Physiological Integrity

1960 soru

Soru 1441Soru →

An adult client who is 24 hours24\text{ hours} postoperative following a small bowel resection remains NPO (nothing by mouth). The primary healthcare provider prescribes a continuous intravenous (IV) infusion of 1000 mL1000\text{ mL} of lactated Ringer's solution to be administered over an 8-hour8\text{-hour} period.

At what rate in milliliters per hour (mL/hr) should the nurse set the electronic IV infusion pump? Record your answer as a whole number.

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Cevap: 125

Cevap

The nurse should set the electronic IV infusion pump to deliver 125 mL/hr125\text{ mL/hr}.
To determine the correct programmed rate for an electronic intravenous infusion pump, the nurse must calculate the volume of fluid to be administered per hour. The standardized formula is Total Volume (mL)÷Total Time (hours)\text{Total Volume (mL)} \div \text{Total Time (hours)}. Dividing 1000 mL1000\text{ mL} by 8 hours8\text{ hours} yields a precise continuous rate of 125 mL/hr125\text{ mL/hr}.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the total prescribed volume.
1000 mL1000\text{ mL}
This value serves as the numerator in the infusion rate calculation.
2
Identify the prescribed duration for the infusion.
8 hours8\text{ hours}
This value serves as the denominator in the infusion rate calculation.
3
Divide the total volume by the total time.
1000÷8=1251000 \div 8 = 125
This mathematical operation determines the specific amount of fluid that must be delivered each hour to complete the infusion on time.

Anahtar Kavram

Basic intravenous fluid infusion rate calculation for an electronic pump
Soru 1442Soru →

A client weighing 154 lbs154\text{ lbs} is experiencing continuous generalized tonic-clonic seizures. The healthcare provider orders a loading dose of intravenous phenytoin 18 mg/kg18\text{ mg/kg} to be administered at the maximum safe rate. The client currently has a single 20-gauge peripheral IV in the right forearm with a continuous infusion of 5%5\% dextrose in 0.45%0.45\% sodium chloride (D5 1/2 NS) running at 100 mL/hr100\text{ mL/hr}. Phenytoin is supplied in 50 mg/mL50\text{ mg/mL} vials.

Which action by the nurse represents the safest and most appropriate administration technique?

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Cevap: Pause the continuous IV infusion, flush the line with 0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride, administer the 1260 mg1260\text{ mg} dose over a minimum of 2626 minutes, and flush again with 0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride before resuming.

Cevap

Pause the continuous IV infusion, flush the line with 0.9% sodium chloride, administer the 1260 mg dose over a minimum of 26 minutes, and flush again with 0.9% sodium chloride before resuming.
The correct action synthesizes accurate weight-based dosing, rate calculation, and compatibility principles. The client weighs 70 kg70\text{ kg}, requiring a total dose of 1260 mg1260\text{ mg}. Because intravenous phenytoin must not be administered faster than 50 mg/min50\text{ mg/min} to avoid severe hypotension and fatal arrhythmias, the dose must be given over a minimum of 25.225.2 minutes. Additionally, phenytoin is highly incompatible with dextrose solutions and will precipitate. Therefore, the nurse must pause the dextrose-containing primary fluid, flush the line with compatible 0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride, administer the medication slowly, and flush again before resuming the primary fluid.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Calculate the client's weight in kilograms.
154 lbs÷2.2 lbs/kg=70 kg154\text{ lbs} \div 2.2\text{ lbs/kg} = 70\text{ kg}.
Accurate weight in kilograms is necessary for precise weight-based dosing.
2
Calculate the total ordered dose of phenytoin.
18 mg/kg×70 kg=1260 mg18\text{ mg/kg} \times 70\text{ kg} = 1260\text{ mg}.
Determines the absolute amount of medication to administer based on the provider's order.
3
Determine the minimum safe administration time.
1260 mg÷50 mg/min=25.2 minutes1260\text{ mg} \div 50\text{ mg/min} = 25.2\text{ minutes}.
Intravenous phenytoin administration must not exceed 50 mg/min50\text{ mg/min} in adults to prevent severe cardiovascular collapse.
4
Evaluate intravenous compatibility with the primary fluid.
Phenytoin is strictly incompatible with dextrose-containing solutions such as D5 1/2 NS.
Mixing phenytoin with dextrose causes immediate crystal formation and precipitation in the tubing.
5
Formulate the safe administration procedure.
Pause the primary infusion, flush thoroughly with 0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride, administer the drug over at least 25.225.2 minutes (e.g., 2626 minutes), and flush again before resuming.
This ensures no mixing of incompatible fluids and adheres to strict rate limits.

Anahtar Kavram

Phenytoin Administration: Dosage, Rate Limits, and IV Compatibility
Soru 1443Soru →

A nurse is preparing to mix and administer a prescribed dose of Regular insulin and NPH insulin in a single syringe. Arrange the steps of this procedure in the correct sequence from first to last.

