Physiological Integrity

1960 soru

Soru 121Soru →

A nurse is monitoring a client who sustained a closed femur fracture and pelvic contusions following a motor vehicle collision. Serial assessments over a three-hour period reveal the following trends:

Parameter14:0015:0016:00
Blood Pressure124/72 mm Hg118/78 mm Hg110/86 mm Hg
Heart Rate76 beats/min88 beats/min104 beats/min
Respiratory Rate14 breaths/min18 breaths/min24 breaths/min
Hourly Urine Output55 mL40 mL25 mL
Neurological StatusAlert and orientedAlert, appropriately anxiousRestless and agitated

Based on the physiological mechanisms underlying these assessment trends, which action should the nurse prioritize?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Ensure the patency of large-bore intravenous access and verify the availability of crossmatched blood.

Cevap

Ensure the patency of large-bore intravenous access and verify the availability of crossmatched blood.
The client is exhibiting classic signs of the compensatory stage of hypovolemic (hemorrhagic) shock due to internal bleeding from the femur and pelvic fractures. The sympathetic nervous system responds to volume loss by inducing peripheral vasoconstriction, which raises the diastolic pressure and narrows the pulse pressure (from 52 mm Hg to 24 mm Hg). This vasoconstriction temporarily maintains the mean arterial pressure (MAP). However, the rising heart rate, increasing respiratory rate, dropping urine output (due to renal conservation of water), and new-onset restlessness (indicating mild cerebral hypoxia) confirm inadequate tissue perfusion. The priority action is to prepare for immediate intravascular volume expansion with crystalloids and blood products to prevent progression to decompensated, irreversible shock.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the blood pressure trend to identify the pulse pressure and mean arterial pressure (MAP).
The pulse pressure narrows significantly from 52 mm Hg (124-72) to 24 mm Hg (110-86). The MAP remains relatively stable (around 89 to 94 mm Hg).
A narrowing pulse pressure with a maintained MAP is a hallmark sign of compensatory vasoconstriction in early shock.
2
Correlate the blood pressure findings with the heart rate, respiratory rate, and urine output.
Mild tachycardia (104 beats/min), tachypnea (24 breaths/min), and oliguria (25 mL/hr) are present.
The sympathetic nervous system increases the heart and respiratory rates while the kidneys conserve fluid (via aldosterone and ADH release) to maintain cardiac output.
3
Evaluate the change in neurological status within the context of the physical trauma.
The transition from alert to restless/agitated indicates decreasing cerebral perfusion.
Femur and pelvic fractures can conceal massive internal hemorrhage. The clinical picture confirms the compensatory stage of hypovolemic shock.
4
Determine the priority nursing intervention for compensatory hemorrhagic shock.
The priority is rapid restoration of circulating volume.
Large-bore intravenous access and blood products are essential to treat the underlying hemorrhage before the client decompensates into irreversible shock.

Anahtar Kavram

Recognition of early (compensatory) hemorrhagic shock through subtle vital sign trends, specifically a narrowing pulse pressure, despite a seemingly normal mean arterial pressure.
Tahmini Süre:2m 0s
Soru 122Soru →

A triage nurse in the emergency department receives a 4545-year-old client who was rescued from an enclosed structural fire. The client sustained deep partial-thickness and full-thickness burns to the face, anterior chest, and bilateral entire upper extremities.

The nurse assesses the following initial clinical data:

ParameterValue
Blood Pressure84/52 mmHg84/52\text{ mmHg}
Heart Rate136 beats/min136\text{ beats/min}
Respiratory Rate28 breaths/min28\text{ breaths/min}
SpO2SpO_298%98\% on room air
pH7.327.32
PaCO2PaCO_234 mmHg34\text{ mmHg}
PaO2PaO_292 mmHg92\text{ mmHg}
HCO3−HCO_3^-18 mEq/L18\text{ mEq/L}
Carboxyhemoglobin (COHbCOHb)22%22\%

Physical assessment reveals a hoarse voice, singed nasal hairs, and carbonaceous sputum.

Which interventions should the nurse anticipate incorporating into the immediate plan of care? (Select all that apply)

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Prepare equipment for rapid sequence endotracheal intubation.; Initiate continuous 100%100\% oxygen via a tight-fitting non-rebreather mask.; Insert an indwelling urinary catheter to continuously monitor hourly urine output.

Cevap

The correct interventions are preparing for rapid sequence intubation, administering continuous 100% oxygen via a non-rebreather mask, and inserting an indwelling urinary catheter.
The client is exhibiting classical signs of severe inhalation injury (hoarse voice, singed nasal hairs, carbonaceous sputum, and a history of an enclosed space fire). Prophylactic rapid sequence intubation is required before profound airway edema causes complete obstruction. Furthermore, the client has carbon monoxide poisoning, indicated by a carboxyhemoglobin level of 22%. Because standard pulse oximetry cannot differentiate between oxyhemoglobin and carboxyhemoglobin, the oxygen saturation reading of 98% is falsely reassuring. The standard treatment for carbon monoxide toxicity is the immediate application of 100% oxygen via a non-rebreather mask (prior to intubation) to rapidly decrease the half-life of the carboxyhemoglobin. Lastly, aggressive fluid resuscitation is required to combat hypovolemic burn shock. An indwelling urinary catheter is essential because hourly urine output is the most reliable physiological indicator of adequate tissue perfusion and fluid resuscitation.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the primary survey and airway security.
The client has facial burns, singed nasal hairs, hoarseness, and carbonaceous sputum, all indicating impending airway loss.
Airway protection takes absolute priority in emergency burn management, especially with evident inhalation injuries.
2
Evaluate the arterial blood gas and oxygenation status.
Despite a normal pulse oximetry reading of 98%, the carboxyhemoglobin is dangerously elevated at 22%, indicating severe carbon monoxide poisoning.
Standard pulse oximetry cannot distinguish between oxygen and carbon monoxide bound to hemoglobin, necessitating 100% oxygen therapy to reduce the half-life of carboxyhemoglobin.
3
Assess the client's hemodynamic status and perfusion.
The client is in hypovolemic (burn) shock, evidenced by a blood pressure of 84/52 mmHg and a heart rate of 136 beats/min.
Massive fluid shifts into the interstitial space occur rapidly after severe burns, requiring aggressive, calculated fluid resuscitation.
4
Determine the prioritized nursing interventions based on the assessment.
The immediate needs are prophylactic intubation, 100% oxygen administration, and strict intake and output monitoring via a urinary catheter.
These actions directly address the life-threatening airway compromise, cellular hypoxia, and evaluation of fluid resuscitation adequacy.

