşen sağdaki öğeye tıklayın

Öğeler

A client presenting with coryza, Koplik spots, and a descending maculopapular rash.
A client experiencing multiple episodes of foul-smelling, watery diarrhea after broad-spectrum antibiotic therapy.
A client exhibiting severe, paroxysmal coughing episodes that end with a high-pitched inspiratory sound.
A client with an open surgical incision producing copious purulent drainage.

Eşleşmeler

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

Measles (coryza/Koplik spots) pairs with Airborne Precautions. Clostridioides difficile (watery diarrhea post-antibiotics) pairs with Contact Precautions (Enteric). Pertussis (paroxysmal coughing) pairs with Droplet Precautions. A draining surgical wound pairs with standard Contact Precautions.
Each clinical presentation is correctly matched to the specific transmission-based precaution required to prevent the spread of the suspected pathogen. Airborne is needed for measles, Contact (Enteric) for C. difficile, Droplet for pertussis, and standard Contact for a heavily draining wound.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the underlying infectious pathogen or condition described in each clinical presentation.
The presentations correspond to measles, C. difficile, pertussis, and a heavily draining wound.
Accurate pathogen identification is the prerequisite for determining the correct isolation category.
2
Determine the primary mode of transmission for each identified condition.
Measles is airborne; C. difficile is fecal-oral (spore-forming); pertussis is via respiratory droplets; draining wounds pose a direct contact risk.
Transmission-based precautions are specifically designed to interrupt the pathogen's primary route of spread.
3
Select the appropriate isolation category that mitigates the specific mode of transmission.
Measles requires Airborne, C. difficile requires Contact (Enteric), Pertussis requires Droplet, and the draining wound requires Contact.
Matching the transmission route to the CDC-recommended precautions ensures a safe care environment.

Anahtar Kavram

Selecting the correct transmission-based precautions requires identifying the pathogen's mode of transmission (airborne, droplet, or contact) and applying the appropriate barrier methods.
Soru 3357Soru →

An emergency medical response team arrives at the site of an overturned commuter bus on a major highway. The designated triage nurse begins evaluating victims using the adult START (Simple Triage and Rapid Treatment) algorithm. Which victim should the nurse classify as requiring IMMEDIATE (Red tag) care?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: An unconscious adult who is apneic upon initial assessment but begins breathing at 12 breaths per minute after the airway is manually repositioned

Cevap

The victim who is initially apneic but begins breathing after the airway is manually repositioned requires an Immediate (Red) tag.
According to the adult START algorithm, the first physiological assessment for a non-ambulatory victim is respirations. If a victim is found to be apneic, the nurse must manually open the airway. If spontaneous breathing resumes immediately, the victim is experiencing a critical, yet reversible, airway obstruction and must be tagged as Immediate (Red).

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Evaluate the victim's ability to ambulate independently.
Determine if the victim can walk away from the immediate scene.
All walking victims are initially categorized as Minimal (Green) to quickly separate them from non-ambulatory victims who require physiological assessment.
2
Assess the respiratory status of all non-ambulatory victims.
Check if the victim is breathing. If apneic, manually open the airway.
Determines if airway compromise is the primary cause of apnea and whether it is rapidly reversible.
3
Assign a triage tag based on the response to airway repositioning.
Tag as Red (Immediate) if spontaneous breathing resumes. Tag as Black (Expectant) if apnea persists.
Prioritizes immediate life-saving interventions for salvageable clients while withholding resources from unsalvageable clients during a mass casualty event.

Anahtar Kavram

Adult START (Simple Triage and Rapid Treatment) Algorithm Application
Soru 3358Soru →

A nurse is caring for a client with decompensated liver cirrhosis who has just undergone a therapeutic paracentesis with the removal of 6.56.5 liters of ascitic fluid. Thirty minutes after the procedure, the client reports feeling lightheaded. The puncture site dressing is dry and intact.

ParameterPre-ProcedureCurrent
Blood Pressure126/74126/74 mmHg104/82104/82 mmHg
Heart Rate8484 bpm114114 bpm
Respiratory Rate1818 breaths/min2626 breaths/min

Current arterial blood gas (ABG) on room air:
pH: 7.497.49
PaCO 2_2: 3030 mmHg
PaO 2_2: 8888 mmHg
HCO 3−_3^-: 2323 mEq/L

Which of the following is the priority nursing action to reduce the client's risk of a severe physiological complication?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Initiate the prescribed intravenous albumin infusion.

