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3881 soru

Soru 1561Soru →

A nurse is caring for a client with major depressive disorder. The client avoids eye contact and states, "I am nothing but a burden to my family. They would be so much better off without me." Which of the following nursing actions are appropriate? (Select all that apply.)

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Cevap: Ask the client directly, 'Are you having thoughts of killing yourself?'; Respond by stating, 'It sounds like you are feeling incredibly sad and overwhelmed right now.'

Cevap

The appropriate actions are to ask the client directly about suicidal thoughts and to use empathetic, reflective communication to acknowledge their feelings.
The correct actions prioritize client safety and utilize therapeutic communication. Asking directly about suicidal thoughts is the required standard of care when a client makes statements indicating they feel like a burden. Acknowledging and reflecting the client's feelings ('It sounds like you are feeling incredibly sad') validates their emotional state and encourages them to elaborate on their distress without feeling judged.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's statement ('burden to my family', 'better off without me') to identify underlying risks and emotions.
The statement indicates profound hopelessness and potential suicidal ideation, placing the client at high risk for self-harm.
Client safety is the highest priority in psychiatric nursing, and statements of worthlessness are significant red flags.
2
Evaluate the nursing actions to determine which interventions prioritize safety and utilize therapeutic communication.
Directly assessing for suicide risk and reflecting the client's feelings are correct. Providing false reassurance, arguing, or ignoring the statement are incorrect.
Therapeutic communication builds trust and encourages the client to share their true feelings, while direct questioning ensures immediate safety.

Anahtar Kavram

Therapeutic Communication and Suicide Risk Assessment
Soru 1562Soru →

An intensive care nurse is preparing to initiate a continuous intravenous infusion of milrinone for a client experiencing cardiogenic shock.

The client's admission weight is 8080 kg. The prescribed dose is 0.50.5 mcg/kg/min. The pharmacy has provided a premixed bag containing 2020 mg of milrinone in 100100 mL of 5%5\% dextrose in water (D5WD_5W).

Calculate the required infusion pump setting in mL/hr. (Record your answer as a whole number).

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Cevap: 12

Cevap

12
The correct infusion rate is 12 mL/hr, determined by first calculating the total required hourly dose based on weight (2.4 mg/hr) and dividing it by the concentration of the prepared medication (0.2 mg/mL).

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Calculate the per-minute dose required.
4040 mcg/min
Multiplying the prescribed dose (0.50.5 mcg/kg/min) by the client's weight (8080 kg) gives the total amount needed per minute.
2
Convert the per-minute dose to an hourly dose.
24002400 mcg/hr
Infusion pumps deliver fluid in mL per hour, so the required rate must reflect an hourly time frame (40×6040 \times 60).
3
Convert the dose from micrograms to milligrams.
2.42.4 mg/hr
The available medication is measured in milligrams, requiring unit alignment before calculating the required volume.
4
Determine the concentration of the available solution.
0.20.2 mg/mL
Dividing the total drug amount (2020 mg) by the total volume (100100 mL) establishes how much medication is in each milliliter.
5
Calculate the final infusion rate.
1212 mL/hr
Dividing the required hourly dose (2.42.4 mg/hr) by the concentration (0.20.2 mg/mL) yields the final volume per hour to program into the pump.

Anahtar Kavram

Weight-based intravenous infusion pump rate calculation for critical care medications.
Soru 1563Soru →

A nurse is assessing a 15-year-old client who is 26 weeks pregnant and recently moved into a foster home. The client states, "I don't need anyone's help. I am going to drop out of high school, get my own apartment, and raise this baby completely by myself." Which response by the nurse is the most appropriate to assess the client's support system?

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Cevap: It sounds like you want to be very independent. Who are the people in your life right now that you feel safe relying on?

Cevap

The most appropriate response acknowledges the client's desire for independence while utilizing an open-ended question to gently probe the reality of her current support network.
The correct response validates the adolescent's developmental need for autonomy and independence while simultaneously using an open-ended question to assess the reality of her current support network. This therapeutic approach builds trust and encourages the client to reflect on who she can realistically rely on without feeling judged or interrogated.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's statement and current clinical picture.
The client is a pregnant adolescent in a new foster home expressing an unrealistic plan to live completely independently, indicating a severe lack of reliable support systems and a potential threat to her safety.
Identifying the underlying psychosocial vulnerability is the required first step in the nursing process before selecting an intervention.
2
Apply developmental principles to the client's behavior.
According to Erikson's stages of psychosocial development, the client is in the 'Identity vs. Role Confusion' stage. Her desire to 'do it completely by myself' is a normal developmental drive for autonomy, even though it is manifesting in an unsafe plan.
Nursing interventions must be developmentally appropriate; dismissing an adolescent's drive for independence will cause them to withdraw and reject care.
3
Evaluate the nursing responses to find the one that assesses support without blocking communication.
The response that validates her desire to be independent and follows up with an open-ended question about safe people in her life is selected.
This therapeutic approach builds trust and encourages the client to reflect on her support network without feeling judged or controlled.

