Tüm alıştırma soruları

3881 soru

Soru 481Soru →

A nurse is preparing to administer furosemide 80 mg80 \text{ mg} intravenous (IV) push to a client experiencing acute pulmonary edema. The medication is available in a vial labeled 10 mg/mL10 \text{ mg/mL}. Which of the following is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Administer 8 mL8 \text{ mL} of the medication at a rate of 2 mL2 \text{ mL} per minute.

Cevap

The nurse should administer 8 mL8 \text{ mL} of the medication at a rate of 2 mL2 \text{ mL} per minute.
The correct action involves accurately calculating both the volume to administer and the safe rate of administration. Furosemide is available at 10 mg/mL10 \text{ mg/mL}, so an 80 mg80 \text{ mg} dose requires 8 mL8 \text{ mL}. To prevent ototoxicity, IV furosemide should be administered no faster than 20 mg20 \text{ mg} per minute. An 80 mg80 \text{ mg} dose must be pushed over at least 4 minutes (80÷20=480 \div 20 = 4). Administering 8 mL8 \text{ mL} over 4 minutes equates to a safe and calculated rate of 2 mL2 \text{ mL} per minute.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Calculate the required volume of the medication.
80 mg10 mg/mL=8 mL \frac{80 \text{ mg}}{10 \text{ mg/mL}} = 8 \text{ mL}
To ensure the correct dose is drawn from the vial.
2
Determine the minimum safe administration time.
80 mg20 mg/min=4 minutes \frac{80 \text{ mg}}{20 \text{ mg/min}} = 4 \text{ minutes}
High-dose IV furosemide must be administered no faster than 20 mg/min20 \text{ mg/min} to prevent ototoxicity and hypotension.
3
Calculate the rate of administration in mL per minute.
8 mL4 minutes=2 mL/min \frac{8 \text{ mL}}{4 \text{ minutes}} = 2 \text{ mL/min}
To guide the nurse in pushing the medication safely over the required time frame.

Anahtar Kavram

Safe administration of high-alert intravenous medications requires precise calculation of both volume and administration rate to prevent iatrogenic harm, such as ototoxicity from rapid loop diuretic infusion.
Soru 482Soru →

A nurse is caring for a client who is immobilized in skeletal traction following a fractured right femur. The client reports sacral discomfort from prolonged bed rest. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate to promote comfort and maintain skin integrity?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Provide an overhead trapeze and instruct the client to use it to assist with lifting off the bed.

Cevap

Provide an overhead trapeze and instruct the client to use it to assist with lifting off the bed.
Providing an overhead trapeze allows the client to safely assist with lifting their upper body off the mattress. This promotes client independence, prevents complications of immobility, and allows the nurse to provide back care and alleviate sacral pressure without disrupting the therapeutic alignment of the skeletal traction.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's current condition and therapeutic devices.
The client is experiencing sacral discomfort but is confined to bed with skeletal traction for a fractured femur.
Understanding the physical constraints of skeletal traction is necessary to determine which comfort measures are safe to implement.
2
Evaluate the proposed interventions against the principles of skeletal traction and safe nursing care.
Lifting weights and placing the client in high Fowler's position are contraindicated as they disrupt traction alignment and increase sacral shearing. Assessing pin sites cannot be delegated.
Therapeutic alignment and client safety must be maintained while attempting to address comfort.
3
Select the intervention that safely promotes comfort and skin integrity.
An overhead trapeze is identified as the safest and most effective intervention.
The trapeze offloads sacral pressure, promotes circulation, and assists with bed mobility while keeping the affected leg in continuous, correct alignment.

Anahtar Kavram

Basic Care and Comfort in Skeletal Traction
Soru 483Soru →

A nurse is preparing to administer a large-volume cleansing enema to an adult client who is experiencing severe constipation. In what order should the nurse perform the following actions? (Arrange the steps in the correct sequence from first to last.)

Öğeleri doğru sıraya koymak için sürükleyin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

The correct sequence is: assist the client into the left lateral Sims position, lubricate the tip of the rectal tube, instruct the client to take deep breaths, gently insert the tube into the rectum, and finally unclamp the tubing and elevate the bag.
Administering an enema requires a systematic approach to ensure safety, comfort, and efficacy. The procedure begins with proper anatomical positioning (left lateral Sims) to utilize gravity for fluid flow. Next, the equipment must be prepared by lubricating the tip of the tube. Immediately before insertion, the nurse instructs the client to take deep breaths to relax the external anal sphincter. Once relaxed, the tube is safely inserted to the correct anatomical depth of 3 to 4 inches. Finally, the solution is administered by unclamping the tubing and holding the bag at the correct height (12 to 18 inches) to ensure steady, safe hydrostatic pressure.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Assist the client into the left lateral Sims position with the right knee flexed.
The client is anatomically positioned for the procedure.
This position facilitates the gravity-assisted flow of the enema solution directly into the sigmoid colon and descending colon.
2
Lubricate the tip of the rectal tube with a water-soluble lubricant.
The tube is prepared for atraumatic entry.
Lubrication decreases friction, preventing tissue injury and minimizing discomfort during insertion.
3
Instruct the client to take slow, deep breaths through the mouth.
The client begins deep breathing exercises.
Deep breathing naturally relaxes the external anal sphincter, which is necessary before attempting insertion.
4
Gently insert the rectal tube 3 to 4 inches (7.5 to 10 cm) into the rectum.
The tube safely passes the internal anal sphincter.
This specific depth ensures the fluid is delivered adequately into the lower bowel without causing deep tissue trauma.
5
Unclamp the tubing and hold the enema bag 12 to 18 inches (30 to 45 cm) above the rectum.
The solution begins to flow at a controlled rate.
Maintaining this exact height controls the pressure of the fluid instillation, preventing rapid bowel distention and severe cramping.