Anahtar Kavram

Burn Shock Resuscitation and Inhalation Injury Management
Tahmini Süre:3m 0s
Soru 123Soru →

An intensive care nurse evaluates a mechanically ventilated client 2424 hours post-splenectomy who received a massive transfusion protocol for hemorrhagic shock. Over the last two hours, the client's urine output decreased to 10 mL/hr10\text{ mL/hr}, peak inspiratory pressure (PIP) increased from 24 cm H2O24\text{ cm H}_2\text{O} to 52 cm H2O52\text{ cm H}_2\text{O}, and blood pressure dropped from 118/72 mm Hg118/72\text{ mm Hg} to 82/46 mm Hg82/46\text{ mm Hg}. The current central venous pressure (CVP) is 21 mm Hg21\text{ mm Hg}. Which action should the nurse take first?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Measure intra-abdominal pressure using the indwelling urinary catheter system.

Cevap

Measure intra-abdominal pressure using the indwelling urinary catheter system.
The client's clinical presentation—severe oliguria, drastically elevated peak inspiratory pressures, hypotension, and a high central venous pressure following massive fluid resuscitation—is the hallmark triad of Abdominal Compartment Syndrome (ACS). Fluid resuscitation causes massive third-spacing and bowel edema, raising intra-abdominal pressure. This pressure compresses the renal vasculature (decreasing urine output), compresses the inferior vena cava (decreasing venous return and cardiac output, resulting in hypotension), and displaces the diaphragm upward, which increases intrathoracic pressure (manifesting as elevated PIP and a falsely elevated CVP). The immediate priority is to measure intra-abdominal pressure via the bladder catheter to confirm the diagnosis and prepare for decompression.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's hemodynamic and respiratory trends.
The client is experiencing severe oliguria, hypotension, drastically elevated PIP, and elevated CVP after massive fluid resuscitation.
Identifying the pattern of multi-system decompensation is required to pinpoint the underlying etiology.
2
Synthesize the pathophysiological findings.
The massive fluid load caused bowel edema (third-spacing), severely increasing intra-abdominal pressure. This pressure compresses the renal arteries (oliguria), compresses the inferior vena cava (reduced venous return leading to hypotension), and pushes the diaphragm upward into the thoracic cavity (high PIP and falsely elevated CVP).
Connecting these specific signs points directly to Abdominal Compartment Syndrome (ACS) leading to obstructive shock.
3
Determine the priority nursing intervention.
The priority is to objectively measure the intra-abdominal pressure (IAP) via the bladder to confirm the diagnosis.
Accurate IAP measurement is essential before targeted medical or surgical decompressive interventions can be initiated.

Anahtar Kavram

Pathophysiological recognition of Abdominal Compartment Syndrome (ACS) and secondary obstructive shock.
Soru 124Soru →

A 3434-year-old client with a known history of Graves' disease is admitted to the progressive care unit exhibiting extreme restlessness, profound diaphoresis, and delirium. Current vital signs reveal a heart rate of 188 beats/min188\text{ beats/min}, blood pressure of 182/104 mmHg182/104\text{ mmHg}, and a core temperature of 40.6∘C40.6^\circ\text{C} (105.1∘F105.1^\circ\text{F}). The client is diagnosed with a thyrotoxic crisis (thyroid storm). The healthcare provider prescribes several emergent interventions. Arrange the following actions in the correct physiological priority order.

Öğeleri doğru sıraya koymak için sürükleyin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

The correct sequence is: 1) Apply supplemental oxygen, 2) Administer intravenous propranolol, 3) Administer enteral propylthiouracil (PTU), 4) Administer Lugol's iodine solution, 5) Administer intravenous hydrocortisone.
In a thyroid storm, the physiological hierarchy of needs dictates the sequence of care. The most immediate threat is cellular hypoxia and cardiovascular collapse from sympathetic overdrive. Therefore, oxygenation and beta-blockade (propranolol) are initiated first. Once hemodynamics are stabilized, the source of the crisis must be addressed pharmacologically. It is a critical physiological principle that new hormone synthesis must be blocked by propylthiouracil (PTU) before administering iodine. If iodine is given first, the hyperactive thyroid gland will rapidly use it to synthesize more hormone. Once synthesis is blocked, Lugol's iodine is given to halt the release of already-stored hormone. Finally, corticosteroids (hydrocortisone) are administered to replace depleted adrenal reserves and assist in decreasing peripheral hormone conversion.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Prioritize tissue perfusion and oxygenation by applying supplemental oxygen.
Meets the escalated metabolic and cellular oxygen demands.
Airway and breathing are the foundational steps in any acute decompensation, especially when metabolic consumption is massively elevated.
2
Administer the prescribed beta-adrenergic antagonist (propranolol).
Rapidly decreases the heart rate of 188 beats/min188\text{ beats/min} and lowers blood pressure.
Sympathetic overdrive poses the most immediate threat to life via cardiovascular collapse.
3
Administer the thionamide derivative (propylthiouracil).
Halts the ongoing synthesis of new thyroid hormone in the thyroid gland.
Synthesis must be stopped before iodine is introduced to the system to prevent paradoxical worsening of the crisis.
4
Administer the iodine solution (Lugol's solution) at least one hour after the thionamide.
Inhibits the release of preformed, stored thyroid hormone into the bloodstream.
This exploits the Wolff-Chaikoff effect safely, provided synthesis has already been blocked.
5
Administer glucocorticoids (hydrocortisone).
Provides adrenal support and further blunts the peripheral conversion of T4T_4 to T3T_3.
The profound hypermetabolic state quickly depletes endogenous cortisol, requiring replacement after acute stabilization.