Anahtar Kavram

Therapeutic Assessment of Support Systems in Adolescents
Soru 1564Soru →

A registered nurse is performing a comprehensive cardiovascular assessment on a client with a history of heart failure. Arrange the following physical assessment techniques in the correct procedural order from first to last.

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Cevap

The correct sequence is: Inspect the anterior chest, Palpate the apical impulse, Palpate the precordium for thrills, Auscultate with the diaphragm, and Auscultate with the bell.
The correct sequence for a cardiovascular assessment follows the standard order of inspection, palpation, and auscultation. After visually inspecting the anterior chest, the nurse sequentially palpates the apical impulse and then the remaining valve areas for thrills. Auscultation is performed last, initially with the diaphragm for high-pitched sounds (S1 and S2), followed by the bell for low-pitched sounds (S3, S4, and murmurs).

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the standard sequence of physical assessment for the cardiovascular system.
The sequence is Inspection, Palpation, and Auscultation.
Following a systematic approach ensures comprehensive data collection and prevents altering physical findings.
2
Determine the first specific action based on the sequence.
Inspection of the anterior chest for pulsations or heaves is the first step.
Inspection must always occur before touching the client.
3
Sequence the palpation steps.
Palpating the apical impulse precedes palpating for thrills.
Locating the point of maximal impulse is a primary assessment before assessing for broader abnormal turbulence (thrills).
4
Sequence the auscultation steps.
Auscultating with the diaphragm occurs before using the bell.
The diaphragm detects normal high-pitched sounds (S1, S2), establishing a baseline before listening for abnormal low-pitched sounds (gallops, murmurs) with the bell.

Anahtar Kavram

Cardiovascular Physical Assessment Sequence and Instrument Use
Soru 1565Soru →

A nurse is preparing for the discharge of a client who has right-sided hemiparesis and expressive aphasia following a cerebrovascular accident (CVA). The client's spouse, who is the primary caregiver, works full-time outside the home. Which of the following nursing actions are appropriate to ensure an adequate support system is in place? Select all that apply.

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Cevap: Provide the spouse with contact information for local stroke survivor and caregiver support groups.; Refer the family to a home health agency to arrange for daytime assistance while the spouse is at work.; Collaborate with the spouse to identify other family members or friends who can provide respite care on weekends.

Cevap

The appropriate actions include providing information for support groups, referring the family to a home health agency for daytime assistance, and collaborating with the spouse to identify options for weekend respite care.
Providing contact information for support groups offers emotional and educational support for both the client and caregiver. Referring the family to a home health agency directly addresses the practical gap in care while the spouse is working. Collaborating to identify other friends or family members helps build a broader support network, which reduces the risk of caregiver burnout by planning for necessary respite care.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's clinical and social situation presented in the scenario.
The client has physical and communication deficits requiring care, but the primary caregiver (spouse) works full-time, creating a significant gap in daytime support.
Identifying the specific gaps in the support system dictates which nursing interventions and referrals are necessary.
2
Evaluate potential nursing interventions based on therapeutic communication, professional boundaries, and scope of practice.
Referrals to community resources and collaborating to build a respite network are appropriate. Giving personal employment advice or delegating initial assessments to UAPs are incorrect actions.
To select evidence-based, safe, and professional nursing actions that directly enhance the client's support system.

Anahtar Kavram

Evaluating and planning comprehensive support systems and community resources for clients discharging with significant deficits.
Soru 1566Soru →

A 54-year-old client is admitted to the intensive care unit with acute respiratory failure and is initiated on bilevel positive airway pressure (BiPAP) therapy. The client is diaphoretic, tachycardic, and extremely agitated. The client repeatedly attempts to pull the tight-fitting mask off their face, gasping between breaths, "I can't... breathe... with this... on! I'm... suffocating!" Which of the following is the most therapeutic nursing response?

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Cevap: State, "I can see how terrifying it feels to wear this mask," remain at the bedside, and instruct the client to mirror your slow breathing pattern.