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Cevap

The correct sequence for mixing insulins is to gently roll the NPH vial, inject air into the NPH vial, inject air into the Regular insulin vial, draw up the Regular insulin, and finally draw up the NPH insulin (Clear before Cloudy).
When mixing insulin, the fundamental rule is 'clear before cloudy' (Regular before NPH) to avoid contaminating the short-acting insulin with the intermediate-acting insulin. The correct sequence ensures the vials are pressurized properly while maintaining sterility and preventing cross-contamination.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Roll the NPH insulin vial between the palms.
The cloudy suspension is thoroughly mixed.
NPH insulin contains particles that settle at the bottom; rolling prevents bubble formation that can alter the dose measurement.
2
Inject air into the NPH insulin vial.
The NPH vial is pressurized.
Pressurizing the vial prevents a vacuum, and doing this first prevents contamination of the clear insulin.
3
Inject air into the Regular insulin vial.
The Regular insulin vial is pressurized.
The needle can now remain in this vial to draw the first medication.
4
Withdraw the prescribed dose of Regular insulin.
The clear insulin is drawn into the syringe.
Drawing clear insulin before cloudy insulin prevents contamination of the rapid-acting or short-acting insulin vial.
5
Withdraw the prescribed dose of NPH insulin.
Both insulins are successfully mixed in the syringe.
This completes the combined dose preparation safely.

Anahtar Kavram

Safe Parenteral Medication Administration: Mixing Insulins
Soru 1444Soru →

A nurse is providing morning care for a client who is in balanced suspension skeletal traction for a fractured right femur. Which action by the nurse demonstrates the correct application of basic care and comfort principles?

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Cevap: Assisting the client to use an overhead trapeze bar to lift the upper body off the bed for a linen change

Cevap

The correct answer is assisting the client to use an overhead trapeze bar to lift their upper body off the bed for a linen change.
The use of an overhead trapeze bar allows a client in balanced suspension skeletal traction to safely lift their upper body off the bed. This facilitates independent movement, assists with bedpan placement, and allows the nurse to perform back care and linen changes without disrupting the continuous line of pull required for fracture alignment.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's specific medical intervention and its physical constraints.
The client is in balanced suspension skeletal traction, which requires continuous, uninterrupted pull to maintain bone alignment.
Basic care must be adapted to avoid disrupting the traction setup or causing injury.
2
Evaluate each nursing action against the safety rules for skeletal traction and general nursing scope of practice.
Lifting weights and turning side-to-side disrupt traction. Delegating assessment is outside the UAP scope of practice. Using a trapeze bar safely facilitates care.
Identifying contraindicated actions eliminates incorrect choices based on foundational basic care and delegation principles.
3
Select the action that promotes basic care and comfort while maintaining the safety and integrity of the traction.
Assisting the client to use an overhead trapeze bar is the correct action.
This is the only evidence-based, safe action for a client with skeletal traction who requires hygiene and linen changes.

Anahtar Kavram

Basic Care and Positioning for Clients in Skeletal Traction
Soru 1445Soru →

A nurse is caring for a client who underwent a right transfemoral (above-the-knee) amputation 24 hours ago. Which positioning strategy should be incorporated into the daily routine to ensure optimal joint mobility for future prosthesis use?

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Cevap: Place the client on their abdomen for 30 minutes, three to four times a day.

Cevap

Place the client on their abdomen for 30 minutes, three to four times a day.
Placing the client in a prone position for short periods several times a day physically extends the hip joint. This action stretches the flexor muscles, preventing the development of a hip flexion contracture, which is critical for future ambulation with a prosthesis.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the primary long-term mobility goal for a client with a transfemoral amputation.
The goal is successful fitting and ambulation with a lower extremity prosthesis.
Understanding the desired outcome dictates which physical complications must be prioritized and prevented.
2
Determine the anatomical risks associated with a transfemoral amputation.
The client is at high risk for developing hip flexion contractures due to muscle imbalance and prolonged sitting.
Without the weight of the lower leg to naturally extend the hip, the flexor muscles tend to tighten and shorten.
3
Select the nursing intervention that directly counteracts hip flexion.
Prone positioning (lying on the abdomen) physically extends the hip joint.
Routine prone positioning stretches the hip flexors, preserving the range of motion required to properly align and use a prosthetic leg.

Anahtar Kavram

Post-Amputation Positioning and Contracture Prevention
Soru 1446Soru →

A client with stage 5 chronic kidney disease (CKD) arrives at the emergency department after missing three consecutive hemodialysis sessions. The client is lethargic and exhibits deep, rapid respirations at a rate of 34 breaths/min34 \text{ breaths/min}. An electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals tall, peaked T waves. The most recent arterial blood gas (ABG) shows a pH of 7.227.22, PaCO2 of 28 mm Hg28 \text{ mm Hg}, PaO2 of 96 mm Hg96 \text{ mm Hg}, and HCO3- of 12 mEq/L12 \text{ mEq/L}. To reduce the risk of imminent physiological collapse, which prescribed action should the nurse implement FIRST?

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Cevap: Administer intravenous regular insulin concurrently with 50%50\% dextrose.