Anahtar Kavram

The management of thyrotoxic crisis requires a strict pathophysiological sequence: stabilizing oxygenation, controlling adrenergic overdrive, blocking hormone synthesis with thionamides, blocking hormone release with iodine, and providing adrenal support. Iodine must never precede thionamides.
Soru 125Soru →

An emergency department nurse is caring for a trauma client undergoing aggressive resuscitation for severe hemorrhagic shock. Over the last 120120 minutes, the client has received 1010 units of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) and 66 units of fresh frozen plasma (FFP). During the ongoing assessment, the nurse notes a core body temperature of 34.2∘C34.2^\circ\text{C} (93.5∘F93.5^\circ\text{F}) and new-onset facial muscle twitching. The telemetry monitor displays peaked T waves, a widening QRS complex, and a prolonged QT interval. Which of the following physiological adaptations and underlying mechanisms correlate with this client's current presentation? (Select all that apply.)

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: The citrate preservative in the transfused blood has chelated the client's ionized calcium, resulting in neuromuscular excitability and a prolonged QT interval.; Intracellular potassium released from stored erythrocytes has accumulated in the client's serum, causing the peaked T waves and widened QRS complex.; The client's decreased core body temperature has shifted the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve to the left, impairing the release of oxygen to peripheral tissues.

Cevap

The correct physiological interpretations include citrate chelation of calcium, potassium leakage from stored cells, and a leftward shift of the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve due to hypothermia.
Massive transfusion protocols involve the rapid administration of large volumes of blood products, which carries specific physiological risks. The citrate used as an anticoagulant preservative in these products binds with the client's serum ionized calcium, leading to acute hypocalcemia. This manifests as neuromuscular excitability (e.g., facial twitching or Chvostek's sign) and a prolonged QT interval on the ECG. Additionally, as red blood cells are stored, they slowly break down and release intracellular potassium into the plasma. When massively transfused, this leads to significant hyperkalemia, which alters cardiac repolarization, causing peaked T waves and widened QRS complexes. Furthermore, the rapid infusion of refrigerated blood products frequently causes systemic hypothermia. Hypothermia shifts the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve to the left, meaning hemoglobin binds more tightly to oxygen and releases less of it to the peripheral tissues, which exacerbates cellular hypoxia despite adequate blood volume replacement.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's history and current clinical data.
The client has received massive amounts of PRBCs and FFP, is hypothermic (34.2∘C34.2^\circ\text{C}), exhibits facial twitching, and has an ECG showing peaked T waves, a wide QRS, and a prolonged QT interval.
Identifying the specific constellation of symptoms is required to differentiate between expected shock progression and iatrogenic complications from the massive transfusion protocol.
2
Correlate the facial twitching and prolonged QT interval with blood product pharmacology.
These are classic signs of hypocalcemia, caused by the citrate preservative in blood products chelating the client's ionized calcium.
Understanding the metabolic consequences of large-volume citrate administration is critical for recognizing hypocalcemia.
3
Correlate the peaked T waves and widening QRS complex with PRBC storage changes.
These are classic signs of hyperkalemia, which occurs because red blood cells slowly hemolyze during storage and release intracellular potassium into the plasma.
Hyperkalemia is a lethal complication of rapid, massive blood transfusion that requires immediate pharmacological reversal.
4
Evaluate the impact of the client's hypothermia on systemic oxygen transport.
Hypothermia causes a leftward shift in the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve, meaning hemoglobin holds onto oxygen more tightly and releases less to the hypoxic tissues.
Nurses must recognize that cold blood products exacerbate tissue hypoxia through this physiological mechanism.
5
Identify and eliminate incorrect interpretations.
The findings are not caused by respiratory acidosis, they are not benign compensatory mechanisms of shock, and they do not reflect an acute hemolytic reaction.
Eliminating distractors ensures that interventions will be correctly targeted at correcting the electrolyte and temperature derangements.

Anahtar Kavram

Complications of Massive Transfusion Protocol (Electrolyte and Hemodynamic Shifts)
Tahmini Süre:2m 30s
Soru 126Soru →

A rapid response team is called for a client admitted with community-acquired pneumonia who began receiving an initial infusion of intravenous ampicillin-sulbactam 1515 minutes ago. The client presents with acute respiratory distress, audible stridor, and diffuse urticaria. Vital signs are: blood pressure 68/3868/38 mm Hg, heart rate 5252 bpm, respiratory rate 3232 breaths/min, and SpO2 86%86\% on room air. The client's medication history includes daily lisinopril, metoprolol succinate, timolol ophthalmic drops, and atorvastatin. The nurse immediately stops the antibiotic infusion and administers 0.50.5 mg of intramuscular epinephrine. Five minutes later, the client's blood pressure is 70/4070/40 mm Hg, heart rate is 5454 bpm, and severe wheezing persists. Which of the following is the most appropriate priority intervention?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Administer intravenous glucagon

Cevap

The most appropriate priority intervention is to administer intravenous glucagon.
The client is experiencing anaphylaxis but is refractory to standard epinephrine therapy due to systemic beta-adrenergic blockade from their home medications (metoprolol and timolol). Glucagon is the evidence-based antidote in this scenario because it directly activates adenylate cyclase to increase intracellular cAMP, functioning completely independently of beta receptors. This effectively reverses both the life-threatening bronchospasm and hypotension.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation and vital signs.
The client is experiencing severe anaphylactic shock (stridor, urticaria, profound hypotension) but presents with paradoxical bradycardia (HR 52-54 bpm).
Identifying the mismatch between the expected compensatory tachycardia of shock and the actual bradycardic state is critical for diagnosing the underlying pathophysiology.
2
Correlate the clinical findings with the client's medication history.
The bradycardia and unresponsiveness to the first dose of epinephrine are caused by systemic beta-adrenergic blockade from the concurrent use of metoprolol and timolol.
Beta-blockers prevent epinephrine from binding to beta-1 and beta-2 receptors, blunting its inotropic, chronotropic, and bronchodilatory effects.
3
Determine the priority pharmacological intervention for refractory anaphylaxis.
Intravenous glucagon is selected as the antidote.
Glucagon directly activates adenylate cyclase independent of the beta-receptor, increasing intracellular cAMP to produce necessary bronchodilation and cardiovascular support.

Anahtar Kavram

Management of Refractory Anaphylaxis in Beta-Blocked Clients
Soru 127Soru →

A nurse is caring for a client with a complete T4T4 spinal cord injury. The client suddenly reports a severe, pounding headache and blurred vision. The nurse observes profuse diaphoresis and flushing above the level of the spinal lesion, accompanied by marked pallor and piloerection below the lesion. The client's blood pressure is 220/115220/115 mmHg and heart rate is 4848 bpm. Place the following nursing interventions in the correct sequence of priority to manage this acute complication.