Cevap

The most therapeutic response is to validate the client's fear concisely, remain at the bedside, and instruct the client to mirror the nurse's slow breathing pattern.
In a state of acute respiratory distress and severe panic, a client's cognitive field narrows significantly. They cannot process complex explanations or safely engage in lengthy conversations. The most therapeutic approach is to concisely validate their emotion (terror), provide continuous physical presence, and use a directive behavioral intervention such as mirroring. This approach lowers anxiety and decreases the respiratory rate without requiring the compromised client to speak.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's current physiological state.
The client is experiencing acute respiratory failure, hypoxia, and severe panic, limiting their cognitive capacity and ability to speak.
Physiological stability determines the appropriateness and safety of specific communication techniques.
2
Evaluate the communication options against the physiological context.
Techniques that require long verbal responses (such as open-ended probing questions) are contraindicated. Reassurances that minimize the feeling of suffocation invalidate the client's experience, while threats increase sympathetic arousal.
Standard therapeutic communication must be adapted to avoid causing physical harm during an acute medical crisis.
3
Identify the response that best manages both the physiological and psychological immediate needs.
Briefly validating the terror while using a directive, non-verbal anxiety reduction technique (breathing mirroring) is identified as the best approach.
This lowers panic, builds trust, and decreases respiratory rate without requiring the hypoxic client to speak.

Anahtar Kavram

Therapeutic Communication in Acute Physiological Crisis
Soru 1567Soru →

An oncology client arrives at the outpatient infusion clinic to receive an intravenous antibiotic. The client has an implanted central venous access device (port) that is currently de-accessed. Place the nursing actions for accessing and preparing the port in the correct chronological sequence.

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Cevap

The correct sequence prioritizes infection control and patient safety: mask/hand hygiene, don sterile gloves and cleanse, allow to air-dry, insert a non-coring needle, aspirate for blood return, and finally flush with saline.
Accessing an implanted port requires strict aseptic technique and safety verification. Masking the client and nurse prevents respiratory droplet contamination. Hand hygiene and sterile gloves are mandatory for central line procedures. Chlorhexidine with friction effectively reduces skin flora, but it must air-dry completely to be bactericidal. A non-coring (Huber) needle is required to prevent damaging the port's silicone septum. Crucially, before injecting any fluids, the nurse must aspirate for a blood return to verify the needle is within the port reservoir and the catheter tip is in the central vasculature. Flushing with saline only occurs after placement is confirmed, ensuring patency and clearing any locking solutions.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Place a surgical mask on both the client and the nurse, and perform hand hygiene.
Airborne and droplet infection control is established.
Prevents respiratory droplets from contaminating the sterile insertion site.
2
Don sterile gloves and cleanse the skin over the port with chlorhexidine using back-and-forth friction.
The skin is chemically prepared.
Friction helps the chlorhexidine penetrate the epidermal layers to effectively reduce microbial flora.
3
Allow the cleansed area to air-dry completely without fanning or blotting.
The site becomes maximally aseptic.
Chlorhexidine requires adequate drying time to achieve its full bactericidal effect; fanning introduces new pathogens.
4
Stabilize the port using the non-dominant hand and insert a non-coring needle perpendicular to the septum.
The port is successfully accessed.
A non-coring (Huber) needle prevents slicing or damaging the port's self-sealing silicone septum.
5
Aspirate the attached syringe to check for a blood return to confirm correct needle placement.
Placement in the central vasculature is verified.
Aspiration ensures the catheter tip is correctly positioned before any medications or fluids are injected.
6
Flush the port with 10 mL of 0.9% sodium chloride to assess patency and clear the line.
The port is ready for the prescribed antibiotic infusion.
Flushing confirms patency and safely clears any residual concentrated heparin lock solution from the catheter.

Anahtar Kavram

Implanted Venous Port (Port-a-Cath) Access Sequence and Central Line Infection Prevention
Soru 1568Soru →

A client with advanced cancer has a single-lumen peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC). A primary infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride is running at 50 mL/hr, and a continuous infusion of hydromorphone for severe, intractable pain is connected via a Y-site to the primary line. The nurse needs to administer a scheduled dose of intravenous vancomycin over 90 minutes. A drug reference indicates that vancomycin is physically incompatible with hydromorphone. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing action?

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Cevap: Establish a separate peripheral intravenous catheter to administer the vancomycin infusion.