Cevap

The correct priority action is to administer intravenous regular insulin concurrently with 50% dextrose.
The correct action directly addresses the most critical, life-threatening physiological abnormality: severe hyperkalemia. In a client with stage 5 CKD who has missed dialysis, the presence of peaked T waves indicates imminent cardiac toxicity. Intravenous regular insulin facilitates the rapid intracellular shift of potassium, temporarily lowering serum levels and protecting the myocardium from fatal dysrhythmias, while concurrent 50%50\% dextrose prevents severe hypoglycemia.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the clinical history and physical presentation.
The client has stage 5 CKD and missed three dialysis sessions, putting them at extreme risk for uremia, volume overload, and severe hyperkalemia. The lethargy and rapid breathing are critical systemic signs.
Identifying the root cause of the client's deterioration guides the entire resuscitation effort.
2
Interpret the ECG findings.
The presence of tall, peaked T waves is a hallmark electrocardiographic sign of critical hyperkalemia.
Hyperkalemia decreases the resting membrane potential of the myocardium, leading to fatal arrhythmias such as ventricular fibrillation or asystole if not rapidly treated.
3
Interpret the Arterial Blood Gas (ABG) values.
The pH (7.227.22) and HCO3- (12 mEq/L12 \text{ mEq/L}) demonstrate severe uncompensated/partially compensated metabolic acidosis. The PaCO2 (28 mm Hg28 \text{ mm Hg}) is low due to Kussmaul respirations (hyperventilation), which is the body's attempt to compensate by blowing off volatile acids.
Accurate ABG interpretation prevents the dangerous misstep of treating compensatory hyperventilation as a primary respiratory failure.
4
Select the intervention that addresses the most immediate life threat.
Administering IV regular insulin with 50%50\% dextrose is chosen.
Insulin acts rapidly to shift potassium from the intravascular space into the intracellular space, stabilizing the cardiac membrane within minutes. Dextrose is required to prevent profound hypoglycemia.

Anahtar Kavram

Emergency Management of Severe Hyperkalemia and ABG Interpretation

Alternatif Yöntem

Another valid, immediate first-line intervention for severe hyperkalemia with ECG changes is the administration of intravenous calcium gluconate. While it does not lower the serum potassium level, it immediately stabilizes the myocardial resting membrane potential, reducing the risk of lethal dysrhythmias while potassium-shifting agents are prepared.
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 1447Soru →

A registered nurse is reviewing unit protocols for safe intravenous (IV) medication administration. Which of the following practices demonstrate adherence to standard parenteral therapy safety principles? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

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Cevap: Flushing the intravenous catheter with sterile normal saline before and after administering an IV push medication.; Calculating weight-based medication dosages using the client's current weight in kilograms rather than pounds.; Consulting a reliable pharmacy reference to verify Y-site compatibility before hanging a secondary IV piggyback.

Cevap

The correct practices are flushing the IV catheter before and after use, calculating dosages using kilograms, and verifying Y-site compatibility before administration.
Safe parenteral administration requires meticulous attention to detail. Flushing IV lines prevents mixing of incompatible drugs and ensures patency. Calculating weight-based doses in kilograms eliminates conversion errors. Verifying Y-site compatibility prevents chemical reactions between medications in the IV tubing.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the clinical scenario.
The question requires identifying correct basic safety principles related to parenteral (IV) medication therapy.
Identifying the core focus ensures accurate evaluation of each option against standard nursing protocols.
2
Evaluate the options regarding compatibility and line maintenance.
Flushing lines and verifying Y-site compatibility are identified as essential safe practices. Infusing untested medications together is highly unsafe.
Preventing drug precipitation in the tubing and maintaining line patency are foundational to IV safety.
3
Evaluate the options regarding mathematical calculation and clinical prioritization.
Using kilograms for calculations is safe. Estimating drip rates and ignoring unstable clients to administer routine medications are unsafe practices.
Accurate mathematics and proper prioritization using the Airway-Breathing-Circulation (ABC) framework prevent critical patient harm.

Anahtar Kavram

Standard principles of safe parenteral therapy include rigorous compatibility checking, precise dosage calculation, maintaining line patency, and prioritizing unstable clients.
Soru 1448Soru →

A nurse is preparing to perform a routine central venous catheter (CVC) dressing change for a client receiving long-term parenteral nutrition. In what chronological order should the nurse perform the following steps to ensure strict aseptic technique and prevent catheter dislodgement?

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Cevap

The correct sequence is to first apply respiratory precautions (masking the client and turning their head), then remove the old dressing using clean gloves by pulling toward the insertion site. Following this, the nurse must transition to sterile technique by removing clean gloves, performing hand hygiene, and donning sterile gloves. The site is then scrubbed with chlorhexidine using friction, allowed to air-dry completely without fanning, and finally covered with a new sterile transparent dressing.
The central venous catheter dressing change must adhere to strict surgical asepsis to prevent central line-associated bloodstream infections (CLABSI). The sequence begins with respiratory precautions to protect the site from droplet contamination. Next, the old dressing is removed using clean gloves and pulling toward the insertion site to prevent catheter migration. After removing the contaminated dressing, the nurse must discard the clean gloves and perform hand hygiene before donning sterile gloves, marking the crucial transition from clean to sterile technique. The site is then decontaminated with chlorhexidine using mechanical friction and allowed to air-dry completely, as the drying process is required for the antiseptic to destroy cell walls of pathogens. Finally, the sterile transparent dressing is applied to seal the site.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Establish respiratory precautions
The client wears a mask and turns their head away from the field.
Prevents airborne and droplet contamination of the exposed CVC site from respiratory tracts.
2
Remove the existing dressing safely
Using clean gloves, the old dressing is peeled toward the catheter.
Clean gloves protect the nurse from exudate. Pulling toward the insertion site prevents accidental catheter migration or dislodgement.
3
Transition to a sterile field
Clean gloves are discarded, hand hygiene is performed, and sterile gloves are donned.
The exposed insertion site requires strict surgical asepsis for cleansing; the clean gloves used for removal are now contaminated.
4
Decontaminate the insertion site
Chlorhexidine is applied with vigorous back-and-forth friction.
Mechanical friction ensures the antiseptic penetrates the epidermis to eliminate resident skin flora.
5
Allow antimicrobial activation
The site air-dries completely on its own.
Chlorhexidine's bactericidal properties depend on the drying process. Active fanning introduces microorganisms.
6
Secure the site with a sterile barrier
A transparent semi-permeable dressing is applied over the dry site.
Seals the sterile site from environmental contaminants while allowing ongoing clinical assessment.

