Physiological Integrity

1960 soru

Soru 1461Soru →

A nurse is assessing a client who underwent a bedside thoracentesis 1 hour ago to drain a large pleural effusion. To reduce the risk of a life-threatening complication, which assessment finding requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?

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Cevap: Sudden-onset tachypnea, asymmetric chest wall expansion, and absent breath sounds on the procedural side

Cevap

The sudden onset of tachypnea, asymmetric chest wall expansion, and absent breath sounds on the procedural side.
The correct answer identifies the hallmark signs of a pneumothorax: tachypnea, unequal chest expansion, and diminished or absent breath sounds on the affected side. A pneumothorax is a severe, life-threatening complication of a thoracentesis that requires immediate medical intervention, such as chest tube placement, to re-expand the lung.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the procedure and its associated risks.
A thoracentesis involves inserting a needle into the pleural space. The most significant immediate risk is a pneumothorax (lung collapse) due to inadvertent puncture of the lung tissue.
Understanding the high-risk complications of a specific procedure directs the focused assessment.
2
Evaluate the clinical significance of each option.
The ABG values are normal, the high-Fowler's position is beneficial, and mild insertion site pain is expected. Asymmetric chest expansion and absent breath sounds, however, indicate a loss of lung inflation.
Differentiating between expected outcomes, normal variants, and pathological indicators is essential for safe triage.
3
Prioritize the findings based on the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation).
The finding indicating a pneumothorax directly compromises breathing and oxygenation, making it the highest priority.
Life-threatening respiratory compromise always takes precedence over expected procedural discomfort or normal physiological findings.

Anahtar Kavram

Thoracentesis Complications and Pneumothorax Assessment
Soru 1462Soru →

A client receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of unfractionated heparin at 1,500 units/hr1,500\text{ units/hr} through a dedicated 20-gauge peripheral catheter suddenly reports a severe "thunderclap" headache and exhibits unequal pupils. The nurse immediately stops the infusion pump due to suspected intracranial hemorrhage. The healthcare provider prescribes stat intravenous protamine sulfate. What is the most critical action the nurse must take to safely utilize the existing vascular access for the antidote administration?

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Cevap: Disconnect the continuous infusion tubing at the catheter hub, aspirate the residual volume, and flush with 0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride.

Cevap

The nurse must disconnect the primary tubing at the hub, aspirate to remove residual medication from the catheter, and flush with normal saline.
The client is experiencing a highly critical bleeding event (suspected intracranial hemorrhage). While the heparin pump has been stopped, the intravenous catheter itself (the "dead space") is still filled with concentrated heparin. To safely use this existing line for the antidote, the nurse must first disconnect the heparin tubing and use a syringe to aspirate the residual blood and medication directly from the catheter hub. Flushing with 0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride afterward ensures the line is clear and safe for protamine sulfate administration.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Recognize the clinical emergency.
The client's severe headache and unequal pupils strongly suggest an intracranial hemorrhage, a life-threatening adverse effect of heparin.
Immediate cessation of the anticoagulant is required to prevent further bleeding.
2
Stop the infusion pump.
The continuous delivery of heparin is halted.
This is the first immediate action to limit further systemic anticoagulation.
3
Clear the intravenous catheter dead space.
The nurse disconnects the tubing, attaches a syringe directly to the hub, and aspirates a small amount of blood to remove residual heparin from the cannula.
Even though the pump is stopped, the catheter cannula inside the vein remains filled with highly concentrated heparin. Flushing without aspirating would inadvertently bolus this medication into the client.
4
Flush the line and administer the antidote.
The nurse flushes the cleared catheter with 0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride and slowly administers the prescribed protamine sulfate.
Ensures a patent, uncontaminated line for the safe delivery of the reversal agent without risking precipitation or an accidental heparin bolus.

Anahtar Kavram

Prevention of inadvertent medication bolus from intravenous dead space during critical medication reversals.
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 1463Soru →

While managing the care of a client recovering from a recent left total hip replacement (posterior approach), the nurse must implement specific positioning and safety measures. Which action by the nurse is correct?

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Cevap: Maintain an abduction wedge between the lower extremities when turning the client onto their unaffected side.