Anahtar Kavram

Enema Administration Protocol
Tahmini Süre:1m 0s
Soru 484Soru →

A nurse is caring for a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) who is receiving mechanical ventilation with a positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) of 15 cm H2O15 \text{ cm H}_2\text{O}. Suddenly, the ventilator's high-pressure alarm activates. The nurse observes that the client's blood pressure has decreased from 122/76 mm Hg122/76 \text{ mm Hg} to 82/48 mm Hg82/48 \text{ mm Hg}, heart rate has increased from 94 /min94 \text{ /min} to 138 /min138 \text{ /min}, and oxygen saturation has dropped to 86%86\%. Which action is the nurse's priority?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Auscultate bilateral breath sounds and evaluate for tracheal deviation.

Cevap

The correct action is to auscultate bilateral breath sounds and evaluate for tracheal deviation.
The client's presentation—a high-pressure ventilator alarm, sudden profound hypotension, tachycardia, and worsening hypoxemia—strongly suggests barotrauma resulting in a tension pneumothorax. High PEEP increases the risk of alveolar rupture. Leaked air becomes trapped in the pleural space, continuously increasing intrathoracic pressure. This pressure collapses the affected lung and compresses the vena cava, reducing venous return and causing obstructive shock. The nurse must prioritize immediate clinical assessment of breath sounds (which would be diminished or absent on the affected side) and tracheal alignment (deviated away from the affected side) to confirm the diagnosis and prepare for life-saving needle decompression.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the clinical presentation and ventilator alarms.
The combination of a high-pressure alarm, sudden hypotension, tachycardia, and hypoxemia in a client on high PEEP is identified.
High PEEP increases the risk of alveolar rupture (barotrauma), which can lead to air trapping in the pleural space.
2
Determine the underlying pathophysiological cause.
The acute hemodynamic deterioration indicates obstructive shock caused by a tension pneumothorax.
Trapped pleural air increases intrathoracic pressure, collapsing the lung and compressing the heart and major vessels, drastically reducing cardiac output.
3
Prioritize the immediate nursing intervention.
Physical assessment of breath sounds and tracheal alignment is selected as the priority.
Immediate clinical confirmation is required to initiate life-saving interventions such as needle thoracostomy.

Anahtar Kavram

Recognition and initial assessment of tension pneumothorax as a complication of positive pressure ventilation.
Soru 485Soru →

An intensive care nurse is configuring an infusion pump for a client requiring deep sedation. The new medication order specifies remifentanil to run at 0.05 mcg/kg/min0.05\text{ mcg/kg/min}. The client's admission weight is 230 lb230\text{ lb}. The available medication on the unit is a pre-mixed bag containing 2 mg2\text{ mg} of remifentanil dissolved in 250 mL250\text{ mL} of normal saline (0.9% NaCl0.9\%\text{ NaCl}). Calculate the required pump setting in mL/hr\text{mL/hr}. (First, convert and round the client's weight to the nearest tenth of a kilogram. Then, perform your calculations and round the final answer to the nearest tenth.)

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: 39.2

Cevap

The nurse should set the infusion pump to 39.2 mL/hr.
To find the correct infusion rate, the nurse must first convert the client's weight to kilograms (230 lb÷2.2=104.5 kg230\text{ lb} \div 2.2 = 104.5\text{ kg}). The weight is then multiplied by the prescribed dose to find the per-minute requirement (104.5 kg×0.05 mcg/kg/min=5.225 mcg/min104.5\text{ kg} \times 0.05\text{ mcg/kg/min} = 5.225\text{ mcg/min}). Because the pump runs in hours, this is multiplied by 60 minutes60\text{ minutes} (313.5 mcg/hr313.5\text{ mcg/hr}). Next, the concentration of the IV bag is determined by converting milligrams to micrograms (2 mg=2,000 mcg2\text{ mg} = 2,000\text{ mcg}) and dividing by the total volume (2,000 mcg÷250 mL=8 mcg/mL2,000\text{ mcg} \div 250\text{ mL} = 8\text{ mcg/mL}). Finally, the hourly dose is divided by the concentration (313.5÷8=39.1875313.5 \div 8 = 39.1875) and rounded to the nearest tenth, resulting in 39.2 mL/hr39.2\text{ mL/hr}.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Convert the client's weight from pounds (lb) to kilograms (kg) and round to the nearest tenth.
230 lb÷2.2 lb/kg=104.545...≈104.5 kg230\text{ lb} \div 2.2\text{ lb/kg} = 104.545... \approx 104.5\text{ kg}
Critical care medication dosing is standardized using metric weights.
2
Calculate the total dose required per minute based on the client's weight.
104.5 kg×0.05 mcg/kg/min=5.225 mcg/min104.5\text{ kg} \times 0.05\text{ mcg/kg/min} = 5.225\text{ mcg/min}
The prescription dictates how many micrograms the client needs for each kilogram of body weight every minute.
3
Convert the per-minute dose to an hourly dose.
5.225 mcg/min×60 min/hr=313.5 mcg/hr5.225\text{ mcg/min} \times 60\text{ min/hr} = 313.5\text{ mcg/hr}
Intravenous infusion pumps are programmed in volume per hour (mL/hr), so the time unit must match.
4
Convert the total drug amount in the IV bag from milligrams (mg) to micrograms (mcg).
2 mg×1,000 mcg/mg=2,000 mcg2\text{ mg} \times 1,000\text{ mcg/mg} = 2,000\text{ mcg}
The calculated dose is in micrograms, so the available medication supply must be converted to matching units.
5
Determine the concentration of the IV solution.
2,000 mcg÷250 mL=8 mcg/mL2,000\text{ mcg} \div 250\text{ mL} = 8\text{ mcg/mL}
Knowing how many micrograms are in a single milliliter allows you to calculate the total fluid volume needed to deliver the hourly dose.
6
Calculate the final infusion pump rate.
313.5 mcg/hr÷8 mcg/mL=39.1875 mL/hr313.5\text{ mcg/hr} \div 8\text{ mcg/mL} = 39.1875\text{ mL/hr}
Dividing the total hourly medication requirement by the concentration yields the fluid rate in mL/hr.
7
Round the final rate to the nearest tenth.
39.1875 mL/hr≈39.2 mL/hr39.1875\text{ mL/hr} \approx 39.2\text{ mL/hr}
The problem explicitly requires the final answer to be rounded to the nearest tenth.