Anahtar Kavram

Central Venous Catheter (CVC) Infection Control and Sterile Technique
Tahmini Süre:2m 0s
Soru 1449Soru →

The nurse is caring for a client who was recently admitted with a massive pulmonary embolism. The client is currently receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of unfractionated heparin through a single-lumen peripheral catheter. A new prescription is received for an urgent dose of intravenous vancomycin to treat a suspected bloodstream infection. After consulting a drug reference and discovering that the two medications are physically incompatible, which action should the nurse take?

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Cevap: Insert a second peripheral intravenous catheter to administer the vancomycin.

Cevap

Insert a second peripheral intravenous catheter to administer the vancomycin.
Heparin is a high-alert medication with a short half-life (11 to 2 hours2\text{ hours}). Pausing this critical continuous infusion for the 6060 to 90 minutes90\text{ minutes} required to administer intravenous vancomycin would cause the client's anticoagulation levels to drop subtherapeutically, risking life-threatening clot extension. Because the medications are physically incompatible and cannot be mixed, the safest and most appropriate action is to establish a second peripheral intravenous line. This ensures the client receives the urgent antibiotic without interrupting the essential anticoagulation therapy.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the continuous infusion and its clinical purpose.
The client is receiving heparin for a massive pulmonary embolism.
Heparin has a short half-life and is critical for preventing life-threatening clot expansion in this unstable client.
2
Analyze the medication compatibility.
Heparin and vancomycin are physically incompatible.
Incompatible medications cannot be administered through the same intravenous line simultaneously due to the risk of precipitation.
3
Evaluate alternative administration methods.
Pausing the heparin for a vancomycin infusion (which typically takes 6060 to 90 minutes90\text{ minutes}) is unsafe.
Prolonged interruption of heparin therapy in a client with a massive pulmonary embolism compromises circulation and violates prioritization principles.
4
Determine the safest nursing intervention.
A second peripheral intravenous line must be established.
This allows both critical therapies to run continuously and safely without mixing or dangerous interruptions.

Anahtar Kavram

Management of physically incompatible intravenous medications during critical continuous infusions
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 1450Soru →

While rounding on the medical unit, a nurse prepares to administer a scheduled intravenous (IV) push medication to a patient. The patient currently has a continuous IV infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride running through a peripheral line. What is the most critical initial action the nurse should take to ensure safe medication administration?

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Cevap: Verify the compatibility of the prescribed IV push medication with the continuous IV fluid.

Cevap

Verify the compatibility of the prescribed IV push medication with the continuous IV fluid.
Before administering any IV push medication into an existing continuous infusion, the nurse must always verify that the two substances are compatible. Mixing incompatible medications or fluids can result in crystallization, precipitation, or reduced therapeutic efficacy, which poses a severe safety risk to the patient. This is a fundamental principle of safe parenteral therapy.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify that the patient has an existing continuous IV infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride.
The primary IV line contains a specific fluid that will come into direct contact with the new medication.
Recognizing the presence of continuous fluids is the first step in medication safety.
2
Acknowledge the risk of physical or chemical incompatibilities when two different substances mix in the same IV tubing.
The nurse understands that mixing incompatible medications can cause crystallization, precipitation, or reduced medication efficacy.
Understanding the mechanism of IV incompatibility reinforces the need for preventive safety checks.
3
Consult a drug reference guide, the pharmacy, or electronic health record compatibility charts.
The nurse confirms whether it is safe to push the medication into the running saline or if a different intervention (such as stopping the infusion and thoroughly flushing) is required.
Evidence-based verification is required before any parenteral administration to ensure patient safety.

Anahtar Kavram

Intravenous Medication Compatibility
Tahmini Süre:45s
Soru 1451Soru →

Following a right total hip arthroplasty, a nurse is establishing a plan of care to minimize potential postoperative complications. Which of the following interventions should be included? (Select all that apply.)

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Cevap: Maintain the operative leg in an abducted position while the client is resting in bed.; Place an abduction wedge between the client's legs when turning them to the unaffected side.; Instruct the client to avoid crossing their legs at the knees or ankles during recovery.; Apply the prescribed sequential compression devices (SCDs) to the bilateral lower extremities.