Cevap

Establish a separate peripheral intravenous catheter to administer the vancomycin infusion.
When a client requires a continuous infusion of a critical, life-sustaining, or symptom-controlling medication (such as opioid analgesics for severe pain, or vasopressors) and a scheduled intermittent medication that is physically incompatible, the nurse must establish a separate intravenous access site. Pausing the hydromorphone for 90 minutes would result in a severe exacerbation of cancer pain. The two medications cannot be run in the same single-lumen line because they will precipitate when they meet in the common tubing.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the physical incompatibility between the ordered medications.
Vancomycin and hydromorphone are physically incompatible and cannot be mixed in the same intravenous line or lumen.
Mixing them will cause chemical precipitation, which can lead to catheter occlusion or a life-threatening embolism.
2
Evaluate the clinical significance of the continuous hydromorphone infusion.
The hydromorphone infusion is critical for managing the client's severe, intractable cancer pain.
Pausing the infusion for the 90-minute duration of the vancomycin dose would result in unacceptable breakthrough pain and potential withdrawal symptoms.
3
Determine the safest method of administration for both medications.
A new, separate peripheral IV line must be started.
This is the only way to allow both the critical continuous analgesia and the scheduled antibiotic to infuse simultaneously and safely without mixing.

Anahtar Kavram

Management of incompatible intravenous medications with critical continuous infusions
Soru 1569Soru →

A triage nurse in an urgent care clinic is evaluating an older adult client with a documented history of severe emphysema. The client presents with sudden, localized right-sided abdominal pain and new-onset acute confusion. Which approach to the physical examination demonstrates the most accurate application of advanced assessment techniques and clinical reasoning?

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Cevap: Auscultate the abdomen prior to percussion to avoid artificially stimulating peristalsis, and anticipate that the upper border of liver dullness will be percussed below the fifth intercostal space due to pulmonary hyperinflation.

Cevap

The correct approach is to auscultate the abdomen before percussing to prevent artifactual bowel sounds, while correctly anticipating that the liver's upper border will be displaced downward due to pulmonary hyperinflation.
During an abdominal assessment, auscultation must precede percussion and palpation to prevent the artificial stimulation of bowel sounds, which can lead to false interpretations of gastrointestinal motility. Furthermore, applying advanced assessment techniques requires adapting to the client's underlying pathology. In a client with severe emphysema, hyperinflated lungs force the diaphragm to flatten, physically displacing the liver downward. Consequently, the nurse must anticipate that the upper border of liver dullness—normally percussed at the fifth intercostal space—will be found lower in the thoracic cavity.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the correct physical assessment sequence specifically for the abdomen.
The sequence must be Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion, and Palpation.
Palpating or percussing before auscultating can artificially stimulate bowel motility, leading to an inaccurate assessment of normal peristalsis.
2
Analyze the impact of severe emphysema on anatomical landmarks during percussion.
Emphysema causes hyperinflation of the lungs, which flattens the diaphragm and pushes underlying organs downward.
The normal upper border of liver dullness is typically found at the fifth to seventh intercostal space; pulmonary hyperinflation displaces this transition point lower in the thoracic cavity.
3
Evaluate the clinical presentation of acute confusion in an older adult.
Recognize the confusion as an acute pathological finding rather than normal aging.
Sudden mental status changes often indicate an underlying issue such as hypoxia, systemic infection, or severe pain, requiring immediate nursing intervention.
4
Review the scope of practice regarding delegation of the assessment.
Determine that auscultation cannot be delegated to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP).
Auscultating bowel sounds is an assessment that requires nursing knowledge and clinical judgment, which falls strictly within the RN scope of practice.

Anahtar Kavram

Advanced Techniques and Sequencing in Physical Assessment
Soru 1570Soru →

While assigned to the intensive care unit, a nurse observes the spouse of a client who recently suffered a massive myocardial infarction. The spouse is pacing rapidly in the hallway and suddenly shouts at the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP), 'You are completely incompetent! You forgot to empty the trash, and you are purposefully neglecting my partner!' Which of the following is the priority nursing action to address the spouse's behavior?

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Cevap: Approach the spouse calmly and state, 'It seems like you are feeling incredibly overwhelmed right now. Let's step away for a moment and talk about what you are experiencing.'