Anahtar Kavram

Calculating complex weight-based continuous intravenous infusion rates requiring sequential conversions (lbs to kg, minutes to hours, and mg to mcg).
Soru 486Soru →

A nurse is caring for a client who underwent a percutaneous liver biopsy 4 hours ago. The client is currently positioned on their right side. The client's vital signs are heart rate 116 beats/minute, blood pressure 104/82 mm Hg, respiratory rate 24 breaths/minute, and temperature 98.8°F (37.1°C). The client reports a new onset of right shoulder pain and states, 'I must have slept on my arm wrong.' Which of the following is the most appropriate initial nursing action?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Assess the client's abdomen for rigidity and notify the healthcare provider.

Cevap

The most appropriate action is to assess the client's abdomen for rigidity and prepare to notify the healthcare provider, as the assessment findings strongly indicate early hemorrhagic shock.
The client is exhibiting early signs of hemorrhagic shock, indicated by tachycardia (116 beats/minute) and a narrowed pulse pressure (104 systolic minus 82 diastolic equals 22 mm Hg). Furthermore, the new onset of right shoulder pain is a classic presentation of Kehr's sign, which occurs when blood in the peritoneal cavity irritates the phrenic nerve. The nurse must prioritize assessing for further signs of internal bleeding, such as abdominal rigidity, and escalate the findings to the healthcare provider immediately for emergency interventions.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the vital signs for trends and abnormalities.
The heart rate is elevated (116 bpm) and the blood pressure reflects a narrow pulse pressure of 22 mm Hg (104 systolic minus 82 diastolic).
Tachycardia and a narrowing pulse pressure are classic, subtle early indicators of compensatory hemorrhagic shock.
2
Evaluate the client's new symptom in the context of the recent procedure.
The client developed new onset right shoulder pain following a percutaneous liver biopsy.
Referred right shoulder pain (Kehr's sign) occurs when blood accumulates in the peritoneal cavity and irritates the phrenic nerve, confirming the suspicion of internal hemorrhage.
3
Determine the highest priority nursing intervention.
The nurse must prioritize assessing for further signs of internal bleeding, such as a rigid or board-like abdomen, and immediately escalate to the healthcare provider.
Active internal hemorrhage is a life-threatening emergency that requires immediate medical intervention.

Anahtar Kavram

Identifying early hemodynamic changes of hemorrhagic shock and recognizing referred pain (Kehr's sign) as a critical indicator of internal bleeding post-procedure.
Soru 487Soru →

A nurse is evaluating a client admitted with a severe exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The client's most recent arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis on room air reveals the following results: pHpH of 7.257.25, PaCO2PaCO_2 of 7474 mm Hg, HCO3−HCO_3^- of 3232 mEq/L, and PaO2PaO_2 of 5252 mm Hg. Based on these physiological values, which clinical manifestations should the nurse anticipate during the physical assessment? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Progressive somnolence and decreasing level of consciousness; Bounding peripheral pulses; Diaphoresis accompanied by tachycardia

Cevap

The nurse should anticipate progressive somnolence and decreasing level of consciousness, bounding peripheral pulses, and diaphoresis accompanied by tachycardia.
The correct answers identify the classic physiological manifestations of acute hypercapnic respiratory failure with hypoxemia. Severe hypercapnia (PaCO2PaCO_2 of 7474 mm Hg) causes significant cerebral vasodilation, which increases intracranial pressure and depresses the central nervous system, leading to progressive somnolence. It also causes peripheral vasodilation, resulting in bounding peripheral pulses. Concurrently, the profound hypoxemia (PaO2PaO_2 of 5252 mm Hg) and acidemia trigger a compensatory sympathetic nervous system response, manifesting as tachycardia and diaphoresis.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Interpret the arterial blood gas (ABG) values to determine the primary physiological derangement.
The client has partially compensated acute-on-chronic respiratory acidosis with severe hypoxemia.
The acidemic pHpH (7.25) aligns with the elevated PaCO2PaCO_2 (74 mm Hg), indicating a respiratory primary cause. The elevated HCO3−HCO_3^- (32 mEq/L) reflects chronic metabolic compensation that is insufficient for the acute exacerbation.
2
Determine the physiological adaptations directly caused by profound hypercapnia.
Severe hypercapnia acts as a potent vasodilator in both cerebral and peripheral vascular beds.
Cerebral vasodilation causes central nervous system depression (somnolence, lethargy, CO2 narcosis), while peripheral vasodilation produces bounding pulses and warm skin.
3
Determine the physiological adaptations triggered by acute hypoxemia and acidemia.
The body activates the sympathetic nervous system to increase oxygen delivery to vital organs.
Sympathetic stimulation manifests as tachycardia, increased cardiac output, and diaphoresis as the body attempts to compensate for tissue hypoxia.

