Physiological Integrity

1960 soru

Soru 641Soru →

A client with severe cardiogenic shock is receiving a continuous intravenous (IV) infusion of milrinone via a single 22-gauge22\text{-gauge} peripheral catheter. The client rapidly develops severe dyspnea, diffuse pulmonary crackles, and an oxygen saturation of 82%82\%. The healthcare provider prescribes a stat dose of IV bumetanide. Upon consulting the pharmacological reference, the nurse notes that bumetanide and milrinone are physically incompatible. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing action?

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Cevap: Establish a second peripheral IV access site immediately to administer the stat dose of the loop diuretic.

Cevap

Establish a second peripheral IV access site immediately to administer the stat dose of the loop diuretic.
The client requires both medications urgently: milrinone to maintain cardiac output in cardiogenic shock, and bumetanide to treat acute pulmonary edema. Because the medications are physically incompatible, they cannot share an IV line. Furthermore, a life-sustaining inotropic infusion cannot be paused even momentarily without risking severe hemodynamic instability. Therefore, the nurse must immediately establish a second IV access site to safely administer the diuretic without compromising the inotropic support.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's current hemodynamic status and the nature of the primary infusion.
The client is in cardiogenic shock and relies on milrinone, a continuous life-sustaining inotrope, to maintain cardiac output.
Understanding the critical nature of the primary infusion dictates whether it can be safely interrupted.
2
Evaluate the IV compatibility of the newly prescribed stat medication.
Bumetanide is physically incompatible with milrinone.
Administering incompatible medications through the same IV line causes precipitation, posing severe embolic risks.
3
Determine the safest administration method that prioritizes both circulation (maintaining the inotrope) and breathing (administering the diuretic).
The nurse must immediately insert a new, secondary peripheral IV line.
The standard protocol of pausing and flushing an IV line for incompatible medications is contraindicated when the primary fluid is a life-sustaining vasoactive drip.

Anahtar Kavram

Administration of Incompatible Medications and Management of Continuous Vasoactive Infusions
Soru 642Soru →

A nurse is assuming care for a client with severe Crohn's disease who is receiving continuous total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via a double-lumen central venous catheter. The client is currently resting comfortably. Which of the following nursing interventions are appropriate for managing this client's parenteral therapy? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

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Cevap: Keep a bag of 10% dextrose in water (D10W) readily available on the nursing unit.; Monitor the client's capillary blood glucose levels every 4 to 6 hours.; Change the TPN solution bag and intravenous administration tubing every 24 hours.

Cevap

The correct interventions are keeping 10% dextrose in water (D10W) available, monitoring blood glucose levels every 4 to 6 hours, and changing the TPN bag and tubing every 24 hours.
Safe management of continuous Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN) involves proactive measures to prevent both metabolic and infectious complications. Because TPN contains a high concentration of dextrose, routine blood glucose checks (every 4 to 6 hours) are necessary to monitor for hyperglycemia. Conversely, if the TPN infusion is suddenly interrupted, the client is at high risk for rebound hypoglycemia; therefore, keeping 10% dextrose in water (D10W) readily available on the unit ensures the glucose infusion can be safely maintained. Finally, the nutrient-dense composition of TPN creates an ideal environment for microbial growth, making it a critical standard of practice to change the TPN bag and the entire administration tubing set strictly every 24 hours.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Evaluate the risk of hypoglycemia associated with abrupt TPN cessation.
Identify that a backup supply of D10W must be available to maintain blood glucose levels if the primary TPN bag runs out.
Sudden discontinuation of high-dextrose TPN can trigger severe rebound hypoglycemia.
2
Assess the metabolic complications of continuous high-dextrose infusions.
Determine that frequent blood glucose monitoring (every 4 to 6 hours) is required to detect hyperglycemia.
The high carbohydrate load in TPN can overwhelm the pancreas, leading to elevated blood glucose regardless of diabetic history.
3
Analyze the infection control requirements for hyperalimentation and central venous catheters.
Confirm that TPN bags and tubing must be replaced every 24 hours, and that sterile technique is strictly required for central line dressing changes.
TPN solutions are ideal media for bacterial and fungal growth; strict asepsis and timely equipment changes prevent CLABSI.
4
Review safe administration principles for continuous parenteral therapy.
Determine that TPN rates should never be sped up to catch up, and that the TPN lumen must remain dedicated exclusively for nutrition.
Speeding up the rate causes hyperosmolar diuresis. Mixing medications in the TPN lumen causes dangerous incompatibilities.

Anahtar Kavram

Safe administration of Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN) requires strict infection control, frequent metabolic monitoring, and adherence to dedicated intravenous line protocols.
Soru 643Soru →

A client on the cardiac step-down unit requires a continuous intravenous infusion of procainamide to manage ventricular ectopy. The healthcare provider's prescription is for 2 mg/min2 \text{ mg/min}. The available premixed solution contains 2 g2 \text{ g} of procainamide in 500 mL500 \text{ mL} of 5%5\% dextrose in water. Calculate the required infusion rate in mL/hr\text{mL/hr}.