Öğeleri doğru sıraya koymak için sürükleyin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

The correct sequence is: 1) Elevate the head of the bed, 2) Assess and relieve urinary obstruction, 3) Evaluate for bowel impaction, 4) Administer antihypertensive medication, and 5) Document the event.
The priority in managing autonomic dysreflexia is to rapidly lower the dangerously high blood pressure to prevent a hemorrhagic stroke. Elevating the head of the bed utilizes gravity to induce orthostatic pooling of blood in the lower extremities, providing an instant reduction in blood pressure. Once the client is safely positioned, the nurse must systematically identify and eliminate the noxious stimulus driving the sympathetic surge. Because bladder distension is the most common cause, the urinary system is assessed first. If the bladder is empty, bowel impaction (the second most common cause) is assessed next. If these physical measures fail to resolve the crisis, rapid-acting pharmacological antihypertensives are administered. Finally, once the client is stable, the nurse documents the entire event.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Recognize the clinical presentation of autonomic dysreflexia.
The symptoms (severe hypertension, bradycardia, pounding headache, diaphoresis above the lesion) indicate a medical emergency requiring immediate reduction of blood pressure.
Identifying the syndrome dictates the specific crisis management protocol.
2
Prioritize immediate physical positioning over diagnostic assessment.
Elevating the head of the bed to 9090 degrees is selected as the absolute first action.
Positioning utilizes orthostatic principles to instantly lower blood pressure, mitigating the immediate risk of a catastrophic hemorrhagic stroke.
3
Systematically assess for and eliminate noxious stimuli, starting with the most common.
Checking the bladder is prioritized next, followed by checking the bowel.
Removing the underlying trigger (usually a distended bladder or bowel impaction) stops the unchecked sympathetic nervous system response.
4
Determine the role of pharmacological interventions.
Antihypertensive medications are placed after mechanical interventions.
Medications are used if the blood pressure remains dangerously elevated despite the removal of mechanical triggers.

Anahtar Kavram

Autonomic dysreflexia is a life-threatening sympathetic response in clients with spinal cord injuries at or above T6T6. Management requires immediate positioning to lower blood pressure via orthostasis, followed by rapid identification and removal of the noxious stimulus (usually bladder or bowel).
Soru 128Soru →

A nurse is caring for a client admitted with severe diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). The client is receiving a continuous intravenous regular insulin infusion and 0.9% sodium chloride. The nurse observes that the client's deep, rapid breathing has transitioned to shallow, weak respirations over the last 3030 minutes, and the client is now profoundly lethargic and difficult to arouse.

Recent laboratory results:
- Blood glucose: 230230 mg/dL (12.812.8 mmol/L)
- Serum potassium: 2.72.7 mEq/L (2.72.7 mmol/L)
- Arterial Blood Gas (room air): pH 7.207.20, PaCO 2_2 4949 mm Hg, HCO 3−_3^- 1111 mEq/L, PaO 2_2 8282 mm Hg

Which of the following is the priority nursing action?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Discontinue the regular insulin infusion and activate the rapid response team.

Cevap

Discontinue the regular insulin infusion and activate the rapid response team.
The client is exhibiting signs of impending respiratory failure and severe hypokalemia. In DKA, the expected respiratory compensation for metabolic acidosis is hyperventilation (Kussmaul respirations), which lowers PaCO2. A PaCO2 of 49 mm Hg in this context indicates respiratory muscle fatigue, directly secondary to the profound hypokalemia (2.7 mEq/L). Because insulin actively shifts potassium into the intracellular space, continuing the insulin infusion will fatally worsen the hypokalemia. The nurse must immediately stop the insulin infusion to prevent cardiac and respiratory arrest, and activate the rapid response team to secure the airway and initiate emergency potassium replacement.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the arterial blood gas (ABG) and respiratory assessment.
The client has a severe metabolic acidosis (HCO3- 11 mEq/L, pH 7.20) but an elevated PaCO2 (49 mm Hg), indicating a failure of the expected respiratory compensation (loss of Kussmaul respirations).
Identifying the mixed acid-base disorder reveals that the client is experiencing respiratory muscle fatigue and impending respiratory arrest.
2
Evaluate the serum electrolytes in the context of the prescribed treatment.
The serum potassium is critically low at 2.7 mEq/L. The continuous insulin infusion actively drives potassium into the intracellular space.
Severe hypokalemia causes profound muscle weakness, including paralysis of the diaphragm and intercostal muscles, which directly explains the shallow respirations and rising PaCO2.
3
Prioritize interventions based on the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation).
The most immediate threats to life are respiratory failure and fatal arrhythmias from hypokalemia. The nurse must stop the insulin to prevent further potassium shifts and call for emergency assistance to secure the airway.
Addressing the critical ABC threat supersedes standard DKA protocol actions, such as adding dextrose to the intravenous fluids.

Anahtar Kavram

Prioritization in DKA complications and recognition of hypokalemia-induced respiratory failure.
Soru 129Soru →

An older adult client is admitted with a severe urinary tract infection. Over the past hour, the client has become restless and confused. Current vital signs are: blood pressure 84/52 mm Hg84/52\text{ mm Hg}, heart rate 128 bpm128\text{ bpm}, respiratory rate 30 breaths/min30\text{ breaths/min}, and temperature 101.8∘F101.8^\circ\text{F} (38.8∘C38.8^\circ\text{C}). Oxygen saturation is 93%93\% on room air. An arterial blood gas (ABG) and serum lactate analysis reveal the following:

ParameterValue
pH\text{pH}7.527.52
PaCO2\text{PaCO}_226 mm Hg26\text{ mm Hg}
HCO3−\text{HCO}_3^-21 mEq/L21\text{ mEq/L}
PaO2\text{PaO}_274 mm Hg74\text{ mm Hg}
Lactate\text{Lactate}4.3 mmol/L4.3\text{ mmol/L}

Which of the following prescribed interventions should the nurse prioritize?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Initiate a rapid intravenous infusion of 0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride at 30 mL/kg30\text{ mL/kg}.