Cevap

The correct interventions to reduce postoperative complications are maintaining the leg in abduction, using an abduction wedge when turning, avoiding crossing the legs, and applying sequential compression devices.
To minimize postoperative complications following a total hip arthroplasty, the primary goals are preventing prosthesis dislocation and ensuring adequate venous return. Maintaining the operative leg in an abducted position, utilizing an abduction wedge during turns, and instructing the client not to cross their legs all effectively prevent hip adduction, a major cause of dislocation. Furthermore, applying sequential compression devices (SCDs) is a standard, evidence-based intervention that promotes blood flow and significantly reduces the risk of deep vein thrombosis.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the primary risks following a total hip arthroplasty.
The most common and severe complications include prosthesis dislocation, deep vein thrombosis (DVT), and surgical site issues like bleeding or infection.
Recognizing specific postoperative risks guides the selection of targeted, safe interventions.
2
Evaluate interventions related to client positioning.
Abducting the leg, using a wedge during turns, and avoiding crossing the legs correctly prevent adduction and dislocation. Flexing the hip to 110110 degrees is incorrect because flexion must remain below 9090 degrees.
Maintaining proper joint alignment is critical to preserving the integrity of the new hip prosthesis.
3
Evaluate interventions related to circulation and delegation.
Applying sequential compression devices safely reduces DVT risk. Delegating the initial wound assessment to a UAP is unsafe and outside their scope of practice.
Delegation rules require the RN to perform all initial assessments, and mechanical prophylaxis is a standard of care for DVT prevention.

Anahtar Kavram

Postoperative risk reduction and hip precautions following total hip arthroplasty.
Soru 1452Soru →

A medical-surgical nurse is preparing to administer a scheduled dose of intravenous ceftriaxone 1 g1\text{ g} to an adult client diagnosed with bacterial pneumonia. The client currently has a single-lumen peripheral venous catheter that is continuously infusing Lactated Ringer's solution at 125 mL/hr125\text{ mL/hr}. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention for safely delivering the prescribed antibiotic?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Suspend the running maintenance fluid, thoroughly flush the catheter with 0.9% sodium chloride, administer the antibiotic, and follow with another flush.

Cevap

Suspend the running maintenance fluid, thoroughly flush the catheter with 0.9% sodium chloride, administer the antibiotic, and follow with another flush.
Ceftriaxone is physically incompatible with calcium-containing solutions, such as Lactated Ringer's, because they form a dangerous precipitate when mixed. For an adult client with a single-lumen catheter, the nurse must ensure the incompatible fluids never interact by suspending the continuous fluid and thoroughly flushing the line with a compatible solution (such as 0.9% sodium chloride) before and after administering the antibiotic.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the active intravenous solutions and the prescribed medication.
The client is receiving continuous Lactated Ringer's solution, and the newly prescribed medication is ceftriaxone.
Recognizing the components of the current parenteral therapy is the critical first step in ensuring safe medication delivery.
2
Evaluate the compatibility of the prescribed antibiotic with the infusing maintenance fluid.
Ceftriaxone is fundamentally incompatible with Lactated Ringer's because Lactated Ringer's contains calcium, which rapidly forms a precipitate when mixed with this specific antibiotic.
Preventing the mixture of incompatible intravenous fluids averts the formation of life-threatening crystal emboli and catheter occlusion.
3
Determine the safest method to administer the medication using the existing single-lumen catheter.
The nurse must create a physical barrier between the incompatible solutions by temporarily suspending the Lactated Ringer's and flushing the line meticulously with a compatible fluid (0.9% sodium chloride) before and after the antibiotic.
Sequential administration with thorough normal saline flushes ensures the two incompatible fluids never interact within the intravenous tubing.

Anahtar Kavram

Intravenous Compatibility and Safe Sequential Administration
Tahmini Süre:1m 15s
Soru 1453Soru →

A nurse in the intensive care unit is caring for a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) who is mechanically ventilated. The most recent assessment reveals a mean arterial pressure (MAP) of 54 mm Hg54 \text{ mm Hg} and arterial blood gas (ABG) values showing: pH=7.25pH = 7.25, PaCO2=62 mm HgPaCO_2 = 62 \text{ mm Hg}, HCO3−=25 mEq/LHCO_3^- = 25 \text{ mEq/L}, and PaO2=54 mm HgPaO_2 = 54 \text{ mm Hg} on an FiO2FiO_2 of 0.800.80. To reduce the risk of further physiological deterioration, which of the following interventions should the nurse implement? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Prepare to initiate prescribed prone positioning therapy.; Prepare to administer a prescribed continuous infusion of a neuromuscular blocking agent.; Implement a prescribed conservative fluid management strategy to achieve a negative fluid balance.

Cevap

The correct interventions are: preparing to initiate prescribed prone positioning therapy, preparing to administer a prescribed continuous infusion of a neuromuscular blocking agent, and implementing a prescribed conservative fluid management strategy to achieve a negative fluid balance.
In severe ARDS, the primary goals are to improve oxygenation while maintaining hemodynamic stability. Prone positioning recruits collapsed posterior alveoli and improves ventilation-perfusion matching. Neuromuscular blocking agents eliminate patient-ventilator dyssynchrony and reduce cellular oxygen consumption. A conservative fluid management strategy reduces pulmonary edema, which improves lung compliance. All of these evidence-based actions directly reduce the risk of further physiological decompensation.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the arterial blood gas (ABG) results and the client's hemodynamic status.
The ABG reveals uncompensated respiratory acidosis and severe hypoxemia. The MAP of 54 mm Hg54 \text{ mm Hg} indicates clinically significant hypotension and shock.
Accurate interpretation of physiological data is essential to identify the risks of cardiopulmonary collapse before selecting interventions.
2
Evaluate the safety of adjusting mechanical ventilation settings.
Increasing PEEP is rejected due to the risk of worsening the client's hypotension.
High intrathoracic pressure from PEEP impedes venous return, which will exacerbate existing shock.
3
Evaluate positioning strategies for a client with severe hypoxemia.
Prone positioning is selected over the continuous supine position.
Prone positioning redistributes pulmonary blood flow and recruits dependent alveoli, significantly improving oxygenation.
4
Determine appropriate pharmacological and fluid management interventions.
Neuromuscular blockade and conservative fluid management are selected, while sodium bicarbonate is rejected.
Paralytics reduce oxygen demand, and fluid restriction minimizes pulmonary edema. Sodium bicarbonate is contraindicated because it generates additional carbon dioxide, worsening respiratory acidosis.