Anahtar Kavram

In acute uncompensated respiratory acidosis, severe hypercapnia induces both cerebral and peripheral vasodilation (causing somnolence and bounding pulses), while concurrent hypoxemia triggers sympathetic nervous system activation (causing tachycardia and diaphoresis).
Soru 488Soru →

A client with suspected bacterial meningitis is admitted to the intensive care unit. The healthcare provider prescribes a stat dose of intravenous ceftriaxone and a continuous infusion of 0.9% Sodium Chloride0.9\% \text{ Sodium Chloride} at 100 mL/hr100 \text{ mL/hr}. The client arrives from the emergency department with a single peripheral intravenous catheter currently infusing Lactated Ringer's solution at 100 mL/hr100 \text{ mL/hr}. Based on these findings, which of the following is the priority action by the nurse?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Stop the Lactated Ringer's solution, initiate the prescribed 0.9% Sodium Chloride0.9\% \text{ Sodium Chloride} using new intravenous tubing, and administer the ceftriaxone.

Cevap

Stop the Lactated Ringer's solution, initiate the prescribed 0.9% Sodium Chloride using new intravenous tubing, and administer the ceftriaxone.
Ceftriaxone is contraindicated for administration with calcium-containing intravenous solutions, such as Lactated Ringer's, due to the high risk of forming lethal calcium-ceftriaxone precipitates in the client's bloodstream. To safely administer the stat antibiotic for a life-threatening infection (meningitis), the nurse must stop the incompatible fluid, change the intravenous tubing to prevent mixing with residual fluid, initiate the newly prescribed compatible fluid (0.9% Sodium Chloride0.9\% \text{ Sodium Chloride}), and administer the ceftriaxone immediately.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the clinical priority based on the diagnosis.
Bacterial meningitis is a life-threatening neurological emergency requiring immediate (stat) antibiotic administration to prevent severe morbidity or mortality.
Delays in treatment directly correlate with poorer client outcomes in meningitis.
2
Assess for pharmacological incompatibilities.
Ceftriaxone is recognized as incompatible with any calcium-containing solution, such as Lactated Ringer's.
Ceftriaxone binds with calcium to form particulate precipitates that can cause fatal emboli in the lungs and kidneys.
3
Evaluate the current intravenous access and prescribed orders.
The client has a single IV line running the incompatible Lactated Ringer's, but the provider has already prescribed a continuous infusion of compatible 0.9% Sodium Chloride.
The nurse must transition the client to the newly prescribed, compatible fluid.
4
Determine the safest procedural intervention.
The nurse stops the Lactated Ringer's, removes the old tubing to ensure no residual calcium remains, connects the new 0.9% Sodium Chloride, and immediately administers the ceftriaxone.
This sequence rapidly and safely resolves the incompatibility while implementing all provider orders.

Anahtar Kavram

Ceftriaxone is strictly contraindicated for concurrent administration with calcium-containing intravenous solutions (like Lactated Ringer's) due to the risk of fatal crystal precipitation.
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 489Soru →

A client is admitted to the emergency department with an active upper gastrointestinal bleed. The client's vital signs are blood pressure 84/52 mmHg, heart rate 126 beats per minute, and respiratory rate 22 breaths per minute. The client has a single 18-gauge peripheral intravenous catheter currently infusing 5% dextrose in water (D5W) at 100 mL/hr. The healthcare provider prescribes a stat transfusion of one unit of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) and intravenous pantoprazole. Which action should the nurse take first?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Discontinue the 5% dextrose in water infusion, flush the catheter with 0.9% sodium chloride, and begin the transfusion.

Cevap

The nurse should discontinue the 5% dextrose in water infusion, flush the intravenous catheter with 0.9% sodium chloride, and initiate the packed red blood cell transfusion.
The client is exhibiting signs of hypovolemic shock (hypotension, tachycardia) due to acute blood loss. The priority based on the ABC (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) framework is to restore intravascular volume and oxygen-carrying capacity. Because blood products are strictly incompatible with 5% dextrose in water (which causes hemolysis), the nurse must stop the incompatible infusion and flush the line with 0.9% sodium chloride before initiating the transfusion.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Assess the client's clinical presentation and vital signs.
The client exhibits profound hypotension (84/52 mmHg) and tachycardia (126 bpm), indicating hypovolemic shock resulting from the gastrointestinal bleed.
Identifying the client's physiological status is necessary to prioritize interventions according to the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation).
2
Prioritize the prescribed interventions.
Administering packed red blood cells is the immediate priority over administering the intravenous pantoprazole.
Restoring circulating volume and oxygen-carrying capacity directly addresses the life-threatening circulation deficit.
3
Evaluate the current intravenous access and infusing fluid for compatibility.
The client has a suitable 18-gauge catheter, but the infusing 5% dextrose in water is strictly incompatible with blood products.
Administering blood with dextrose causes hemolysis. 0.9% sodium chloride is the only intravenous fluid compatible with blood products.
4
Prepare the intravenous line for safe administration.
The incompatible infusion is stopped, and the line is thoroughly flushed with 0.9% sodium chloride before the blood administration set is attached.
Flushing clears the incompatible dextrose from the catheter, ensuring safe delivery of the blood product without causing cellular destruction.