Cevap

The nurse should prioritize initiating a rapid intravenous fluid bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride.
The client is exhibiting classic signs of early septic shock: severe hypotension, tachycardia, altered mental status, and an elevated lactate level. In the initial stages of sepsis, systemic vasodilation and increased capillary permeability cause profound relative hypovolemia. According to evidence-based sepsis management guidelines, the absolute priority is aggressive fluid resuscitation (typically a 30 mL/kg bolus of isotonic crystalloid) to restore intravascular volume, increase cardiac output, and improve tissue perfusion.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation.
The combination of infection, hypotension, tachycardia, altered mental status, and elevated lactate indicates early septic shock.
Recognizing the shock state dictates the urgency and sequence of interventions.
2
Interpret the arterial blood gas (ABG) results.
The pH is 7.52 (alkalemia) and PaCO2 is 26 mm Hg (respiratory alkalosis).
The client is hyperventilating in response to fever and early tissue hypoxia, creating a primary respiratory alkalosis despite the rising lactate level.
3
Determine the priority physiological need.
The client's profound relative hypovolemia from sepsis-induced vasodilation must be corrected immediately.
Without adequate intravascular volume, tissue perfusion cannot be restored, and secondary interventions like vasopressors will fail.
4
Select the most appropriate intervention.
Administering a 30 mL/kg isotonic crystalloid fluid bolus is the required first-line action.
Clinical guidelines mandate aggressive fluid resuscitation before the use of vasopressors in septic shock.

Anahtar Kavram

Early recognition and fluid resuscitation sequence in septic shock
Soru 130Soru →

A nurse is caring for a client who is 4 hours postoperative following a coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG) procedure. The client suddenly exhibits profound hypotension, pronounced jugular venous distention, muffled heart sounds, and a precipitous drop in mediastinal chest tube drainage. Arrange the following nursing actions in the priority order they should be executed.

Öğeleri doğru sıraya koymak için sürükleyin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

The correct sequence is: 1) Assess the mediastinal chest tubes for kinks, 2) Activate the rapid response team and notify the surgeon, 3) Administer a rapid intravenous crystalloid bolus, 4) Prepare for an immediate bedside echocardiogram, and 5) Gather the pericardiocentesis tray and prepare for sternotomy.
Cardiac tamponade post-CABG is a form of obstructive shock. The priority sequence reflects the nursing process and emergency prioritization: rapidly identify and reverse simple mechanical causes (kinked tubes), mobilize the emergency surgical team, support hemodynamics with increased preload (crystalloid fluids), assist with diagnostics (echocardiogram), and prepare for definitive surgical decompression.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Assess the mediastinal chest tubes for kinks or dependent loops.
Ensures there is no mechanical obstruction preventing pericardial drainage.
Resolving an obstruction is the quickest, least invasive way to reverse the accumulating fluid causing the tamponade. Independent nursing assessment of the equipment takes priority.
2
Activate the rapid response team and notify the cardiothoracic surgeon.
Mobilizes necessary medical personnel for an escalating emergency.
Cardiac tamponade is a lethal surgical complication requiring advanced interventions beyond the independent nursing scope of practice.
3
Administer a rapid intravenous crystalloid bolus as prescribed.
Increases right ventricular preload and systemic venous pressure.
Elevating filling pressures is hemodynamically essential to temporarily overcome the restrictive pericardial pressure and maintain cardiac output until the fluid can be drained.
4
Prepare the client for an immediate bedside echocardiogram.
Facilitates diagnostic confirmation of pericardial effusion.
The provider must visually confirm the presence and severity of the tamponade before proceeding with high-risk invasive procedures.
5
Gather the pericardiocentesis tray and prepare for a potential emergent sternotomy.
Readies the clinical environment for definitive treatment.
Evacuation of the pericardial fluid is the ultimate curative step, requiring sterile equipment and immediate surgical readiness.

Anahtar Kavram

Cardiac Tamponade Recognition and Prioritization
Soru 131Soru →

A client is admitted to the medical unit with a history of peptic ulcer disease and reports of passing dark, tarry stools for the past two days. The client is currently resting in a supine position.

Vital signs upon admission (3 hours ago): Blood pressure 138/80138/80 mm Hg, heart rate 7878 beats/min, respiratory rate 1414 breaths/min.

Current assessment findings:
- Blood pressure 112/84112/84 mm Hg
- Heart rate 112112 beats/min
- Respiratory rate 2424 breaths/min
- SpO 2_2 96%96\% on room air
- The client reports feeling restless and slightly lightheaded.
- Arterial Blood Gas (ABG): pH 7.497.49, PaCO 2_2 2929 mm Hg, PaO 2_2 9292 mm Hg, HCO 3−_3^- 2323 mEq/L

Based on these findings, which of the following is the priority nursing intervention?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Initiate a rapid bolus of the prescribed intravenous isotonic crystalloid solution.

Cevap

The priority intervention is to initiate a rapid bolus of the prescribed intravenous isotonic crystalloid solution.
The client is exhibiting signs of compensatory (early) hemorrhagic shock due to an upper gastrointestinal bleed. Although the systolic blood pressure remains >100>100 mm Hg, the narrowing pulse pressure (dropping from 5858 mm Hg to 2828 mm Hg), tachycardia, tachypnea, and restlessness are hallmark indicators of sympathetic nervous system activation in response to volume depletion. The immediate priority is to restore intravascular volume and cardiac output by administering isotonic crystalloid fluids.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the vital sign trends to identify physiological changes.
The pulse pressure has narrowed from 5858 mm Hg to 2828 mm Hg, accompanied by new-onset tachycardia (112112 bpm) and tachypnea (2424 breaths/min).
A narrowing pulse pressure is one of the earliest signs of compensatory shock, preceding a drop in systolic blood pressure.
2
Interpret the Arterial Blood Gas (ABG) values.
The ABG indicates uncompensated respiratory alkalosis (pH 7.497.49, PaCO 2_2 2929 mm Hg).
In early shock, sympathetic nervous system activation and tissue hypoxia trigger hyperventilation, blowing off carbon dioxide.
3
Evaluate the clinical symptoms in the context of the medical history.
The client with a suspected gastrointestinal bleed is exhibiting restlessness and lightheadedness.
These are early neurological indicators of decreased cerebral perfusion caused by hypovolemia.
4
Determine the highest priority nursing intervention.
Administering isotonic crystalloid fluids is selected as the first action.
Restoring intravascular volume is the critical first step in managing hemorrhagic shock and preventing cardiovascular collapse.