Cevap

The correct answer is to approach the spouse calmly, acknowledge their feelings of being overwhelmed, and offer a private space to talk.
The correct action directly addresses the spouse's underlying psychosocial distress. Displacement is an ego defense mechanism where a person transfers emotional reactions from the true source of anxiety (the client's critical illness) to a less threatening target (the UAP and the trash). By validating the spouse's feelings without judging the outburst, and offering a safe environment to communicate, the nurse facilitates adaptive coping and effectively de-escalates the situation.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the spouse's behavior to determine the underlying psychosocial issue.
The spouse is experiencing severe anxiety regarding the client's critical condition and is using displacement to transfer this emotional pain onto a safer target (the UAP and the trash).
Recognizing maladaptive coping mechanisms is essential for selecting an appropriate, non-punitive therapeutic nursing intervention.
2
Evaluate the priority need in the given clinical scenario.
The spouse is experiencing acute psychological distress that is disrupting the therapeutic environment, making this the immediate situational priority.
Nurses must address immediate psychosocial crises to restore calm and support family coping, rather than defaulting to unrelated assessments.
3
Select the most therapeutic nursing communication technique.
Validating the spouse's feelings and offering to talk privately addresses the root cause of the displacement.
Therapeutic communication de-escalates anxiety, whereas probing, arguing, or ignoring the emotion will exacerbate the crisis.

Anahtar Kavram

Coping Mechanisms: Displacement and Therapeutic Communication
Soru 1571Soru →

A nurse is preparing to perform a focused abdominal assessment on a client who presents to the emergency department reporting sharp left lower quadrant (LLQ) abdominal pain. In which sequence should the nurse perform the following assessment techniques? (Arrange the actions in the correct chronological order.)

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Cevap

The correct sequence for assessing an abdomen with localized pain is to inspect, auscultate, percuss, palpate the non-painful areas, and finally palpate the painful area.
The standard sequence for physical assessment (inspect, palpate, percuss, auscultate) is deliberately modified for the abdomen. The correct abdominal sequence is to inspect, auscultate, percuss, and palpate. Auscultation must occur before percussion and palpation because tactile manipulation can alter bowel motility and create false sounds. Furthermore, when a client reports localized pain, the nurse must assess the unaffected areas first and the painful area last to prevent involuntary muscle guarding and minimize client discomfort.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Determine the general sequence required for an abdominal assessment.
The standard sequence is altered to Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion, and Palpation.
This specific order prevents mechanical stimulation of the bowel from altering the frequency and character of bowel sounds.
2
Identify the clinical judgment rule for assessing a painful area.
Areas of reported pain must be assessed last.
Palpating the painful quadrant early would cause muscle guarding and discomfort, preventing an accurate assessment of the remaining abdominal quadrants.
3
Order the specific nursing actions based on these principles.
The nurse must inspect the abdomen, auscultate for bowel sounds, percuss for tone, palpate the three non-painful quadrants, and end by palpating the painful left lower quadrant.
This sequence integrates the required anatomical approach with appropriate pain management principles.

Anahtar Kavram

Abdominal Assessment Sequence and Pain Considerations
Soru 1572Soru →

A nurse is planning care for a client newly diagnosed with conversion disorder. The client developed sudden bilateral lower extremity paralysis shortly after witnessing a severe motor vehicle collision. Extensive diagnostic testing has ruled out any physiological etiology. Which of the following nursing interventions are appropriate to include in the plan of care? Select all that apply.

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Cevap: Acknowledge the client's physical symptoms without giving them excessive attention.; Promote independence by encouraging the client to perform self-care activities within their current functional ability.; Explore the emotional distress surrounding the precipitating traumatic event when the client demonstrates readiness.

Cevap

The appropriate interventions include acknowledging the physical symptoms without excessive focus, promoting independence in daily activities, and exploring the underlying emotional trauma when the client is ready.
In conversion disorder, the client's physical symptoms are real to them and stem from unconscious psychological conflict rather than a physical illness. Acknowledging the symptoms builds therapeutic trust, but the nurse must avoid excessive focus to prevent reinforcing secondary gain. Promoting independence helps maintain functional ability and self-esteem. Exploring the underlying emotional distress addresses the root psychological cause when the client is emotionally prepared.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's diagnosis and symptom presentation.
The client has conversion disorder with paralysis, meaning the physical symptoms are real to the client but stem from an unconscious psychological conflict rather than a physical pathology.
Understanding the unconscious nature of conversion disorder is critical to avoid mistaking it for malingering (intentional faking).
2
Determine the optimal therapeutic communication approach.
The nurse should acknowledge the symptoms to build trust, avoid confrontation or logical arguments about test results, and wait for the client to demonstrate readiness before probing into the precipitating trauma.
Confrontation or invalidation will increase the client's anxiety and reinforce the psychological need for the physical symptom.
3
Identify appropriate milieu management and delegation strategies.
The nurse must encourage independence to prevent secondary gain, limit excessive attention to the symptom, and retain all evaluation and assessment tasks rather than delegating them to a UAP.
Promoting independence fosters recovery, and evaluating psychological readiness requires registered nursing judgment.