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Cevap: 30

Cevap

The correct infusion rate is 30 mL/hr.
To determine the correct infusion rate, the nurse must first align all units of measurement. The provided medication is in grams (2 g2 \text{ g}), which converts to 2000 mg2000 \text{ mg}. The concentration is then found by dividing 2000 mg2000 \text{ mg} by the volume of 500 mL500 \text{ mL}, yielding 4 mg/mL4 \text{ mg/mL}. Next, the prescribed dose of 2 mg/min2 \text{ mg/min} is multiplied by 60 minutes60 \text{ minutes} to determine the hourly requirement of 120 mg/hr120 \text{ mg/hr}. Finally, dividing the hourly requirement (120 mg/hr120 \text{ mg/hr}) by the concentration (4 mg/mL4 \text{ mg/mL}) gives the correct infusion rate of 30 mL/hr30 \text{ mL/hr}.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Convert the total drug amount from grams to milligrams.
2 g×1000 mg/g=2000 mg2 \text{ g} \times 1000 \text{ mg/g} = 2000 \text{ mg}
The prescribed dose is in milligrams, so the available medication must be converted to the same unit before calculating.
2
Calculate the concentration of the available intravenous solution.
2000 mg/500 mL=4 mg/mL2000 \text{ mg} / 500 \text{ mL} = 4 \text{ mg/mL}
Determining how many milligrams are in each milliliter is necessary to find the fluid volume needed per dose.
3
Convert the prescribed per-minute dose to an hourly dose.
2 mg/min×60 min/hr=120 mg/hr2 \text{ mg/min} \times 60 \text{ min/hr} = 120 \text{ mg/hr}
The final pump rate must be programmed in hours (mL/hr), so the hourly medication requirement must be found.
4
Calculate the final infusion rate by dividing the hourly dose by the concentration.
120 mg/hr/4 mg/mL=30 mL/hr120 \text{ mg/hr} / 4 \text{ mg/mL} = 30 \text{ mL/hr}
This yields the total volume of fluid that must be infused over one hour to deliver the prescribed milligrams.

Anahtar Kavram

Calculating continuous intravenous infusion rates (mL/hr) based on weight-independent dosage (mg/min).
Soru 644Soru →

A 54-year-old client with chronic hepatitis C has just arrived at the medical-surgical unit after undergoing a percutaneous liver biopsy. The client is alert and reports mild discomfort at the biopsy site. Initial vital signs are stable, with a blood pressure of 118/78 mm Hg, heart rate of 82 beats per minute, and oxygen saturation of 98% on room air. Which of the following actions is the priority to minimize the client's risk of immediate post-procedure complications?

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Cevap: Position the client in a right lateral decubitus position with a folded towel under the puncture site.

Cevap

Position the client in a right lateral decubitus position with a folded towel under the puncture site.
The liver is a highly vascular organ, and hemorrhage is the most critical risk following a percutaneous biopsy. Positioning the client on the right side (where the liver is located) with a folded towel or pillow underneath provides direct mechanical pressure to the puncture site, facilitating hemostasis and preventing bleeding.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the primary physiological risk associated with the diagnostic procedure.
A percutaneous liver biopsy involves puncturing a highly vascular organ. Therefore, the greatest immediate post-procedure risk is severe internal hemorrhage.
Understanding the specific risks of a procedure dictates the necessary preventive nursing interventions.
2
Evaluate the proposed interventions against the goal of preventing hemorrhage.
Right-sided positioning directly compresses the liver against the chest wall and mattress, facilitating hemostasis. The other options either fail to apply pressure, improperly delegate critical assessments, or misidentify the early signs of shock.
The nurse must select the action that directly mitigates the bleeding risk and aligns with safe, independent nursing practice.

Anahtar Kavram

Post-procedure risk mitigation for liver biopsy
Soru 645Soru →

A client with left-sided hemiparesis following a stroke is receiving assistance with morning activities. Which actions demonstrate correct principles of basic care, comfort, and mobility for this client? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

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Cevap: Positioning a wheelchair on the client's right, unaffected side prior to initiating a bed-to-chair transfer; Instructing the client to use their functional right arm to assist with washing their face and torso; Using a gait belt securely fastened around the client's waist when assisting with ambulation to the bathroom

Cevap

The correct actions include positioning the wheelchair on the unaffected side, encouraging the use of the functional arm for self-care, and using a gait belt during ambulation.
The correct interventions prioritize client safety, promote independence, and utilize standard precautions. Transferring toward the strong side leverages the client's functional ability, encouraging self-care maintains mobility, and using a gait belt prevents falls during ambulation without risking joint damage.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's specific physical limitations based on the clinical scenario.
The client has left-sided weakness, meaning the right side remains strong and functional.
Understanding the precise neurological deficit is essential for planning safe mobility and hygiene care.
2
Evaluate the proposed positioning and transfer techniques against safety standards.
Transfers must occur toward the strong side to utilize the client's weight-bearing ability, and pulling on weak limbs must be strictly avoided to prevent joint subluxation.
Proper body mechanics and joint protection are core components of basic care and mobility assistance.
3
Assess the delegation and post-meal care tasks for appropriateness.
Clinical assessments cannot be delegated to unlicensed staff, and the head of the bed must remain elevated after eating.
Ensuring safe delegation within the scope of practice and adhering to aspiration precautions are vital nursing responsibilities.