Anahtar Kavram

Early recognition and fluid resuscitation in compensatory hemorrhagic shock
Soru 132Soru →

A client is receiving care in the intensive care unit four days after a severe subarachnoid hemorrhage. The client, previously alert and oriented, suddenly becomes extremely restless and confused. Current assessment findings include a blood pressure of 82/46 mm Hg, heart rate of 126 beats/minute, and a central venous pressure (CVP) of 1 mm Hg. The client's urine output over the past 4 hours was 1,600 mL.

The nurse reviews the most recent laboratory results:

Laboratory TestResultReference Range
Serum sodium119 mEq/L135-145 mEq/L
Serum osmolality256 mOsm/kg275-295 mOsm/kg
Spot urine sodium120 mEq/L20-40 mEq/L

Based on these findings, which of the following prescribed interventions is the highest priority for the nurse to implement?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Initiate a rapid intravenous infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride.

Cevap

Initiate a rapid intravenous infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride.
The correct intervention is to administer rapid isotonic fluids because the clinical picture indicates Cerebral Salt Wasting (CSW). CSW is a rare but life-threatening complication of subarachnoid hemorrhage characterized by primary renal sodium wasting, leading to severe hyponatremia and profound hypovolemia (evidenced by the low CVP, hypotension, and tachycardia). The immediate priority is restoring intravascular volume to prevent cerebral ischemia and multi-organ failure.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the vital signs and hemodynamic parameters.
The blood pressure of 82/46 mm Hg, heart rate of 126 beats/minute, and CVP of 1 mm Hg indicate profound hypovolemic shock.
Identifying the primary life-threat (circulatory collapse) dictates the immediate prioritization of care.
2
Evaluate the laboratory values and intake/output data.
The client has severe hyponatremia (119 mEq/L), low serum osmolality (256 mOsm/kg), inappropriate renal sodium wasting (urine sodium 120 mEq/L), and massive polyuria (1,600 mL/4 hours).
These specific values are required to differentiate between neuro-endocrine complications common after brain injury.
3
Synthesize the data to identify the underlying physiological adaptation failure.
The combination of severe hypovolemia, hyponatremia, and polyuria in a neurosurgical client confirms Cerebral Salt Wasting (CSW), eliminating SIADH (which is euvolemic/hypervolemic with oliguria) and Diabetes Insipidus (which causes hypernatremia).
Accurate pattern recognition prevents the administration of contraindicated therapies.
4
Determine the highest priority nursing intervention.
The nurse must immediately restore intravascular volume with an isotonic crystalloid solution like 0.9% sodium chloride.
Failure to rapidly correct the hypovolemia will lead to cerebral hypoperfusion, vasospasm, and irreversible brain damage.

Anahtar Kavram

Cerebral Salt Wasting (CSW) vs. SIADH Differentiation and Management
Soru 133Soru →

A nurse is planning care for a client who is 48 hours post-operative following a right above-the-knee amputation (AKA) due to complications of peripheral arterial disease. Which of the following positioning interventions is most appropriate to include in the client's plan of care?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Assist the client into a prone position for 30 minutes three to four times a day.

Cevap

Assist the client into a prone position for 30 minutes three to four times a day.
Following an above-the-knee amputation, the client is at high risk for developing a hip flexion contracture, which can permanently impair mobility and the ability to bear weight on a prosthesis. Assisting the client into a prone position for 20 to 30 minutes, 3 to 4 times a day, actively extends the hip joint and stretches the flexor muscles, effectively preventing contractures.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's surgical procedure and timeline.
The client had a right above-the-knee amputation (AKA) 48 hours ago.
The timeline is critical because therapeutic positioning rules change drastically after the first 24 hours post-operation.
2
Identify the primary positioning complication associated with an AKA.
Hip flexion contracture is a severe structural complication that can prevent the client from using a prosthesis.
Understanding the complication risk guides the selection of appropriate preventative positioning.
3
Evaluate the given options based on their effect on the hip joint.
Elevation and high Fowler's position promote hip flexion. Prone positioning actively promotes hip extension.
Nursing interventions must counter the physiological tendency of the hip flexor muscles to tighten and contract.

Anahtar Kavram

Prevention of hip flexion contractures following an above-the-knee amputation
Soru 134Soru →

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous enteral tube feedings and requires repositioning every 2 hours to prevent pressure injuries. Which of the following actions is the most appropriate for the nurse to take when turning the client?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Pause the continuous enteral feeding before lowering the head of the bed.

Cevap

Pause the continuous enteral feeding before lowering the head of the bed.
Pausing the enteral feeding before lowering the head of the bed is essential to prevent pulmonary aspiration of gastric contents. Repositioning requires the bed to be lowered to minimize shearing forces on the client's skin and to maintain proper body mechanics for the staff. However, because enteral feeding must always be stopped when the head of the bed is lower than 30 degrees, pausing the pump is the necessary first step.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the primary physiological risk for a client receiving continuous enteral feedings.
The highest risk is pulmonary aspiration of gastric contents if the head of the bed is lowered.
Enteral nutrition introduces liquid directly into the stomach, increasing the volume of gastric contents and the potential for reflux.
2
Determine the proper mechanics for safely turning a client in bed.
The head of the bed should be lowered to flat or nearly flat before turning.
Turning a client with the head of the bed elevated creates severe shearing forces on the sacrum, which causes pressure injuries and makes turning ergonomically difficult for the nurse.
3
Combine the safety requirements of both interventions (feeding and turning).
The feeding must be temporarily stopped so the head of the bed can be safely lowered for turning.
This dual approach prevents aspiration while also adhering to safe mobility and skin integrity practices.

Anahtar Kavram

Aspiration Prevention during Enteral Feeding and Mobility
Soru 135Soru →

A nurse is evaluating a client who had an open abdominal surgery 6 hours ago. The client reports feeling dizzy, anxious, and extremely thirsty. The nurse assesses the vital signs: heart rate 124 beats/min, blood pressure 98/74 mm Hg (baseline 130/80 mm Hg), and respiratory rate 24 breaths/min. The client's skin is pale and cool to the touch. Which of the following is the priority nursing action?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Position the client supine with the legs elevated and notify the healthcare provider.