Anahtar Kavram

Management of Conversion Disorder (Functional Neurological Symptom Disorder)
Tahmini Süre:2m 0s
Soru 1573Soru →

A client who has just received a diagnosis of a chronic illness is visibly agitated, pacing the room, and states, "I do not know how I am going to manage this. My life is over." Which of the following responses by the nurse demonstrate therapeutic communication? Select all that apply.

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Cevap: "It sounds like you are feeling very overwhelmed by this news."; "I will stay here with you for a while if you would like."

Cevap

The therapeutic responses involve reflecting the client's overwhelmed feelings and offering a supportive presence.
The correct responses utilize active listening, reflection, and offering self. Acknowledging that the client feels overwhelmed validates their current emotional experience without trying to prematurely 'fix' the problem. Offering to sit with the client demonstrates unconditional positive regard, empathy, and availability, which are foundational to a therapeutic nurse-client relationship.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's current emotional state and nonverbal behavior.
The client is experiencing high anxiety, distress, and despair related to a new chronic illness diagnosis, evidenced by pacing and fatalistic statements.
Understanding the client's emotional baseline is necessary to select a communication approach that builds trust and safety.
2
Evaluate each nursing response against established principles of therapeutic communication.
Reflecting the client's emotions and offering personal presence are effective therapeutic techniques. Minimizing feelings with reassurance and probing with 'why' questions are communication blocks.
Therapeutic communication should facilitate the client's expression of feelings, whereas non-therapeutic communication shuts down dialogue.

Anahtar Kavram

Therapeutic Communication
Soru 1574Soru →

An occupational health nurse is conducting a follow-up assessment on an employee who returned to work 6 weeks ago after the sudden death of their spouse in a traumatic accident. Over the past month, the employee has reported severe insomnia, frequent crying spells, and difficulty concentrating on work tasks. During today's visit, the employee appears remarkably relaxed, hands the nurse a prized vintage watch stating, "I want you to have this; I really won't be needing it anymore," and says, "I've finally figured out how to make all this pain stop." Which of the following is the priority nursing action?

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Cevap: Ask the employee directly if they are having thoughts of suicide and if they have a plan.

Cevap

Ask the employee directly if they are having thoughts of suicide and if they have a plan.
The employee is exhibiting classic, high-risk warning signs of impending suicide: sudden and unexplained mood improvement after a period of severe depression, giving away prized possessions, and making ambiguous statements about ending their pain. The priority nursing action is to ensure client safety by conducting a direct, unambiguous assessment for suicidal ideation and intent. Nurses must ask direct questions when self-harm is suspected.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation and recent history.
The client has a recent history of severe grief and depression following a traumatic loss, which has suddenly shifted to a relaxed state.
Identifying changes in baseline behavior is crucial for accurate assessment in grieving individuals.
2
Identify key behavioral cues and verbal statements.
The client is giving away a prized possession, reports feeling relaxed, and states they have figured out how to make the pain stop.
These are classic warning signs that a severely depressed individual may have finalized a suicide plan, bringing them a false sense of peace.
3
Determine the highest priority nursing intervention using safety principles.
The immediate priority is to directly assess the client's risk for self-harm.
Client safety always takes precedence over documentation, administrative tasks, or exploring psychosocial stages.

Anahtar Kavram

Suicide Risk Assessment in Grieving Clients
Soru 1575Soru →

A nurse is speaking with the parents of an 8-year-old child who has recently received a terminal prognosis. The parents are visibly distressed and express feelings of profound helplessness regarding the situation. Which of the following responses by the nurse demonstrate appropriate therapeutic communication for this family? Select all that apply.

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Cevap: This must be overwhelming information to process. What are your biggest concerns right now?; I can sit quietly with you for a while if you just need some time to absorb this news.; It is completely normal to feel angry or numb right now. Our team is here to support you.