Anahtar Kavram

Promoting independence and maintaining safety during mobility, hygiene, and nutrition for a client with unilateral weakness.
Soru 646Soru →

A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving intravenous morphine via a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump following orthopedic surgery. Upon entering the room, the nurse observes that the client is somnolent, has a respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min, and an oxygen saturation of 87% on room air. Which of the following immediate actions should the nurse take? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

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Cevap: Stop the morphine infusion on the PCA pump.; Administer the prescribed dose of intravenous naloxone.; Apply supplemental oxygen using an appropriate delivery device.; Attempt to physically arouse the client and instruct them to take deep breaths.

Cevap

The correct actions are to stop the PCA pump, administer naloxone, apply supplemental oxygen, and physically arouse the client.
The client is experiencing acute opioid toxicity characterized by central nervous system and respiratory depression. According to the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) of prioritization, immediate interventions must focus on restoring adequate ventilation and oxygenation. Stopping the continuous opioid infusion prevents further toxicity. Administering naloxone, an opioid antagonist, rapidly reverses the respiratory depression. Applying supplemental oxygen treats the severe hypoxia. Physically arousing the client and encouraging deep breathing provides immediate, temporary support of respiratory effort while the naloxone takes effect.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation.
The client is somnolent with a respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min and an oxygen saturation of 87%.
Identifying signs of acute opioid toxicity, such as profound respiratory depression and hypoxia, is the critical first step in clinical judgment.
2
Determine priority interventions based on the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation).
Interventions must immediately halt the source of toxicity, reverse the drug effects, and support oxygenation.
Failure to rapidly address severe respiratory depression can lead to respiratory arrest, hypoxic brain injury, and death.

Anahtar Kavram

Management of opioid-induced respiratory depression and patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) safety.
Soru 647Soru →

A client is transferred back to the medical unit following a percutaneous liver biopsy. The nurse is assisting the client into bed. To minimize the risk of post-procedure hemorrhage, which position should the nurse place the client in?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Right lateral decubitus position with a small towel under the puncture site

Cevap

The client should be placed in the right side-lying (right lateral decubitus) position with a small towel or pillow under the puncture site.
Following a percutaneous liver biopsy, the most significant immediate risk is hemorrhage due to the high vascularity of the liver. Because the liver is located on the right side of the abdomen, placing the client in a right side-lying (right lateral decubitus) position with a towel or small pillow under the puncture site is essential. This position utilizes the client's own body weight to apply direct, continuous mechanical pressure to the liver capsule, which promotes hemostasis and significantly reduces the risk of internal bleeding.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the anatomical location of the liver.
The liver is a highly vascular organ situated in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen.
Understanding the anatomy dictates where pressure must be applied.
2
Determine the primary post-procedure complication.
The most significant immediate risk following a liver biopsy is internal hemorrhage.
The liver's extensive blood supply makes it prone to bleeding when punctured.
3
Select the position that mitigates this risk.
Positioning the client on their right side uses body weight to apply direct pressure to the liver capsule.
Mechanical compression at the puncture site promotes blood clotting and reduces bleeding risk.

Anahtar Kavram

Post-Liver Biopsy Positioning
Soru 648Soru →

A nurse is caring for a client receiving a packed red blood cell (PRBC) transfusion. Fifteen minutes into the transfusion, the client reports sudden chills, severe lower back pain, and shortness of breath. In what chronological order should the nurse perform the following actions to reduce the risk of further physiological deterioration? Arrange the actions from first to last.

Öğeleri doğru sıraya koymak için sürükleyin

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Cevap

The correct sequence is: Stop the transfusion, replace the IV tubing with normal saline, assess the client, notify the provider and blood bank, and finally return the blood products to the blood bank.
In any severe adverse reaction, the immediate priority is to stop the offending agent. Following cessation, maintaining vascular access with new tubing and normal saline ensures the client can receive emergency treatments without receiving more blood. Only after stabilizing the line should the nurse assess the client fully to gather data for the provider. Notification follows assessment, and administrative tasks (returning the bag for investigation) are completed last.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Stop the blood transfusion immediately.
The flow of incompatible blood into the client is halted.
This is the most critical first step to minimize the severity of the acute hemolytic reaction and prevent further physiological deterioration.
2
Replace the IV tubing and infuse 0.9% sodium chloride.
Intravenous access is maintained without administering additional blood.
Flushing the existing tubing would push more blood into the client. New tubing ensures safety while keeping the vein open for emergency medications.
3
Assess the client's vital signs and clinical status.
Current physiological data (blood pressure, oxygenation, heart rate) is obtained.
The nurse needs accurate, up-to-date assessment data to effectively communicate the client's condition to the healthcare provider.
4
Notify the primary healthcare provider and the blood bank.
The medical team is alerted and treatment orders can be obtained.
The provider must prescribe interventions (e.g., oxygen, fluids, diuretics, vasopressors) to manage the systemic reaction.
5
Return the blood bag and tubing to the blood bank.
The blood products are prepared for investigation.
The blood bank must analyze the remaining blood, tubing, and records to determine the exact cause of the adverse reaction.