Anahtar Kavram

Blood products must only be administered with 0.9% sodium chloride to prevent hemolysis. Furthermore, restoring circulating volume is the highest priority for a client in active hypovolemic shock.
Soru 490Soru →

A triage nurse in the emergency department is assessing a client who presents with an acute asthma exacerbation. Which of the following clinical findings indicate the client is experiencing impending respiratory failure and requires immediate life-saving intervention? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Arterial blood gas revealing a pHpH of 7.257.25 and a PaCO2PaCO_2 of 6262 mm Hg; Sudden cessation of wheezing despite visible, labored respiratory efforts; New-onset profound lethargy and inability to maintain eye contact

Cevap

The clinical findings that indicate impending respiratory failure are an arterial blood gas showing respiratory acidosis, the sudden cessation of wheezing, and new-onset profound lethargy.
Impending respiratory failure in an acute asthma exacerbation is characterized by severe air trapping, respiratory muscle fatigue, and poor gas exchange. An arterial blood gas showing respiratory acidosis indicates the client is exhausted and retaining carbon dioxide. A sudden cessation of wheezing (silent chest) is an ominous sign that airflow is too severely restricted to produce sound. Profound lethargy is a late, life-threatening sign of severe hypoxia and hypercapnia, meaning the client is losing the ability to protect their airway and requires immediate mechanical ventilation.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the pathophysiology of an acute asthma exacerbation.
Initial bronchospasm causes hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis. As airway resistance increases over time, respiratory muscles fatigue.
Understanding the trajectory helps distinguish between expected early compensatory signs and ominous late signs of decompensation.
2
Evaluate the arterial blood gas (ABG) options.
A low pH and high carbon dioxide level represent respiratory acidosis, indicating the lungs can no longer expel adequate carbon dioxide.
Respiratory acidosis is a definitive sign of impending failure, whereas early respiratory alkalosis is a typical and expected compensatory mechanism.
3
Assess the physical examination findings.
A 'silent chest' and profound lethargy indicate critical airway closure and severe cerebral hypoxia, respectively, requiring immediate intubation.
While loud wheezing and mild tachycardia are concerning, they indicate the client is still actively moving air and neurologically compensating.

Anahtar Kavram

Identifying impending respiratory failure in status asthmaticus
Soru 491Soru →

A nurse is planning care for a client who has left lower extremity weakness and is learning to ambulate with a standard pick-up walker. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Instruct the client to advance the walker forward first, step forward with the left leg, and then bring the right leg forward.

Cevap

The correct intervention is to instruct the client to advance the walker forward first, step forward with the weak left leg, and then bring the right leg forward.
When ambulating with a standard walker, the client should first lift and advance the walker about 6 to 8 inches. Next, the client should step forward with the affected (weak) leg so that the upper body and the walker can safely support the body's weight. Finally, the client steps forward with the unaffected (strong) leg. This sequence ensures a wide base of support and maximum stability.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the client's physical deficit and the assistive device being utilized.
The client has left lower extremity weakness and is using a standard pick-up walker.
Recognizing which leg is affected is critical for determining the safe and correct sequence of movement.
2
Determine the proper ambulatory sequence for using a standard walker.
The correct sequence is to move the walker forward, followed by the weak leg, and finally the strong leg.
Moving the weak leg while the upper body weight is supported by the arms on the walker provides maximum stability and safety.
3
Evaluate the distractors for safety, body mechanics, and procedural accuracy.
The distractors contain critical errors related to walker height adjustment, stepping sequence, and improper delegation.
Identifying incorrect practices ensures the selection of the safest, most appropriate evidence-based nursing intervention.

Anahtar Kavram

Assistive Devices and Mobility
Soru 492Soru →

A client with a history of chronic kidney disease is brought to the emergency department after missing three scheduled hemodialysis treatments. The client reports severe muscle weakness and abdominal cramping. Assessment reveals a heart rate of 54 bpm, respiratory rate of 22 breaths/min, and blood pressure of 92/58 mm Hg. The cardiac monitor displays a prolonged PR interval, wide QRS complexes, and tall, peaked T waves. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement first?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Administer intravenous calcium gluconate

Cevap

Administer intravenous calcium gluconate.
The client is exhibiting signs of severe hyperkalemia, as evidenced by the missed hemodialysis sessions and classic ECG changes (bradycardia, prolonged PR interval, wide QRS complexes, and tall, peaked T waves). A widening QRS complex is a critical warning sign of impending ventricular fibrillation or asystole. Intravenous calcium gluconate is the absolute first priority because it rapidly antagonizes the cardiac toxicity of hyperkalemia. It stabilizes the myocardial cell membrane and raises the threshold potential, preventing lethal dysrhythmias. While calcium gluconate does not actually lower serum potassium levels, it provides immediate cardiac protection, buying time for other therapies to work.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's history and presenting clinical signs.
The client has missed dialysis (impaired excretion), muscle weakness, and specific ECG changes (bradycardia, prolonged PR, wide QRS, peaked T waves).
To identify the underlying physiological crisis, which is severe hyperkalemia.
2
Evaluate the immediate threats to the client's life.
The wide QRS complex indicates an impending lethal cardiac dysrhythmia (ventricular fibrillation or asystole).
Prioritization requires addressing the most acute, life-threatening condition first (ABC framework and critical ECG changes).
3
Determine the mechanism of action for each available intervention.
Calcium gluconate stabilizes the cardiac membrane. Insulin/dextrose temporarily shifts potassium into cells. Sodium polystyrene slowly excretes potassium.
To match the pharmacological intervention with the immediate physiological need.
4
Select the intervention that acts fastest to prevent cardiac arrest.
Intravenous calcium gluconate is selected.
Myocardial stabilization must occur before therapies that shift or remove potassium are initiated when critical ECG changes are present.