Cevap

Position the client supine with the legs elevated and notify the healthcare provider.
The client is exhibiting hallmark signs of early hypovolemic (hemorrhagic) shock, including tachycardia, a narrowed pulse pressure, tachypnea, pale and cool skin, dizziness, and extreme thirst. The body's compensatory mechanisms are attempting to maintain organ perfusion. The immediate priority is to enhance venous return to the heart by positioning the client supine with legs elevated (modified Trendelenburg) and to notify the healthcare provider immediately for further life-saving orders, such as intravenous fluid resuscitation or blood products.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation and vital signs.
The client has tachycardia, a narrowed pulse pressure (24 mm Hg), tachypnea, pale/cool skin, dizziness, and extreme thirst.
To identify deviations from baseline and recognize signs of physiological deterioration.
2
Correlate the findings with potential postoperative complications.
These findings are classic indicators of early hypovolemic (hemorrhagic) shock due to internal bleeding.
Tachycardia and peripheral vasoconstriction (pale/cool skin) are compensatory mechanisms attempting to maintain cardiac output.
3
Determine the priority nursing intervention based on the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation).
The immediate priority is to support circulation and venous return while obtaining medical intervention.
Hypovolemic shock is a life-threatening emergency requiring rapid fluid resuscitation and potential surgical exploration.

Anahtar Kavram

Recognition and initial management of hypovolemic shock
Soru 136Soru →

A nurse is establishing a plan of care for an older adult client who is recovering from a right-sided modified radical mastectomy with axillary lymph node dissection. Which nursing intervention best addresses the client's basic care and comfort needs while preventing complications?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Support the client's right arm on pillows to maintain elevation slightly above the level of the heart.

Cevap

The most appropriate intervention is to support the client's affected arm on pillows to keep it elevated above the level of the heart.
Elevating the affected arm on pillows slightly above the level of the heart utilizes gravity to promote lymphatic and venous drainage. This essential basic care measure prevents lymphedema, reduces postoperative edema, and minimizes pain in the affected extremity, promoting overall comfort.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's postoperative status following a mastectomy with axillary lymph node dissection.
Recognize that the surgical removal of axillary lymph nodes places the client at a high risk for lymphedema and painful swelling in the right arm.
Understanding the anatomical and physiological alterations is necessary to plan safe and effective comfort care.
2
Evaluate the proposed nursing interventions against safety guidelines and evidence-based practice.
Identify that elevating the affected arm is a safe, non-pharmacologic comfort measure that actively prevents a major postoperative complication.
Elevation utilizes gravity to enhance venous and lymphatic return, addressing the root cause of potential swelling.

Anahtar Kavram

Postoperative Basic Care and Comfort
Soru 137Soru →

A nurse is preparing to transfer a client who has bilateral lower extremity weakness from a hospital bed to a wheelchair using a one-person assist technique. Place the following steps in the sequence the nurse should perform them.

Öğeleri doğru sıraya koymak için sürükleyin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

The correct sequence begins with positioning and locking the wheelchair, followed by assisting the client to dangle on the bed edge, applying the transfer belt, assisting the client to stand, and finally pivoting to sit in the wheelchair.
The correct sequence prioritizes environmental safety first by placing and locking the wheelchair in an optimal position. Once the environment is secure, the client is brought to a sitting position to stabilize their blood pressure and establish a firm base of support. Only after the client is safely seated should the transfer belt be applied. Finally, the nurse and client execute a coordinated stand, pivot, and sit maneuver, ensuring the client secures their balance by reaching for the armrests before lowering into the chair.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Position the wheelchair at a 45-degree angle to the bed on the client's stronger side and lock the wheels.
The environment is safe and ready for the transfer.
Locking the brakes prevents the chair from moving out from under the client, and positioning it on the stronger side allows the client to use their intact strength to assist with the pivot.
2
Assist the client to sit on the edge of the bed and ensure both feet are resting flat on the floor.
The client establishes balance and a stable base of support.
Dangling allows the cardiovascular system to adjust to the position change, preventing orthostatic hypotension, while flat feet provide stability.
3
Apply the transfer belt securely around the client's waist, over their clothing.
The nurse secures a safe handhold for the upcoming lift.
The belt must be applied while the client is seated upright to ensure a snug fit that will not slide up the rib cage during the transfer.
4
Stand facing the client, grasp the transfer belt on both sides, and cue the client to stand on the count of three.
The client is safely assisted to a standing position.
Using a coordinated countdown and proper grips prevents sudden, jerky movements and protects both the client and the nurse from musculoskeletal injury.
5
Pivot with the client toward the wheelchair and instruct them to reach back for the armrests before sitting.
The client is safely seated in the wheelchair.
Reaching back for the armrests ensures the wheelchair is directly behind the client and provides additional upper body support during the descent.

Anahtar Kavram

Safe Client Transfer and Mobility
Soru 138Soru →

A nurse is monitoring a client who is 15 minutes into a packed red blood cell (PRBC) transfusion. The client suddenly reports severe lower back pain, chills, and a feeling of impending doom. The nurse observes that the client's urine in the Foley catheter tubing has become dark red. Arrange the following nursing interventions in the correct order of priority from first to last.