Anahtar Kavram

Management of acute hemolytic transfusion reactions prioritizes immediately stopping the causative agent, maintaining hemodynamic stability, and communicating findings.
Soru 649Soru →

A nurse is preparing to administer ondansetron 4 mg4 \text{ mg} via intravenous (IV) push to a client experiencing nausea. The medication vial is labeled 2 mg/mL2 \text{ mg/mL}. How many milliliters (mL) should the nurse administer?

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Cevap: 2 mL2 \text{ mL}

Cevap

2 mL2 \text{ mL}
The correct volume is calculated by taking the desired dose (4 mg4 \text{ mg}), dividing it by the available concentration (2 mg2 \text{ mg}), and multiplying by the volume (1 mL1 \text{ mL}). This mathematically evaluates to 2 mL2 \text{ mL}, which is the correct volume to administer the prescribed dose.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the prescribed dose (Desired) and the available concentration (Have).
Desired = 4 mg4 \text{ mg}, Have = 2 mg2 \text{ mg} in 1 mL1 \text{ mL}.
These values are needed for the standard dosage calculation formula.
2
Apply the dosage calculation formula: (Desired / Have) ×\times Volume.
(4 mg/2 mg)×1 mL=2 mL(4 \text{ mg} / 2 \text{ mg}) \times 1 \text{ mL} = 2 \text{ mL}.
This determines the exact volume of medication to administer to deliver the prescribed dose safely.

Anahtar Kavram

Intravenous Medication Dosage Calculation
Soru 650Soru →

A nurse is preparing to administer an initial intravenous (IV) loading dose of phenytoin to a client diagnosed with a seizure disorder. The client has an existing continuous IV infusion of 5% dextrose in water (D5W) running at 75 mL/hr. Which action should the nurse take to ensure safe administration of the medication?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Pause the primary infusion and flush the line with 0.9% sodium chloride before and after administering the medication.

Cevap

Pause the primary infusion and flush the line with 0.9% sodium chloride before and after administering the medication.
Phenytoin is strictly incompatible with dextrose solutions such as D5W. When mixed, the medication will rapidly crystallize and precipitate in the IV tubing. To administer the medication safely, the nurse must pause the dextrose infusion and flush the line thoroughly with a compatible solution, specifically 0.9% sodium chloride (normal saline), both before and after the phenytoin is given.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the compatibility of the prescribed medication (phenytoin) with the current continuous IV fluid (5% dextrose in water).
Determine that phenytoin is highly incompatible with dextrose-containing solutions and will precipitate if mixed.
Administering incompatible medications together can cause crystallization in the IV line, creating an embolism risk and rendering the medication ineffective.
2
Determine the appropriate intervention to administer the medication safely through the existing IV access.
Decide to pause the dextrose infusion and clear the line.
The line must be completely free of dextrose before the phenytoin is introduced.
3
Select the correct flush solution to use before and after the medication administration.
Select 0.9% sodium chloride (normal saline) to flush the IV tubing.
Normal saline is the only widely accepted compatible IV fluid for phenytoin administration.

Anahtar Kavram

Phenytoin Intravenous Compatibility and Administration Principles
Soru 651Soru →

A nurse is evaluating a client who has been receiving continuous nasogastric (NG) suctioning for 3 days due to a paralytic ileus. The client reports new-onset severe muscle cramping and palpitations. The cardiac monitor displays frequent premature ventricular contractions (PVCs). The client's respiratory rate is 10 breaths/min and shallow. Arterial blood gas (ABG) results are: pH 7.54, PaCO2 49 mm Hg, PaO2 88 mm Hg, and HCO3 35 mEq/L. To reduce the risk of impending physiological decompensation, which action is the nurse's priority?

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Cevap: Initiate a prescribed intravenous potassium chloride protocol.