Anahtar Kavram

Emergency Management of Severe Hyperkalemia
Soru 493Soru →

The registered nurse is developing a comprehensive care profile for an 82-year-old client who exhibits profound immobility, frequent episodes of urinary incontinence, and an elevated risk for pressure injuries. Which of the following interventions should the nurse incorporate into the management plan? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Position the client using a 30-degree lateral tilt while side-lying; Utilize a friction-reducing device when moving the client upward in the bed; Apply an evidence-based moisture barrier ointment to the perineum after cleansing

Cevap

The correct interventions are positioning the client in a 30-degree lateral tilt, utilizing a friction-reducing device for movement, and applying a moisture barrier ointment to the perineum.
Maintaining skin integrity in a highly vulnerable client requires a multi-faceted approach. Implementing a 30-degree lateral tilt effectively offloads weight from prominent bony structures without placing undue stress on the trochanter. Utilizing friction-reducing devices during repositioning prevents the mechanical shearing that tears epidermal layers. Finally, applying a moisture barrier shields the skin from the corrosive environment created by continuous urinary incontinence, preventing maceration.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's risk profile based on the clinical presentation.
The client has three major risk factors for skin breakdown: advanced age, profound immobility, and moisture from incontinence.
Identifying the specific etiologies of potential skin breakdown dictates which preventative nursing interventions are required.
2
Evaluate the proposed positioning and mobility interventions against evidence-based standards.
A 30-degree lateral tilt and the use of friction-reducing devices are proven methods to minimize direct pressure and shearing forces.
Standard clinical guidelines for pressure injury prevention mandate the reduction of both pressure magnitude and shear stress on vulnerable tissues.
3
Differentiate appropriate nursing responsibilities and pathological signs from normal aging.
Initial risk assessments must remain with the RN, and sudden severe incontinence requires medical investigation rather than acceptance as normal aging.
Patient safety relies on proper delegation scope and the accurate recognition of acute pathophysiological changes.

Anahtar Kavram

Pressure Injury Prevention and Skin Integrity Maintenance
Soru 494Soru →

A nurse is monitoring a client at 3636 weeks of gestation who is receiving a continuous intravenous (IV) infusion of magnesium sulfate for the management of severe preeclampsia. Which of the following assessment findings indicate potential magnesium toxicity or impaired clearance, requiring immediate intervention by the nurse? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Patellar deep tendon reflexes (DTRs) graded as 00 (absent); Respiratory rate of 1010 breaths per minute; Urinary output of 15 mL15 \text{ mL} per hour over the last two hours

Cevap

The findings requiring immediate intervention are absent patellar deep tendon reflexes, a respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute, and a urinary output of 15 mL per hour.
The correct options identify the classic signs of magnesium toxicity and impaired clearance. Because magnesium sulfate is a central nervous system depressant, toxicity sequentially manifests as the loss of deep tendon reflexes (often the first sign), followed by respiratory depression (fewer than 12 breaths per minute), and eventually cardiac arrest. Furthermore, because magnesium is excreted exclusively by the kidneys, severe oliguria (urine output less than 30 mL/hr) causes rapid accumulation of the medication, requiring an immediate decrease or cessation of the infusion to prevent toxic serum levels.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the purpose and mechanism of the medication.
Magnesium sulfate is a central nervous system depressant used to prevent seizures in severe preeclampsia.
Understanding the mechanism of action is essential to anticipate therapeutic effects and differentiate them from clinical toxicity.
2
Evaluate the assessment findings against known signs of toxicity and clearance failure.
Findings of absent DTRs (grade 0), respiratory rate < 12 breaths per minute, and severe oliguria (< 30 mL/hr) are critical indicators of toxicity or poor renal clearance.
Magnesium toxicity progresses predictably from loss of reflexes to respiratory depression and eventual cardiac arrest; renal impairment exacerbates this by preventing drug excretion.
3
Differentiate critical toxicity from expected side effects and therapeutic levels.
Flushing and warmth are expected vasodilatory side effects. A serum magnesium level of 5.8 mEq/L is within the therapeutic range (4.0 - 7.0 mEq/L). Early FHR decelerations are a normal labor finding.
Unnecessary intervention for expected or therapeutic findings can disrupt essential seizure prophylaxis and jeopardize maternal safety.

Anahtar Kavram

Recognition of magnesium sulfate toxicity and therapeutic monitoring in severe preeclampsia.
Soru 495Soru →

A nurse is caring for a 4545-year-old client receiving total parenteral nutrition via a right subclavian central venous access device. While the nurse is changing the intravenous tubing, the catheter temporarily disconnects from the infusion line. The client immediately reports severe chest pain, shortness of breath, and a sense of impending doom. The client's heart rate is 128128 bpm, blood pressure is 86/5286/52 mmHg, and oxygen saturation is 82%82\% on room air. The nurse immediately clamps the catheter. Which of the following is the priority nursing action?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Place the client in a left lateral Trendelenburg position.