Öğeleri doğru sıraya koymak için sürükleyin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

The correct sequence is to first stop the transfusion, then disconnect the blood tubing, maintain access with normal saline using new tubing, assess the client's vital signs, and finally notify the provider and blood bank.
In any severe adverse reaction to a parenteral infusion, especially a blood product, the absolute first priority is to stop the infusion to prevent further harm. Following this, the nurse must ensure the toxic substance is disconnected and secure patent IV access using entirely new tubing and a compatible solution (0.9% sodium chloride). Once the immediate threat of further exposure is mitigated and the airway/circulation is supported with IV access, the nurse gathers assessment data (vital signs) to provide an accurate SBAR report to the healthcare provider and blood bank for further emergency orders.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Stop the blood transfusion immediately.
Further administration of incompatible blood is halted.
The client is exhibiting classic signs of an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction (flank pain, chills, hemoglobinuria). The source of the antigen must be eliminated instantly.
2
Disconnect the blood administration set from the client's intravenous catheter.
The blood tubing is completely separated from the client.
This prevents the remaining blood in the IV tubing from entering the client's bloodstream during subsequent interventions.
3
Attach new intravenous tubing primed with 0.9% sodium chloride and maintain the infusion.
Venous access is maintained with a safe, compatible solution.
Patent IV access is critical for administering emergency medications (e.g., vasopressors, diuretics) and IV fluids to maintain renal perfusion. Flushing the old tubing would push more incompatible cells into the client, which is a lethal error.
4
Assess the client's vital signs and respiratory status.
Baseline data on the severity of the reaction is obtained.
The nurse needs current hemodynamic and respiratory parameters to accurately communicate the client's status to the healthcare provider.
5
Notify the healthcare provider and the hospital blood bank.
Medical intervention is ordered and the facility's reaction protocol is initiated.
The provider will prescribe treatments to manage shock and preserve renal function. The blood bank must receive the remaining blood and tubing to determine the cause of the incompatibility.

Anahtar Kavram

Management of Acute Hemolytic Transfusion Reaction
Soru 139Soru →

A nurse is developing a plan of care for an 80-year-old client who has right-sided hemiplegia and dysphagia following a recent cerebrovascular accident (CVA). Which interventions should the nurse include in the client's plan of care to promote basic care, comfort, and safety? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Utilize a pressure-redistributing mattress and reposition the client at least every 2 hours.; Perform oral hygiene using a moistened sponge swab and gentle suctioning.; Maintain the client in a high Fowler's position during meals and for 30 minutes after eating.

Cevap

The correct interventions are utilizing a pressure-redistributing mattress, performing oral hygiene with a sponge swab and suction, and maintaining a high Fowler's position during and after meals.
Clients with hemiplegia and dysphagia require meticulous basic care to prevent life-threatening complications. A pressure-redistributing mattress and frequent repositioning are foundational to prevent skin breakdown in immobile clients. Proper oral hygiene using a moistened sponge swab with gentle suctioning minimizes the aspiration risk while maintaining mucosal integrity. A high Fowler's position (60 to 90 degrees) during meals and for at least 30 minutes afterward is essential; it utilizes gravity to facilitate swallowing and significantly reduces the risk of aspiration pneumonia.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Assess the client's physical deficits and risk factors associated with right-sided hemiplegia and dysphagia.
The client is identified as high-risk for pressure injuries, deep vein thrombosis (DVT), and aspiration.
Neurological deficits impair mobility, sensation, and the mechanical coordination required for safe swallowing.
2
Select appropriate basic care interventions that address the identified physiological risks.
Interventions must include skin protection (mattress/turning), safe oral care (suction/swabs), and aspiration precautions (high Fowler's positioning).
These evidence-based actions directly mitigate the risks of tissue breakdown and respiratory compromise.
3
Evaluate the remaining options against nursing safety standards and geriatric principles.
Knee pillows, premature UAP delegation for feeding, and fluid restrictions are rejected.
Knee pillows impede venous return, delegating an initial dysphagia feed violates scope of practice, and assuming incontinence is a normal part of aging leads to harmful fluid restriction.

Anahtar Kavram

Basic Care, Comfort, and Safety for Stroke Survivors
Soru 140Soru →

A 68-year-old client is receiving mechanical ventilation in the intensive care unit following a coronary artery bypass graft. The client's oxygen saturation drops to 89%, and auscultation reveals coarse crackles over the mainstem bronchi. The nurse prepares to perform open endotracheal suctioning. To reduce the risk of severe hypoxia and mucosal trauma, arrange the following procedural steps in the correct sequence.

Öğeleri doğru sıraya koymak için sürükleyin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

The correct sequence requires the nurse to first hyperoxygenate the client, safely advance the catheter without suction, reposition the tip to protect the carina, apply intermittent suction during withdrawal, and conclude with re-oxygenation and assessment.
Endotracheal suctioning carries significant physiological risks, including profound hypoxemia, cardiac dysrhythmias (often due to vagal stimulation), and mucosal trauma. Proper procedural sequencing mitigates these risks. The nurse must initially hyperoxygenate the client to establish a protective oxygen reserve. Next, the catheter is advanced without suction to avoid unnecessary oxygen depletion and mucosal stripping. Once resistance is met or a cough is stimulated (indicating the catheter has reached the carina), the nurse must pull the catheter back 1 to 2 centimeters to avoid applying direct suction to the sensitive carinal tissue. Suction is then applied intermittently while rotating the catheter during withdrawal, strictly limited to 10 to 15 seconds to prevent dangerous oxygen desaturation. Finally, the nurse provides post-suction hyperoxygenation and assesses the client's clinical response to ensure airway patency.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Hyperoxygenate the client with 100% oxygen.
The client's oxygen reserve is maximized prior to the intervention.
Suctioning extracts oxygen along with secretions; pre-oxygenation is critical to prevent dangerous hypoxemia and subsequent cardiac dysrhythmias.
2
Advance the catheter into the artificial airway without applying suction.
The catheter reaches the level of the carina safely.
Applying suction during advancement strips oxygen from the airway prematurely and increases the likelihood of mucosal tearing.
3
Withdraw the catheter 1 to 2 centimeters.
The suction tip is repositioned off the carinal tissue.
Resting the catheter directly on the carina while applying suction causes severe mucosal trauma and can trigger a dangerous vagal response.
4
Apply intermittent suction while rotating and withdrawing.
Airway secretions are effectively cleared from the respiratory tract.
Rotating the catheter prevents it from adhering to one area of the mucosa, and limiting the time to 10-15 seconds mitigates prolonged airway occlusion.
5
Reassess the client and hyperoxygenate.
The client's respiratory status stabilizes.
Post-oxygenation replenishes lost oxygen, and auscultation confirms whether further suctioning is necessary.

Anahtar Kavram

To minimize complications such as hypoxemia, dysrhythmias, and mucosal trauma during endotracheal suctioning, strict adherence to evidence-based sequencing—including hyperoxygenation, suction-free insertion, carinal protection, and strict time limits on suction—is required.
ÖncekiSayfa 7 / 98Sonraki
Physiological Integrity Alıştırma Soruları — NCLEX-RN — Sayfa 7 | Examkin