Cevap

The correct responses are those that validate the parents' feelings, offer a silent presence, and encourage the open expression of their concerns without giving unsolicited advice or false reassurance.
The correct statements utilize evidence-based therapeutic communication techniques. Validating the parents' emotional response normalizes their anticipatory grief. Offering self, even in silence, demonstrates profound empathy and support without placing conversational demands on the grieving individuals. Asking an open-ended question regarding their primary concerns empowers the parents to direct the dialogue toward what matters most to them.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the clinical situation and emotional state of the clients.
The parents are experiencing acute anticipatory grief and helplessness following a terminal diagnosis for their 8-year-old child.
Understanding the context of the acute emotional response determines the appropriate communication approach.
2
Evaluate the therapeutic nature of each communication option.
Identify statements that use broad openings, offer self, and validate feelings, while filtering out non-therapeutic blocks.
Therapeutic communication facilitates trust and emotional expression, whereas non-therapeutic techniques shut down dialogue.
3
Assess the developmental appropriateness of any advice given regarding the pediatric client.
Recognize that an 8-year-old is beginning to comprehend the finality of death, contrary to the belief that they view it as a temporary sleep.
Developmentally inappropriate advice can harm family dynamics and delay necessary psychosocial support for the child.

Anahtar Kavram

Therapeutic Communication in Anticipatory Grief
Soru 1576Soru →

A triage nurse is evaluating a 76-year-old client presenting from an assisted living facility with a rigid, distended abdomen and a sudden, acute change in mental status. When implementing the physical assessment for this client, which action by the nurse is correct?

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Cevap: The nurse inspects the abdominal skin characteristics, auscultates all four quadrants using the diaphragm of the stethoscope, and then performs light palpation.

Cevap

The correct action is to inspect the abdomen first, then auscultate all four quadrants with the diaphragm of the stethoscope, followed by palpation.
The proper sequence for an abdominal assessment is inspection, auscultation, percussion, and palpation. Auscultating immediately after inspection is critical because manual manipulation of the abdominal wall can stimulate peristalsis, artificially altering the frequency and character of bowel sounds. Additionally, the diaphragm of the stethoscope is the correct instrument for detecting the high-pitched sounds characteristic of gastrointestinal activity.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Determine the correct assessment sequence for the abdominal system.
Identify that the abdomen requires a unique sequence: inspection, auscultation, percussion, and finally palpation.
Manipulating the abdomen via percussion or palpation before listening can stimulate peristalsis, creating artificial bowel sounds.
2
Select the correct instrument for the assessment of bowel sounds.
Identify the diaphragm of the stethoscope as the appropriate tool.
The diaphragm is specifically designed to detect high-pitched sounds, such as the gurgling of normal, hypoactive, or hyperactive bowel sounds.
3
Evaluate the distractors related to delegation and lifespan considerations.
Eliminate options involving the UAP and dismissing the client's cognitive changes.
A registered nurse cannot delegate initial assessments, and sudden confusion in older adults is a sign of acute illness (delirium) rather than expected dementia.

Anahtar Kavram

Abdominal Physical Assessment Sequence and Geriatric Considerations
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 1577Soru →

A pediatric client is prescribed ibuprofen 200200 mg by mouth for a fever. The pharmacy dispenses an ibuprofen oral suspension labeled 100100 mg/55 mL. How many milliliters will the nurse administer to the client for this single dose?

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Cevap: 1010 mL

Cevap

1010 mL
To determine the correct volume to administer, the standard dosage calculation formula DesiredHave×Volume\frac{\text{Desired}}{\text{Have}} \times \text{Volume} is used. The desired dose is 200200 mg, the available dose is 100100 mg, and the available volume is 55 mL. Therefore, 200100×5=2×5=10\frac{200}{100} \times 5 = 2 \times 5 = 10 mL. Administering 1010 mL safely provides the prescribed 200200 mg of ibuprofen.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the prescribed dose (Desired) and the available concentration (Have).
Desired = 200200 mg; Have = 100100 mg in 55 mL.
Accurate identification of prescription parameters is required for safe dosage calculation.
2
Apply the standard dosage calculation formula: DesiredHave×Volume\frac{\text{Desired}}{\text{Have}} \times \text{Volume}.
200 mg100 mg×5 mL\frac{200\text{ mg}}{100\text{ mg}} \times 5\text{ mL}.
This formula ensures the correct volume is administered to deliver the exact prescribed milligram dose.
3
Perform the mathematical calculation to find the final volume.
2×5 mL=10 mL2 \times 5\text{ mL} = 10\text{ mL}.
Completing the arithmetic provides the correct volume to be administered to the client.

Anahtar Kavram

Dosage Calculation for Oral Suspensions
Soru 1578Soru →

A nurse is initiating care for a client who is experiencing an acute situational crisis. Arrange the following nursing actions in the correct chronological order of priority, from first to last.