Cevap

Place the client in a left lateral Trendelenburg position.
The client's presentation (sudden dyspnea, hypotension, sense of doom) immediately following a central venous catheter disconnection is the classic presentation of an air embolism. After clamping the catheter to halt further air entry, placing the client in a left lateral Trendelenburg position (Durant's maneuver) is the most critical independent nursing action. This position utilizes gravity to trap the air bubble in the apex of the right ventricle, preventing it from migrating into the pulmonary artery and causing a right ventricular outflow obstruction.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the clinical presentation and mechanism of injury.
The acute onset of chest pain, dyspnea, doom, and shock-like vital signs immediately following a central line disconnection strongly indicates a venous air embolism.
Air entering the central venous system travels rapidly to the right side of the heart.
2
Determine the physiological goal of the intervention.
The immediate goal is to prevent the air from migrating into the pulmonary circulation (causing right ventricular outflow obstruction) or cerebral circulation.
Once the catheter is clamped to stop further air entry, positioning must be used to manipulate the movement of the trapped air.
3
Identify the correct therapeutic positioning.
The left lateral Trendelenburg position (Durant's maneuver) is selected.
This specific position keeps the air bubble in the apex of the right ventricle, allowing blood to flow past it while it slowly absorbs or until surgical/medical aspiration can occur.

Anahtar Kavram

Management of a Central Venous Air Embolism
Soru 496Soru →

A client in the intensive care unit with septic shock is receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of norepinephrine via the proximal lumen of a triple-lumen central venous catheter. The healthcare provider prescribes a stat dose of intravenous sodium bicarbonate to treat severe metabolic acidosis. Upon checking a drug reference guide, the nurse discovers that norepinephrine and sodium bicarbonate are chemically incompatible. Which action by the nurse is the most appropriate?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Administer the sodium bicarbonate dose through the medial or distal lumen of the existing central venous catheter.

Cevap

Administer the sodium bicarbonate dose through the medial or distal lumen of the existing central venous catheter.
The correct action is to use an alternative lumen on the existing multi-lumen central venous catheter. Multi-lumen catheters contain separate internal tubes that exit at different staggered points (proximal, medial, distal) along the catheter tip. Because these drugs do not mix within the catheter itself and are immediately dispersed by the high-volume blood flow of the superior vena cava upon exiting, it is entirely safe and standard practice to administer chemically incompatible medications through different lumens of the same central line.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's current condition and the prescribed therapies.
The client is hemodynamically unstable, requiring a continuous norepinephrine infusion (vasopressor) for septic shock, and has severe metabolic acidosis requiring a stat dose of sodium bicarbonate.
Understanding the critical nature of both infusions establishes the priority of care.
2
Evaluate the compatibility issue identified by the drug reference guide.
Norepinephrine and sodium bicarbonate are incompatible; mixing them in the same tubing will deactivate the norepinephrine.
Chemical incompatibility dictates that these drugs cannot share the same intravenous pathway.
3
Assess the capabilities of the existing intravenous access.
The client has a triple-lumen central venous catheter. Only the proximal lumen is currently being used for norepinephrine.
Multi-lumen central venous catheters are specifically designed to allow simultaneous administration of incompatible drugs.
4
Determine the safest and most efficient administration route for the new medication.
Using a separate, available lumen on the central venous catheter allows immediate administration of the stat medication without interrupting the critical vasopressor infusion or risking drug interaction.
Separate lumens keep the drugs completely isolated until they exit into the high-volume, rapid-flow environment of the superior vena cava.

Anahtar Kavram

Central Venous Catheter Multi-Lumen Management and IV Compatibility
Soru 497Soru →

A nurse is monitoring a client who is receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of packed red blood cells (PRBCs). Fifteen minutes after the transfusion begins, the client reports sudden lower back pain, chills, and dyspnea. Place the following nursing actions in the correct order of performance. (All steps must be used).

Öğeleri doğru sıraya koymak için sürükleyin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

1. Stop the blood transfusion immediately. 2. Replace the intravenous tubing with a new set primed with 0.9% sodium chloride. 3. Assess the client's vital signs and oxygen saturation. 4. Notify the primary healthcare provider and the blood bank. 5. Return the blood bag and attached tubing to the blood bank.
In a suspected blood transfusion reaction, the priority is to stop the causative agent immediately to minimize harm. Next, IV access must be maintained with normal saline using completely new tubing to avoid flushing residual blood into the client. Assessment of vital signs follows to determine the client's physiological status, which is then reported to the provider. Finally, the blood products and equipment are returned to the blood bank for investigation.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Stop the causative agent.
The blood transfusion is halted immediately upon recognizing signs of an acute hemolytic reaction.
Prevents further infusion of incompatible blood cells, which is the most critical life-saving intervention.
2
Maintain intravenous access safely.
The IV tubing is changed entirely and 0.9% sodium chloride is initiated.
Secures a patent line for emergency medications without infusing the remaining blood that is trapped in the old tubing.
3
Evaluate the client's current physiological status.
Vital signs and respiratory status are assessed.
Provides essential baseline data on hemodynamic stability to report to the healthcare provider for tailored interventions.
4
Escalate care and follow administrative protocols.
The healthcare provider and blood bank are notified.
Facilitates rapid medical intervention and initiates the facility's transfusion reaction investigation protocol.
5
Preserve evidence for investigation.
The blood bag and attached tubing are returned to the blood bank.
Allows the laboratory to analyze the blood products and determine the exact immunological or procedural cause of the adverse reaction.