Anahtar Kavram

Management of severe Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS) and reduction of physiological complications
Tahmini Süre:2m 30s
Soru 1454Soru →

A critical care nurse is tasked with obtaining a blood specimen for a complete blood count (CBC) from a client's multi-lumen central venous catheter (CVC). A continuous infusion of total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is currently infusing through the medial lumen. Place the following steps for obtaining the blood sample in the correct sequential order. (Arrange the steps from first to last).

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Cevap

The correct sequence is: Pause the TPN, scrub the connector, flush with 10 mL of normal saline, discard the first 5 mL of blood, withdraw the sample, and finally flush with 20 mL of normal saline.
When obtaining blood from a CVC, the nurse must first pause any active infusions to avoid sample contamination. Aseptic technique is initiated by scrubbing the hub. A 10 mL normal saline flush confirms patency and clears the line. The discard method (removing 4 to 5 mL of blood) ensures the subsequent sample is undiluted. Finally, a larger volume flush (10 to 20 mL) using a push-pause technique clears the line of blood, reducing the risk of thrombosis.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Pause the TPN infusion.
The flow of TPN is stopped.
Prevents contamination of the blood sample with TPN components, which would cause falsely elevated lab values.
2
Scrub the needleless connector.
The access port is disinfected.
Maintains strict asepsis and prevents central line-associated bloodstream infections (CLABSI).
3
Flush with 10 mL 0.9% sodium chloride.
The catheter is assessed for patency.
Ensures the line is open and functioning properly before attempting a blood draw.
4
Aspirate and discard 5 mL of blood.
Diluted blood is removed from the line.
Removes the saline flush and any residual fluid from the catheter space, ensuring the actual sample is pure.
5
Withdraw the required blood volume.
The diagnostic sample is obtained.
Provides an undiluted, accurate sample for the complete blood count (CBC).
6
Flush with 20 mL 0.9% sodium chloride.
The catheter is cleared of all blood.
Prevents blood from clotting inside the lumen, which could lead to catheter occlusion.

Anahtar Kavram

The discard method is the standard of practice for obtaining blood samples from a central venous catheter to ensure accurate laboratory results and maintain catheter patency.
Soru 1455Soru →

A primary health care provider prescribes a continuous intravenous heparin infusion for a client diagnosed with a deep vein thrombosis. The client's admission weight is 198 lb198\text{ lb}. The prescribed infusion rate is 15 units/kg/hr15\text{ units/kg/hr}, and the medication arrives from the pharmacy as a premixed 500 mL500\text{ mL} bag containing 25,000 units25,000\text{ units} of heparin. At what rate should the nurse set the infusion pump in mL/hr\text{mL/hr}? (Record the answer as a whole number)

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: 27

Cevap

27
To solve this calculation, first convert pounds to kilograms: 198÷2.2=90 kg198 \div 2.2 = 90\text{ kg}. Next, calculate the hourly dose: 15 units×90 kg=1350 units/hr15\text{ units} \times 90\text{ kg} = 1350\text{ units/hr}. Finally, calculate the volume using dimensional analysis or the D/H x V formula: (1350 units/hr÷25,000 units)×500 mL=27 mL/hr(1350\text{ units/hr} \div 25,000\text{ units}) \times 500\text{ mL} = 27\text{ mL/hr}.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms.
198 lb÷2.2 lb/kg=90 kg198\text{ lb} \div 2.2\text{ lb/kg} = 90\text{ kg}
The prescribed heparin rate is weight-based in kilograms, so the client's weight must first be converted into the appropriate unit.
2
Calculate the hourly dose of heparin required.
15 units/kg/hr×90 kg=1350 units/hr15\text{ units/kg/hr} \times 90\text{ kg} = 1350\text{ units/hr}
Multiplying the weight-based prescription by the client's total weight in kilograms yields the total number of units required per hour.
3
Determine the concentration of the supplied heparin solution.
25,000 units÷500 mL=50 units/mL25,000\text{ units} \div 500\text{ mL} = 50\text{ units/mL}
To find out how many units are in a single milliliter, divide the total units in the bag by the total volume of the bag.
4
Calculate the required infusion rate in mL/hr.
1350 units/hr÷50 units/mL=27 mL/hr1350\text{ units/hr} \div 50\text{ units/mL} = 27\text{ mL/hr}
Dividing the required hourly dose by the concentration provides the volume that must be infused per hour to deliver that dose.

Anahtar Kavram

Weight-Based Intravenous Medication Calculations
Soru 1456Soru →

A 54-year-old client is being monitored on the acute care unit 90 minutes after an ultrasound-guided percutaneous liver biopsy. The client's baseline vital signs upon arrival to the unit were a blood pressure of 136/74 mm Hg and a heart rate of 72 beats per minute. Upon reassessment, the nurse notes the client is increasingly restless, with a blood pressure of 114/92 mm Hg, a heart rate of 108 beats per minute, and a respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute. The client also mentions a newly developed dull ache in the right shoulder. To minimize the risk of a severe physiological complication, which of the following actions must the nurse implement?