Cevap

The correct action is to initiate a prescribed intravenous potassium chloride protocol.
The client is experiencing metabolic alkalosis resulting from the loss of gastric acid via prolonged nasogastric suctioning. Gastric secretions are rich in both hydrogen and potassium ions; therefore, significant depletion leads to severe hypokalemia. The client's symptoms of muscle cramping, palpitations, and frequent premature ventricular contractions (PVCs) are classic signs of hypokalemia and represent an immediate, life-threatening risk for lethal ventricular dysrhythmias. The priority action is to stabilize the myocardium by initiating a prescribed potassium chloride replacement protocol. The client's decreased respiratory rate and elevated PaCO2 represent an expected and necessary compensatory mechanism to retain acid and lower the blood pH.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the arterial blood gas (ABG) results and clinical presentation.
The ABG reveals metabolic alkalosis (pH 7.54, HCO3 35 mEq/L) with partial respiratory compensation (PaCO2 49 mm Hg). The clinical signs (muscle cramping, palpitations, PVCs) strongly indicate severe hypokalemia.
Prolonged nasogastric suctioning removes hydrochloric acid and potassium from the stomach, leading to an alkalotic state and severe potassium depletion.
2
Identify the most immediate life-threatening risk to the client.
The frequent premature ventricular contractions (PVCs) indicate a high risk for lethal ventricular dysrhythmias.
Hypokalemia increases myocardial excitability, making the heart vulnerable to fatal arrhythmias like ventricular tachycardia or ventricular fibrillation.
3
Determine the priority nursing action based on the physiological risk.
The nurse must prioritize administering potassium chloride.
Replacing potassium directly addresses the immediate cardiac threat and stabilizes the myocardial cells, which takes precedence over other non-emergent interventions.

Anahtar Kavram

Identifying and managing fluid, electrolyte, and acid-base imbalances associated with therapeutic procedures to prevent life-threatening cardiac complications.
Tahmini Süre:2m 0s
Soru 652Soru →

A nurse is preparing to administer sodium nitroprusside to a client experiencing a hypertensive emergency. The client weighs 78 kg78 \text{ kg}. The prescribed continuous intravenous infusion rate is 4 mcg/kg/min4 \text{ mcg/kg/min}. The pharmacy provides a prepared IV bag containing 50 mg50 \text{ mg} of sodium nitroprusside in 250 mL250 \text{ mL} of 5%5\% dextrose in water (D5W).

Calculate the required infusion pump rate in mL/hr\text{mL/hr}. (Record your answer to the nearest whole number.)

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: 94

Cevap

94
To determine the correct infusion pump rate, the calculation must account for the client's weight, the desired dose per minute, the time conversion to hours, and the available concentration of the medication. The calculation requires converting the prescribed 4 mcg/kg/min4 \text{ mcg/kg/min} to an hourly rate based on the 78 kg78 \text{ kg} weight, resulting in 18,720 mcg/hr18,720 \text{ mcg/hr}. The available concentration is calculated by converting 50 mg50 \text{ mg} to 50,000 mcg50,000 \text{ mcg} and dividing by 250 mL250 \text{ mL}, which is 200 mcg/mL200 \text{ mcg/mL}. Dividing the hourly dose by the concentration yields the required volume of 93.6 mL/hr93.6 \text{ mL/hr}, which rounds to 94 mL/hr94 \text{ mL/hr}.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Calculate the total required dose in micrograms per minute.
4 mcg/kg/min×78 kg=312 mcg/min4 \text{ mcg/kg/min} \times 78 \text{ kg} = 312 \text{ mcg/min}
To determine the specific amount of medication the client needs every minute based on their body weight.
2
Convert the required dose from micrograms per minute to micrograms per hour.
312 mcg/min×60 minutes/hr=18,720 mcg/hr312 \text{ mcg/min} \times 60 \text{ minutes/hr} = 18,720 \text{ mcg/hr}
Infusion pumps are programmed in mL/hr\text{mL/hr}, so the total dose required per hour must be established before finding the fluid volume.
3
Determine the concentration of the provided IV solution in micrograms per milliliter.
50 mg=50,000 mcg50 \text{ mg} = 50,000 \text{ mcg}. Then, 50,000 mcg÷250 mL=200 mcg/mL50,000 \text{ mcg} \div 250 \text{ mL} = 200 \text{ mcg/mL}
To find out exactly how much medication is contained in a single milliliter of the provided IV fluid.
4
Calculate the exact infusion pump rate.
18,720 mcg/hr÷200 mcg/mL=93.6 mL/hr18,720 \text{ mcg/hr} \div 200 \text{ mcg/mL} = 93.6 \text{ mL/hr}
Dividing the hourly dose by the concentration yields the exact volume of fluid that must be delivered per hour.
5
Round the calculated infusion rate as directed in the question.
Round 93.693.6 to the nearest whole number, resulting in 9494.
The question explicitly requires the final answer to be recorded to the nearest whole number.

Anahtar Kavram

Weight-based intravenous medication dosage calculation converting mcg/kg/min to mL/hr.
Soru 653Soru →

A 78-year-old client with advanced Alzheimer's disease, severe kyphosis, and a recent right hemispheric stroke resulting in right homonymous hemianopsia and dysphagia is admitted to a palliative care unit. The client is completely bedbound, non-verbal, and grimaces frequently when turned. When planning the client's basic care and comfort interventions, which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care? (Select all that apply.)

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Position the overbed table and initiate communication primarily from the client's left side to accommodate the visual field deficit.; Support the client's head, neck, and upper shoulders with customized pillow placement when lying supine to accommodate the altered spinal curvature.; Perform oral hygiene using a soft suction toothbrush, carefully inspecting the buccal mucosa for pocketed food after every meal.