Cevap

The correct action is to initiate the prescribed intravenous albumin infusion.
The correct answer is to initiate the prescribed intravenous albumin infusion. The client is exhibiting classic signs of Post-Paracentesis Circulatory Dysfunction (PPCD), a form of hypovolemic shock caused by rapid fluid shifts and splanchnic vasodilation after the removal of large volumes of ascitic fluid. The profoundly narrowing pulse pressure (dropping from 5252 mmHg to 2222 mmHg), tachycardia, tachypnea, and lightheadedness are early compensatory mechanisms for cardiovascular collapse. Albumin acts as a powerful colloid volume expander, increasing intravascular oncotic pressure to pull fluid back into the vascular space and mitigate this life-threatening fluid shift.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's vital sign trends and current clinical presentation.
The client has a significantly narrowing pulse pressure (dropping from 5252 mmHg to 2222 mmHg), new-onset tachycardia (114114 bpm), and tachypnea (2626 breaths/min) accompanied by lightheadedness.
These are hallmark compensatory signs of early distributive/hypovolemic shock.
2
Correlate the clinical findings with the recent procedure.
The client had 6.56.5 liters of fluid removed during paracentesis, placing them at high risk for Post-Paracentesis Circulatory Dysfunction (PPCD).
Rapid removal of large volumes of ascites (typically >5> 5 liters) causes profound splanchnic vasodilation and fluid shifts out of the intravascular space into the peritoneal cavity.
3
Evaluate the arterial blood gas (ABG) results in the context of the clinical picture.
The ABG indicates uncompensated respiratory alkalosis, which is a sympathetic and compensatory response to shock and hypoxia at the tissue level, rather than a primary respiratory disorder.
Treating the ABG abnormality in isolation would dangerously ignore the underlying life-threatening hemodynamic instability.
4
Determine the absolute priority nursing intervention for risk reduction.
The nurse must immediately initiate the prescribed intravenous albumin infusion.
Albumin is a colloid that increases intravascular oncotic pressure, pulling fluid back into the vascular space and preventing the progression of PPCD to severe cardiovascular collapse.

Anahtar Kavram

Recognition and Prevention of Post-Paracentesis Circulatory Dysfunction (PPCD)
Tahmini Süre:2m 0s
Soru 3359Soru →

A rapid response nurse is managing a client who experienced a severe extravasation of a continuous norepinephrine infusion from a peripheral intravenous catheter. Following the facility's extravasation management protocol, the primary health care provider prescribes phentolamine mesylate 0.15 mg/kg0.15\text{ mg/kg} to be infiltrated subcutaneously around the ischemic site.

The client weighs 191.4 lbs191.4\text{ lbs}.

The pharmacy dispenses phentolamine in lyophilized vials, which the nurse reconstitutes to yield a concentration of 5 mg/mL5\text{ mg/mL}.

The protocol mandates that the exact calculated phentolamine dose must be further diluted with 0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride to achieve a final total syringe volume of 12 mL12\text{ mL} prior to administration.

How many milliliters (mL\text{mL}) of 0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride must the nurse draw up to mix with the phentolamine? Record your answer to the nearest tenth.