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Cevap: Maintain the client in a right lateral position and urgently contact the healthcare provider.

Cevap

The nurse must ensure the client remains in a right lateral position and notify the healthcare provider immediately, as the assessment findings indicate internal bleeding and early hemorrhagic shock.
The client is exhibiting early signs of hemorrhagic shock, indicated by the narrowed pulse pressure, tachycardia, and restlessness. Furthermore, new-onset right shoulder pain post-liver biopsy strongly suggests referred pain from diaphragmatic irritation caused by blood accumulation. Maintaining the client in a right lateral position is critical to keep pressure on the liver capsule to tamponade the bleeding site, and the healthcare provider must be notified immediately for further medical intervention.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the vital sign trends from baseline to the current assessment.
The blood pressure has dropped and the pulse pressure has significantly narrowed (from 62 mm Hg to 22 mm Hg), accompanied by new tachycardia (108 bpm) and tachypnea (22 breaths/min).
Narrowing pulse pressure, tachycardia, and restlessness are classic compensatory signs of early (stage II) hemorrhagic shock.
2
Evaluate the clinical significance of the client's new right shoulder pain.
The shoulder pain is identified as Kehr's sign.
Following an invasive abdominal procedure like a liver biopsy, right shoulder pain indicates referred pain from blood accumulating under the diaphragm and irritating the phrenic nerve.
3
Determine the priority risk reduction intervention based on the clinical picture.
The nurse must act to control the bleeding and escalate care.
Maintaining a right lateral (side-lying) decubitus position applies direct physical pressure against the chest wall to the liver capsule, which is essential to tamponade the bleeding site until medical intervention occurs.

Anahtar Kavram

Early recognition of shock and post-procedure risk mitigation
Soru 1457Soru →

A 78-year-old client with moderate cognitive impairment is receiving intravenous therapy for a respiratory infection. The client is agitated, repeatedly picks at the venous access site, and exhibits new-onset urinary incontinence. Which basic care and comfort interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

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Cevap: Cover the intravenous insertion site loosely with a continuous stockinette bandage.; Cleanse the perineal region with a pH-balanced, no-rinse cleanser after each incontinent episode.; Provide the client with a textured sensory blanket to fold and manipulate with their hands.

Cevap

The appropriate basic care and comfort interventions include covering the intravenous site with a stockinette, providing prompt perineal cleansing with a pH-balanced cleanser, and offering a sensory blanket for diversional activity.
The correct basic care interventions prioritize client comfort, safety, and skin integrity without resorting to restrictive measures. Concealing the IV site with a stockinette and providing a textured sensory blanket are highly effective non-pharmacologic comfort strategies and restraint alternatives for agitated or cognitively impaired clients. Promptly cleansing the perineum with a pH-balanced, no-rinse cleanser is a fundamental hygiene practice that prevents moisture-associated skin breakdown following incontinent episodes.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation.
The client has moderate cognitive impairment, agitation with picking at the IV site, and new-onset urinary incontinence.
Identifying all active clinical issues ensures a comprehensive approach to the client's basic care and safety needs.
2
Identify safe, non-pharmacologic comfort measures to protect the IV site.
Covering the site with a stockinette and providing diversional activities (like a sensory blanket) are selected.
These interventions are effective restraint alternatives that maintain therapy access while prioritizing client comfort.
3
Address the hygiene and skin integrity needs related to new-onset incontinence.
Prompt perineal cleansing with a pH-balanced, no-rinse cleanser is selected as a priority intervention.
Urine is irritating to the skin; appropriate cleansing prevents moisture-associated dermatitis and breakdown.
4
Evaluate the remaining options against nursing scope of practice and physiological safety.
The options involving normalizing new incontinence, delegating risk assessment, and continuous high-Fowler's positioning are rejected.
New incontinence requires medical evaluation, clinical risk assessments cannot be delegated, and 90-degree positioning increases shearing forces.

Anahtar Kavram

Implementing non-pharmacologic comfort measures, maintaining skin integrity, and prioritizing safe basic care for cognitively impaired clients.
Soru 1458Soru →

A nurse is developing a comprehensive care plan for an elderly client with end-stage heart failure who is experiencing profound dyspnea at rest, severe fatigue, and anorexia. Which of the following basic care and comfort interventions should the nurse include in the client's plan of care? (Select all that apply.)

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

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Cevap: Position the client in an orthopneic posture, leaning forward over an overbed table with arms supported by pillows.; Provide small, nutrient-dense meals on a frequent basis rather than three large meals daily.; Direct a gentle stream of cool air from a handheld fan toward the client's face during episodes of severe breathlessness.