Anahtar Kavram

Management of Acute Hemolytic Transfusion Reactions
Soru 498Soru →

A nurse is monitoring a client diagnosed with Guillain-Barré syndrome who reports increasing weakness in the upper body. The client's forced vital capacity (FVC) has decreased from 40 mL/kg to 14 mL/kg over the past shift. The most recent arterial blood gas (ABG) results on room air reveal a pH of 7.29, PaCO2 of 58 mm Hg (7.7 kPa), PaO2 of 64 mm Hg (8.5 kPa), and HCO3- of 25 mEq/L (25 mmol/L). Based on these findings, what is the priority nursing action?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Prepare the client for immediate endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation

Cevap

The correct action is to prepare the client for immediate endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation.
The client is experiencing acute respiratory failure due to the ascending paralysis characteristic of Guillain-Barré syndrome. The ABG results demonstrate uncompensated respiratory acidosis (pH 7.29, PaCO2 58 mm Hg), indicating that the client is retaining carbon dioxide due to severe hypoventilation. A forced vital capacity (FVC) less than 15 mL/kg is a critical clinical threshold that signals imminent respiratory muscle fatigue. Because the primary pathophysiological issue is a mechanical inability to ventilate, the priority action is to secure the airway and initiate mechanical ventilation.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the arterial blood gas (ABG) results to determine the client's acid-base status.
The ABG shows uncompensated respiratory acidosis (low pH, high PaCO2, normal HCO3-) with hypoxemia.
Identifying the primary physiological disturbance is the first step in clinical prioritization.
2
Evaluate the client's clinical progression and forced vital capacity (FVC) trend.
The FVC has dropped to 14 mL/kg, and upper body weakness is increasing.
An FVC below 15 mL/kg in a client with a neuromuscular disorder indicates imminent respiratory muscle failure.
3
Synthesize the data to determine the most appropriate intervention.
The combination of severe acute respiratory acidosis and critical FVC decline requires immediate artificial airway placement.
Supplemental oxygen or positioning will not overcome the mechanical failure of the diaphragm and intercostal muscles.

Anahtar Kavram

Management of acute respiratory failure and ABG interpretation in neuromuscular disorders.
Soru 499Soru →

A client who recently experienced a cerebrovascular accident requires an intermittent bolus enteral feeding through an established nasogastric (NG) tube. Place the following nursing actions in the correct sequence for safely delivering this nutrition. (Arrange the steps in chronological order.)

Öğeleri doğru sıraya koymak için sürükleyin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

The correct sequence is to first elevate the head of the bed, then measure the gastric residual volume, reinstill the aspirated volume, administer the feeding by gravity, and finally flush the tube with water.
The correct sequence prioritizes airway safety by positioning the client first. Next, the nurse assesses feeding tolerance by checking the residual volume. To maintain physiological balance, the residual is reinstilled. Only after these safety and assessment steps are completed is the feeding administered. Finally, flushing the tube ensures it remains patent for future use. This logical progression aligns with standard nursing care for enteral nutrition.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Elevate the head of the bed to at least 30 degrees.
The client is positioned safely to prevent reflux.
Reduces the risk of aspiration, which is the most critical safety concern during enteral feedings.
2
Aspirate gastric contents to measure residual volume.
The amount of undigested formula from previous feedings is quantified.
Evaluates gastric emptying and determines if it is safe to proceed with the next feeding.
3
Reinstill the aspirated gastric residual volume.
Gastric contents are returned to the client's stomach.
Prevents the loss of essential electrolytes, digestive enzymes, and fluid.
4
Administer the enteral feeding formula by gravity.
The client receives the prescribed nutrition.
Using gravity prevents the rapid instillation of formula, which can cause gastrointestinal distress.
5
Flush the tube with water.
The tube is cleared of any remaining nutritional formula.
Maintains tube patency, prevents clogging, and provides additional free water for hydration.

Anahtar Kavram

Safe Administration of Enteral Nutrition
Soru 500Soru →

A healthcare provider prescribes an intermittent intravenous vancomycin infusion of 15 mg/kg15\text{ mg/kg} for a client with a severe bacterial infection. The client weighs 154 lb154\text{ lb}. To prevent red man syndrome, institutional guidelines require vancomycin to be administered at a maximum rate of 10 mg/min10\text{ mg/min}. Calculate the minimum safe infusion time in minutes for this dose. Record your answer as a whole number.

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: 105

Cevap

105
To find the minimum safe infusion time, first convert the weight to kilograms (154 lb÷2.2=70 kg154\text{ lb} \div 2.2 = 70\text{ kg}). Next, calculate the total dose by multiplying the weight by the prescribed dosage (70 kg×15 mg/kg=1050 mg70\text{ kg} \times 15\text{ mg/kg} = 1050\text{ mg}). Finally, divide the total dose by the maximum safe infusion rate (1050 mg÷10 mg/min1050\text{ mg} \div 10\text{ mg/min}) to yield 105 minutes105\text{ minutes}. This ensures the medication is administered slowly enough to prevent infusion-related reactions.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms.
154 lb÷2.2=70 kg154\text{ lb} \div 2.2 = 70\text{ kg}
The vancomycin order is weight-based, and standard medical calculations require weight in kilograms.
2
Calculate the total prescribed dose of vancomycin.
70 kg×15 mg/kg=1050 mg70\text{ kg} \times 15\text{ mg/kg} = 1050\text{ mg}
The total dosage in milligrams must be determined before the administration time can be calculated.
3
Determine the minimum safe infusion time.
1050 mg÷10 mg/min=105 minutes1050\text{ mg} \div 10\text{ mg/min} = 105\text{ minutes}
Dividing the total dose by the maximum allowable rate per minute yields the minimum time required to safely infuse the medication.

Anahtar Kavram

Calculating safe intravenous administration rates for weight-based medication dosages.
ÖncekiSayfa 25 / 195Sonraki
Tüm alıştırma soruları — NCLEX-RN | Examkin