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: 9.4

Cevap

The nurse must draw up 9.4 mL of 0.9% sodium chloride.
To determine the correct amount of diluent, the nurse must first convert the client's weight to kilograms (191.4 lbs÷2.2=87 kg191.4\text{ lbs} \div 2.2 = 87\text{ kg}). Next, calculate the total medication dose (87 kg×0.15 mg/kg=13.05 mg87\text{ kg} \times 0.15\text{ mg/kg} = 13.05\text{ mg}). Then, determine the volume of the medication using the available concentration (13.05 mg÷5 mg/mL=2.61 mL13.05\text{ mg} \div 5\text{ mg/mL} = 2.61\text{ mL}). Finally, subtract the medication volume from the required total syringe volume to find the amount of diluent needed (12 mL−2.61 mL=9.39 mL12\text{ mL} - 2.61\text{ mL} = 9.39\text{ mL}). Rounding 9.39 mL9.39\text{ mL} to the nearest tenth yields 9.4 mL9.4\text{ mL}.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms.
87 kg87\text{ kg}
The prescribed dose is weight-based in mg/kg, so the weight must be converted. 191.4 lbs÷2.2=87 kg191.4\text{ lbs} \div 2.2 = 87\text{ kg}.
2
Calculate the total required dose in milligrams.
13.05 mg13.05\text{ mg}
Multiply the client's weight in kilograms by the prescribed dosage. 87 kg×0.15 mg/kg=13.05 mg87\text{ kg} \times 0.15\text{ mg/kg} = 13.05\text{ mg}.
3
Calculate the volume of the phentolamine medication.
2.61 mL2.61\text{ mL}
Divide the total required dose by the available concentration. 13.05 mg÷5 mg/mL=2.61 mL13.05\text{ mg} \div 5\text{ mg/mL} = 2.61\text{ mL}.
4
Determine the volume of diluent required.
9.39 mL9.39\text{ mL}
Subtract the medication volume from the target final syringe volume to find the amount of diluent needed. 12 mL−2.61 mL=9.39 mL12\text{ mL} - 2.61\text{ mL} = 9.39\text{ mL}.
5
Round the final volume to the nearest tenth.
9.4 mL9.4\text{ mL}
Standard rounding rules dictate that a hundredth value of 9 rounds the tenth value up. 9.39 mL≈9.4 mL9.39\text{ mL} \approx 9.4\text{ mL}.

Anahtar Kavram

Calculating complex weight-based medication dosages and diluent volumes for parenteral administration.
Soru 3360Soru →

A client with severe sepsis is receiving a continuous intravenous (IV) infusion of norepinephrine at 0.05 mcg/kg/min0.05\text{ mcg/kg/min} through the proximal lumen of a double-lumen central venous catheter (CVC). The healthcare provider orders an intermittent IV infusion of piperacillin/tazobactam 3.375 g3.375\text{ g} diluted in 100 mL100\text{ mL} of normal saline to be administered over 30 minutes30\text{ minutes}. A drug reference indicates that piperacillin/tazobactam is physically incompatible with norepinephrine. Which of the following is the most appropriate action by the nurse?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Initiate the piperacillin/tazobactam infusion through the distal lumen of the CVC using an infusion pump set at 200 mL/hr200\text{ mL/hr}.

Cevap

The nurse should initiate the antibiotic infusion through the distal lumen of the CVC at a rate of 200 mL/hr200\text{ mL/hr}.
A double-lumen central venous catheter contains two structurally separate internal lumens that do not mix within the catheter, allowing physically incompatible medications to be administered simultaneously. The medications exit into the high-flow environment of the superior vena cava, where immediate hemodilution prevents precipitation. The correct IV pump rate is mathematically derived by dividing the total volume (100 mL100\text{ mL}) by the infusion time in hours (0.5 hours0.5\text{ hours}), which equals 200 mL/hr200\text{ mL/hr}.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Evaluate the design and safety properties of a double-lumen central venous catheter.
A double-lumen CVC contains two distinct, parallel internal pathways that exit at different points in the bloodstream.
This allows for the simultaneous administration of physically incompatible medications without them ever mixing inside the catheter.
2
Calculate the correct intravenous infusion rate for the piperacillin/tazobactam.
Divide the total volume by the time in hours: 100 mL÷0.5 hours=200 mL/hr100\text{ mL} \div 0.5\text{ hours} = 200\text{ mL/hr}.
IV pumps must be programmed in mL/hr\text{mL/hr} to safely deliver the medication over the prescribed 3030-minute timeframe.
3
Assess the clinical implications of the continuous norepinephrine infusion.
Norepinephrine is a critical, short-acting vasopressor. It must not be paused for the antibiotic infusion.
Interrupting a vasopressor in a septic client will rapidly lead to profound, life-threatening hypotension.

Anahtar Kavram

Administration of physically incompatible medications via multi-lumen central venous catheters and calculating accurate IV infusion pump rates.
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