Öğeleri doğru sıraya koymak için sürükleyin

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Cevap

The correct sequence is to first assess for lethality, then establish rapport, next identify the precipitating event, and finally develop an action plan.
In crisis intervention, the nurse must follow a structured approach. The highest priority is always ensuring the safety of the client and others by assessing lethality. Once immediate safety is established, the nurse rapidly builds a therapeutic relationship. With rapport established, the nurse can effectively and safely assess the precipitating event. Finally, the nurse and client collaborate to develop an action plan to restore pre-crisis functioning.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Prioritize immediate safety.
Assess the client for lethality and ensure immediate safety.
Safety is the fundamental first step in any crisis situation to prevent self-harm or harm to others.
2
Build trust.
Establish rapport and build a therapeutic relationship.
Effective assessment and planning cannot occur without a foundation of trust and a therapeutic connection.
3
Assess the root cause.
Identify the specific precipitating event that caused the crisis.
Understanding the specific trigger is necessary to help the client process the event and identify appropriate coping strategies.
4
Collaborate on a solution.
Develop an action plan with the client to restore functioning.
Planning is the final step to empower the client and provide a clear path to resolving the crisis.

Anahtar Kavram

Crisis Intervention Prioritization
Tahmini Süre:45s
Soru 1579Soru →

A client recovering from a recent colostomy placement turns away during a dressing change and states, "I feel like a monster. My body is completely ruined." Which statement by the nurse demonstrates the most therapeutic communication?

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Cevap: This is a significant change to your body. Can you tell me more about what is most upsetting for you right now?

Cevap

The statement validating the significant change and asking the client to tell more about what is upsetting.
The correct answer utilizes two key therapeutic communication techniques: validation (acknowledging the significant physical change) and open-ended exploration (inviting the client to share more). This combination fosters trust and allows the client to freely express their grief and anxiety regarding their altered body image.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's statement and nonverbal behavior.
The client is turning away and expressing severe distress regarding negative body image.
Understanding the client's emotional state dictates the therapeutic approach.
2
Evaluate the nursing responses for therapeutic communication techniques.
The most appropriate response must validate the client's feelings and encourage exploration without judgment, false reassurance, or giving advice.
Therapeutic communication aims to facilitate the client's expression of emotions and promote coping.

Anahtar Kavram

Therapeutic Communication: Validating and Encouraging Expression
Soru 1580Soru →

A client diagnosed with borderline personality disorder approaches the nurse's station with several fresh, superficial horizontal lacerations on their left forearm. The client appears calm and states, "I just felt so empty inside; I needed to do this to feel something real." What is the nurse's priority and most therapeutic intervention?

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Cevap: Provide basic first aid to the wounds in a neutral, matter-of-fact manner, and then ask the client to identify the event that triggered the behavior.

Cevap

The most therapeutic intervention is to provide basic first aid to the wounds in a neutral, matter-of-fact manner, and then ask the client to identify the event that triggered the behavior.
In clients with borderline personality disorder, superficial self-harm is often a maladaptive coping mechanism used to relieve emotional numbness or distress (NSSI), rather than a genuine suicide attempt. Providing excessive emotional attention during wound care acts as a secondary gain, which reinforces the behavior. The most therapeutic approach is to provide necessary first aid in a neutral, matter-of-fact manner. Once physical safety is secured, the nurse should guide the client to identify triggers and practice healthier coping strategies.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the clinical presentation.
The client has superficial lacerations and describes feelings of emptiness, which is characteristic of non-suicidal self-injury (NSSI) commonly seen in borderline personality disorder.
Differentiating NSSI from an active, lethal suicide attempt dictates the severity and type of necessary psychiatric intervention.
2
Determine the primary objective of nursing care in this specific context.
The goal is to ensure physical safety (treat the wounds) without providing secondary gain (excessive attention or dramatic reactions) that would reinforce the maladaptive behavior.
Clients with borderline personality disorder may subconsciously use self-harm to elicit a caretaking response from staff.
3
Evaluate communication and intervention strategies based on least restrictive principles.
A neutral, matter-of-fact approach to wound care minimizes secondary gain. Shifting the focus to identifying triggers promotes healthy problem-solving.
This approach balances basic physiological needs (tissue integrity) with crucial psychosocial boundaries.
4
Reject inappropriate interventions.
Overreacting with intense emotional support, asking non-therapeutic 'why' questions, or implementing overly restrictive measures (like immediate seclusion or continuous 1:1 observation for superficial NSSI) are rejected.
These actions either reinforce the negative behavior or violate the principle of the least restrictive environment.

Anahtar Kavram

Management of Non-Suicidal Self-Injury (NSSI) in Borderline Personality Disorder
ÖncekiSayfa 79 / 195Sonraki
Tüm alıştırma soruları — NCLEX-RN | Examkin