Cevap

The correct basic care interventions include approaching the client from their unaffected visual field (the left side), supporting their kyphotic spinal curvature with customized pillows, and performing meticulous oral care with buccal inspections to clear pocketed food.
For a client with right homonymous hemianopsia, the right half of the visual field is absent; therefore, the nurse must approach and place objects on the unaffected left side to prevent startling the client. Severe kyphosis alters the spine's natural alignment; forcing the client flat can cause severe discomfort and compromise the airway, requiring the head and neck to be supported with pillows. Dysphagia following a stroke often leads to food pocketing in the cheeks on the affected side, requiring meticulous oral care with a suction toothbrush to prevent the delayed aspiration of residual food.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the neurological deficits (right homonymous hemianopsia and dysphagia) to determine safe interaction and hygiene practices.
The nurse must approach from the left side where vision is intact, and use a suction toothbrush to clear pocketed food, preventing aspiration.
Neurological deficits directly impact how a client interacts with their environment and their ability to swallow safely.
2
Evaluate the musculoskeletal status (severe kyphosis) to guide positioning.
The head and neck must be supported with pillows when supine to maintain the kyphotic curvature.
Forcing a kyphotic spine flat against a bed causes severe musculoskeletal pain and airway compromise due to extreme neck extension.
3
Assess the behavioral indicators of pain in the context of dementia.
Grimacing must be recognized as acute pain requiring intervention, not dismissed as normal aging.
Clients with advanced Alzheimer's cannot verbalize pain; behavioral cues are reliable indicators of distress.
4
Review skin integrity guidelines and delegation rules for high-risk clients.
Donut cushions are contraindicated for pressure relief, and feeding a dysphagic stroke client cannot be delegated to a UAP.
Donut cushions cause tissue ischemia. UAPs lack the clinical judgment to assess swallowing mechanisms and early signs of aspiration.

Anahtar Kavram

Complex Synthesis of Basic Care and Comfort in Geriatric Neurological Clients
Soru 654Soru →

A surgical unit nurse is evaluating the clinical status of four clients who recently underwent major abdominal procedures. Based on the documented assessments, which client finding should the nurse recognize as the earliest physiological indicator of a developing hemorrhagic shock state?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: A resting heart rate increasing from 7676 to 9898 beats per minute and a progressively narrowing pulse pressure

Cevap

The earliest indicator is a resting heart rate increasing from 76 to 98 beats per minute and a progressively narrowing pulse pressure.
During the initial (compensated) stage of hemorrhagic shock, the body's physiological adaptation involves activating the sympathetic nervous system to maintain adequate tissue perfusion. This response triggers peripheral vasoconstriction (which elevates diastolic pressure and narrows the pulse pressure) and an increased heart rate to sustain cardiac output long before the systolic blood pressure drops.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the physiological phases of hemorrhagic shock.
Identify that the initial (compensatory) stage involves sympathetic nervous system activation to maintain cardiac output before blood pressure falls.
Understanding the timeline of shock progression is necessary to distinguish early signs from late decompensation.
2
Evaluate the clinical findings in each option against the compensatory shock phase.
Tachycardia and a narrowing pulse pressure match the expected peripheral vasoconstriction of the compensatory phase.
Vasoconstriction raises diastolic blood pressure, narrowing the gap between systolic and diastolic values (pulse pressure) while the heart pumps faster to compensate for volume loss.
3
Rule out alternative distractors reflecting late shock, normal findings, or positional changes.
Severe hypotension is a late sign, the ABG values are entirely normal, and orthostatic changes upon standing are expected positional responses.
Eliminating findings that do not fit the specific criteria of 'earliest systemic shock indicator' confirms the correct choice.

Anahtar Kavram

Early Compensatory Mechanisms in Hypovolemic/Hemorrhagic Shock
Soru 655Soru →

Following an admission for severe pneumonia, a client's clinical status begins to deteriorate. Which of the following initial assessment findings should alert the nurse to the early development of septic shock?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Warm, flushed skin with a bounding pulse

Cevap

Warm, flushed skin with a bounding pulse
The early phase of septic shock, known as the 'warm phase,' is characterized by a hyperdynamic cardiovascular response. Systemic inflammatory mediators cause massive vasodilation, resulting in warm, flushed skin, tachycardia, and bounding pulses. This is a unique physiological adaptation distinct from the initial presentations of other shock types.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's condition and the specific stage of the complication being asked.
The client has severe pneumonia and is at risk for septic shock. The question specifically asks for 'early' signs.
Different stages of shock present with distinct physiological signs.
2
Recall the pathophysiology of early septic shock.
Early septic shock is unique because endotoxins cause massive systemic vasodilation while the heart initially compensates by pumping harder (hyperdynamic state).
Understanding the mechanism helps differentiate early septic shock from hypovolemic or cardiogenic shock.
3
Correlate the pathophysiological changes with observable clinical findings.
Massive vasodilation with high cardiac output manifests clinically as warm, flushed skin, tachycardia, and a bounding pulse.
This contrasts with the late phase of shock, where the heart begins to fail and the skin becomes cold and clammy.