Cevap

The correct interventions include positioning the client in an orthopneic posture, providing small and frequent nutrient-dense meals, and directing a gentle stream of cool air toward the client's face during breathless episodes.
The correct interventions prioritize airway management, breathing efficacy, and energy conservation. The orthopneic posture maximizes chest expansion and decreases the work of breathing. Small, frequent meals prevent excessive energy expenditure and avoid the diaphragmatic pressure associated with large meals. Using a fan to blow cool air on the face safely stimulates the trigeminal nerve, effectively reducing the uncomfortable sensation of breathlessness.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation and care needs.
The client has end-stage heart failure causing severe dyspnea (orthopnea), extreme fatigue, and anorexia.
Identifying the primary symptom burden allows for targeted basic care and comfort interventions.
2
Evaluate the positioning and comfort options.
The orthopneic position and the use of a cool fan to the face are evidence-based non-pharmacological comfort measures for severe dyspnea. A flat, supine position is contraindicated as it worsens orthopnea.
Positioning must prioritize the airway and breathing (ABCs) over the reduction of peripheral edema.
3
Evaluate the nutritional interventions.
Small, frequent, nutrient-dense meals are appropriate.
This approach minimizes the energy required for digestion and eating, directly accommodating the client's severe dyspnea, anorexia, and fatigue.
4
Evaluate the delegation and assessment options.
Assessing edema and identifying the cause of acute delirium (sudden confusion) require independent nursing judgment.
Assessments cannot be delegated to a UAP. Furthermore, sudden confusion is a pathological finding (such as hypoxia), not a normal change related to aging.

Anahtar Kavram

Prioritization of non-pharmacological dyspnea management, safe positioning, and appropriate nursing delegation in the context of severe cardiopulmonary disease.
Soru 1459Soru →

A client is transferred to the medical-surgical unit after undergoing an esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD) with a gastric biopsy under conscious sedation. Which of the following nursing actions and assessments should the nurse implement to reduce the risk of postoperative complications? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

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Cevap: Withhold all oral fluids and medications until the client demonstrates a return of the gag and swallow reflexes.; Assess the client for new-onset, severe abdominal, chest, or neck pain with accompanying abdominal rigidity.

Cevap

The nurse must withhold all oral intake until the gag reflex returns to prevent aspiration, and must assess for severe abdominal, chest, or neck pain which indicates a potential gastrointestinal perforation.
The correct actions focus on mitigating the highest priority risks post-EGD. Local anesthetics suppress the gag reflex, making aspiration a severe risk until the reflex fully returns. Additionally, a gastric biopsy can cause a tear or perforation in the gastrointestinal tract, which classically presents with severe, sudden-onset abdominal, chest, or neck pain alongside abdominal rigidity.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the procedure and the client's current status.
The client had an EGD with gastric biopsy under conscious sedation. The primary risks include aspiration, respiratory depression, hemorrhage, and viscus perforation.
Identifying potential procedure-specific complications guides the required nursing assessments and interventions.
2
Evaluate the correct options against known risks.
Withholding oral intake mitigates the risk of aspiration due to lingering local anesthesia. Assessing for severe pain and rigidity directly monitors for gastrointestinal perforation.
These actions directly address the most life-threatening complications of an EGD.
3
Critique the remaining options for safety and physiological accuracy.
Flat positioning increases aspiration risk. Initial assessments cannot be delegated. Narrowing pulse pressure is an early sign of shock requiring immediate reporting. The provided ABG demonstrates uncompensated respiratory acidosis, a medical emergency.
Eliminating incorrect actions ensures adherence to safe delegation, accurate clinical interpretation, and early recognition of physiological deterioration.

Anahtar Kavram

Post-procedure care following endoscopy focuses on maintaining airway patency, preventing aspiration, and detecting early signs of severe complications such as perforation, hemorrhage, and over-sedation.
Tahmini Süre:2m 0s
Soru 1460Soru →

While monitoring a client receiving an infusion of packed red blood cells, the nurse notes the client suddenly develops chills, dyspnea, and flank pain. Arrange the following nursing actions in the correct priority sequence to mitigate further physiological risk.

Öğeleri doğru sıraya koymak için sürükleyin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

The correct sequence is to first stop the transfusion, maintain the IV line with normal saline using new tubing, assess the client, notify the provider and blood bank, and finally return the blood products for testing.
When a hemolytic transfusion reaction is suspected (indicated by chills, dyspnea, and flank pain), the absolute highest priority is stopping the source of harm. Immediately after stopping the transfusion, the nurse must maintain a patent IV line for emergency medications by infusing normal saline through entirely new tubing. Once the client's line is secure, the nurse assesses the client to gather data, notifies the provider to get medical orders, and finally sends the remaining blood products to the lab for investigation. This chronological sequence prioritizes immediate life-saving actions over assessment and reporting.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Stop the blood transfusion immediately.
The administration of the incompatible blood product is halted.
Preventing further antigen exposure is the absolute highest priority to minimize physiological harm.
2
Disconnect the blood tubing and initiate a normal saline infusion with new IV tubing.
The IV line remains patent and free of additional blood.
Emergency medications and fluids will be needed; new tubing ensures that any blood left in the old tubing is not inadvertently flushed into the client.
3
Assess the client's vital signs and respiratory status.
Current physiological data is obtained.
The nurse needs a rapid, accurate clinical picture of the client's stability to communicate to the provider.
4
Notify the healthcare provider and the blood bank.
Medical interventions are ordered and the facility protocol is activated.
The provider will prescribe medications like antihistamines, corticosteroids, or vasopressors based on the assessment findings.
5
Send the blood bag, attached tubing, and labels back to the blood bank.
The physical evidence is secured for investigation.
Laboratory analysis is required to confirm a hemolytic reaction and prevent future mismatches.

Anahtar Kavram

Management of Acute Hemolytic Transfusion Reactions
Tahmini Süre:1m 0s
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Physiological Integrity Alıştırma Soruları — NCLEX-RN — Sayfa 73 | Examkin