Anahtar Kavram

Early Septic Shock Presentation
Soru 656Soru →

A nurse is evaluating the most recent arterial blood gas (ABG) results for a client who was admitted with a severe asthma exacerbation. The results are: pH 7.28, PaCO2 56 mm Hg, and HCO3 24 mEq/L. Which of the following acid-base imbalances should the nurse identify?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Uncompensated respiratory acidosis

Cevap

Uncompensated respiratory acidosis
The client's pH is below the normal range (7.35-7.45), indicating acidosis. The PaCO2 is elevated above the normal range (35-45 mm Hg), which points to a respiratory cause. The bicarbonate (HCO3) level is within the normal range (22-26 mEq/L), meaning the kidneys have not yet begun to compensate. Therefore, the results definitively indicate uncompensated respiratory acidosis.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Evaluate the pH level to determine if the client is in acidosis or alkalosis.
The pH is 7.28, which is less than the normal range of 7.35 to 7.45, indicating acidosis.
Determining the primary acid-base status is the first step in ABG interpretation.
2
Evaluate the PaCO2 level to determine if the cause is respiratory.
The PaCO2 is 56 mm Hg, which is greater than the normal range of 35 to 45 mm Hg, indicating a respiratory etiology for the acidosis.
Identifying whether the respiratory parameter aligns with the pH abnormality determines if it is a primary respiratory issue.
3
Evaluate the HCO3 level to determine if the body has begun to compensate.
The HCO3 is 24 mEq/L, which is within the normal range of 22 to 26 mEq/L.
A normal metabolic parameter in the presence of an abnormal pH and respiratory parameter indicates that renal compensation has not yet occurred.

Anahtar Kavram

Interpretation of uncompensated arterial blood gas (ABG) values
Soru 657Soru →

A nurse is inserting a nasogastric (NG) tube for enteral nutrition in an alert adult client. Arrange the following procedural steps in the exact chronological sequence to ensure safe insertion and minimize the risk of tracheal intubation.

Öğeleri doğru sıraya koymak için sürükleyin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

The correct sequence for nasogastric tube insertion is: measuring the tube length (NEX method), positioning the neck in hyperextension for initial nasal insertion, flexing the neck forward once the oropharynx is reached, advancing the tube during active swallowing, and finally securing the tube and confirming placement via radiograph.
The correct sequence prioritizes anatomical alignment and airway protection. Measurement (NEX method) establishes the depth baseline. Initial neck hyperextension aligns the nasal passage for the tube's entry. Once the tube hits the posterior pharynx (oropharynx), switching to neck flexion (chin-to-chest) is critical as it closes the epiglottis, shielding the trachea. Advancing specifically during swallowing capitalizes on natural esophageal peristalsis. Finally, securing the tube and obtaining an x-ray is the universal standard for verifying safe gastric placement before use.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Measure the tube from the tip of the nose to the earlobe, and then to the xiphoid process.
The target insertion depth is established.
Determining the correct length ensures the tube reaches the stomach rather than remaining in the esophagus or coiling.
2
Instruct the client to extend their neck backward as the tube is inserted into the naris.
The tube passes smoothly through the nasal cavity.
Neck hyperextension straightens the nasopharyngeal pathway, reducing resistance and mucosal trauma.
3
Stop advancement at the oropharynx and instruct the client to bring their chin to their chest.
The epiglottis closes over the larynx.
Forward flexion physically blocks the airway (trachea), directing the tube toward the posterior esophagus.
4
Advance the tube steadily while the client swallows small sips of water.
The tube reaches the predetermined measurement mark.
Swallowing peristalsis pulls the tube downward while the elevated larynx further protects the airway.
5
Secure the tube and prepare for an abdominal radiograph.
The procedure is safely concluded pending confirmation.
Radiographic confirmation is the only definitive method to ensure gastric, rather than pulmonary, placement before feeding.

Anahtar Kavram

Safe anatomical insertion of a nasogastric (NG) tube utilizes specific dynamic client head positions—initial hyperextension followed by flexion—to bypass the airway and safely access the gastrointestinal tract.
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 658Soru →

A client is admitted to the telemetry unit immediately after undergoing a cardiac catheterization using the right femoral artery approach. Which actions are essential for the nurse to take to minimize the risk of complications? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Evaluate the right pedal pulse and capillary refill.; Keep the client's right lower extremity completely straight.; Inspect the groin puncture site for any signs of bleeding or swelling.

Cevap

The essential actions are to evaluate the distal pulses and capillary refill, keep the affected leg straight, and inspect the puncture site for bleeding or swelling.
Minimizing complications after a femoral cardiac catheterization requires interventions focused on maintaining hemostasis and ensuring adequate distal tissue perfusion. Evaluating distal pulses and inspecting the puncture site allow for the early detection of arterial occlusion or bleeding. Keeping the affected leg straight prevents the dislodgement of the clot at the femoral artery site.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the procedure and the specific access site.
The client had a cardiac catheterization via the right femoral artery.
The access site determines the specific post-procedure positioning and monitoring requirements needed to prevent hemorrhage.
2
Determine the priority assessments and interventions for this specific site.
The client requires frequent site checks, distal neurovascular assessments, and the affected leg must remain straight.
These actions directly monitor for and prevent the most common complications: bleeding, hematoma formation, and arterial occlusion.
3
Evaluate each option against safe post-procedure protocols.
Elevating the head of the bed too high, delegating the initial assessment, and ignoring early signs of shock are identified as unsafe actions.
These incorrect actions violate fundamental principles of proper positioning, safe delegation, and the early recognition of complications.

Anahtar Kavram

Post-Cardiac Catheterization Care and Complication Prevention
Soru 659Soru →

A nurse is preparing to change the bed linens for a 78-year-old client who is receiving continuous enteral nutrition via a nasogastric (NG) tube. The client must be temporarily placed in a flat, supine position to allow the nurse to safely roll them side-to-side. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Stop the continuous enteral feeding infusion before lowering the client to a supine position.

Cevap

The nurse must stop the continuous enteral feeding infusion before lowering the client to a supine position.
When a client receiving continuous enteral tube feedings must be placed supine for basic care procedures such as a bed bath or linen change, the priority action is to pause the feeding pump. This is an essential safety measure to prevent the regurgitation of gastric contents and subsequent aspiration into the lungs. The feeding should remain paused until the head of the bed can be safely elevated back to at least 30 to 45 degrees.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the client's current therapy and basic care needs.
The client is receiving continuous enteral tube feedings and requires a linen change, which necessitates lying flat.
Understanding the interaction between the medical intervention and the required care procedure highlights potential safety risks.
2
Recognize the safety risk associated with positioning during enteral feedings.
Lying flat while receiving enteral feeding significantly increases the risk of gastric reflux and pulmonary aspiration.
Standard practice dictates maintaining the head of the bed at 30 to 45 degrees during feedings.
3
Determine the necessary nursing intervention to mitigate the risk.
The feeding pump must be paused before lowering the head of the bed.
Pausing the feeding ensures no new volume is introduced into the stomach while the client is flat, protecting the airway during the basic care procedure.

Anahtar Kavram

Aspiration Prevention during Basic Care
Soru 660Soru →

A nurse is caring for a client with a deep vein thrombosis who is receiving a continuous intravenous (IV) infusion of heparin via a single-lumen peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC). The client suddenly reports severe nausea and vomits dark, coffee-ground emesis. The client's most recent activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is 125 seconds125 \text{ seconds}. The healthcare provider prescribes a stat dose of IV pantoprazole 40 mg40 \text{ mg}. Which sequence of actions is the most appropriate for the nurse to perform?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Immediately stop the heparin infusion, aspirate residual medication from the PICC lumen, flush with 10 mL10 \text{ mL} of 0.9% sodium chloride0.9\% \text{ sodium chloride}, and administer the pantoprazole.

Cevap

The nurse must immediately stop the heparin, aspirate the PICC to remove residual drug, flush with normal saline, and then administer the pantoprazole.
The client is presenting with active gastrointestinal bleeding and a critically supratherapeutic aPTT of 125 seconds125 \text{ seconds} (therapeutic is typically 40−75 seconds40-75 \text{ seconds}). The highest priority is to immediately discontinue the heparin infusion to prevent further hemorrhage. Because a PICC lumen contains dead space filled with the heparin solution, the nurse must aspirate the residual medication; flushing without aspirating would inadvertently administer a bolus of the concentrated anticoagulant directly into the client's circulation. Finally, pantoprazole is chemically incompatible with heparin and requires a thoroughly flushed line (0.9% sodium chloride0.9\% \text{ sodium chloride}) before administration to prevent drug precipitation.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the clinical data.
The client has a panic-level aPTT (125 seconds125 \text{ seconds}) and signs of active gastrointestinal bleeding (coffee-ground emesis).
To determine the client's physiological stability and identify the immediate life-threatening risk.
2
Prioritize the primary nursing intervention.
The continuous heparin infusion must be stopped immediately.
To halt the exogenous source of the coagulopathy that is causing the active hemorrhage.
3
Determine the safe parenteral administration technique for the central line.
The PICC lumen must be aspirated before it is flushed.
Central lines contain dead space that holds residual medication. Aspirating prevents inadvertently flushing a bolus of heparin into the systemic circulation of a bleeding client.
4
Evaluate drug-drug compatibility.
Pantoprazole and heparin are chemically incompatible.
To ensure the central line is thoroughly flushed with 0.9% sodium chloride0.9\% \text{ sodium chloride} before and after the pantoprazole is administered, preventing precipitation.

Anahtar Kavram

Management of life-threatening adverse medication reactions and central line compatibility protocols.
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