Cevap

The correct action is to maintain an abduction wedge between the lower extremities when turning the client onto their unaffected side.
For a client recovering from a posterior total hip arthroplasty, maintaining the affected leg in a neutral or slightly abducted position is critical to prevent joint dislocation. Using an abduction wedge or pillow between the lower extremities when turning the client onto their unaffected side ensures the affected hip does not cross the body's midline (adduction), thereby protecting the surgical site and maintaining joint stability.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the surgical procedure and its specific anatomical approach.
The client underwent a left total hip arthroplasty utilizing a posterior approach.
The surgical approach dictates the specific biomechanical precautions required to prevent joint dislocation during the recovery period.
2
Recall the positioning and movement restrictions for a posterior hip arthroplasty.
Postoperative precautions include avoiding hip flexion greater than 90 degrees, avoiding internal rotation, and avoiding adduction of the affected leg across the midline.
These specific joint movements place severe stress on the posterior joint capsule, heavily risking prosthesis dislocation.
3
Evaluate the nursing actions in the options against these precautions and standard care guidelines.
Using an abduction wedge correctly prevents adduction during turning. Sitting the client at 90 degrees violates the flexion restriction. Delegating an initial assessment violates nursing scope of practice. Dismissing acute confusion as normal aging ignores potential physiological complications.
Applying safe care principles ensures evidence-based, complication-free postoperative recovery.

Anahtar Kavram

Postoperative positioning and basic care precautions for posterior approach total hip arthroplasty
Soru 1464Soru →

During bedside rounds on an orthopedic unit, the charge nurse observes a newly hired nurse preparing to assist a client onto a bedpan. The client had a left total hip arthroplasty (posterior surgical approach) two days ago. Which action by the newly hired nurse demonstrates the safest technique for this procedure?

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Cevap: Instructing the client to maintain the left leg in a straight, neutral position while bending the right knee and pushing down to lift the pelvis for a fracture pan

Cevap

The safest technique is for the client to keep the operative (left) leg straight and neutral while bending the non-operative (right) knee to lift the pelvis, allowing the nurse to slide a fracture pan underneath.
Following a total hip arthroplasty with a posterior approach, the client must strictly avoid hip flexion greater than 90 degrees, hip adduction (crossing the midline), and internal rotation to prevent prosthesis dislocation. Instructing the client to keep the operative leg straight and neutral while using the non-operative leg to bridge the pelvis safely adheres to all hip precautions. Using a fracture pan is also correct, as its low profile requires less pelvic elevation than a standard bedpan.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the surgical procedure and associated movement restrictions.
The client had a left total hip arthroplasty via a posterior approach. Hip flexion greater than 90 degrees, adduction across the midline, and internal rotation are contraindicated.
These specific movements can cause the head of the femur to dislocate posteriorly from the acetabulum.
2
Evaluate the safest method for bedpan placement while maintaining precautions.
A fracture pan should be used to minimize the need for lifting the pelvis high. The operative leg must remain straight and in neutral alignment.
Standard bedpans require significant lifting and hip flexion, which can compromise the surgical site.
3
Select the option that adheres to these constraints.
Keeping the left leg straight while bending the right knee to bridge the pelvis avoids adduction, internal rotation, and excessive hip flexion.
The non-operative leg is used safely to assist with movement without putting stress on the newly placed hip prosthesis.

Anahtar Kavram

Basic Care and Comfort: Safe Client Positioning and Elimination
Soru 1465Soru →

To promote hemostasis and prevent bleeding complications after a percutaneous liver biopsy, the healthcare team must ensure the client maintains a specific resting posture. Which positioning strategy is correct for this client during the immediate post-procedure period?

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Cevap: Right side-lying position with a small towel or pillow placed under the puncture site

Cevap

Right side-lying position with a small towel or pillow placed under the puncture site
Because the liver is a highly vascular organ situated in the right upper quadrant, it is extremely susceptible to bleeding after a percutaneous puncture. The correct position utilizes the client's own body weight against the bed to apply continuous, direct pressure to the right side, which splints the puncture site and actively promotes hemostasis.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the primary anatomical location of the liver.
The liver is a highly vascular organ located in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen.
Knowing the anatomical location dictates the intervention needed for localized compression.
2
Recognize the most significant immediate complication of a percutaneous liver biopsy.
Hemorrhage is the highest risk because the liver is highly vascular and the procedure involves puncturing its capsule.
Prioritization of care focuses on minimizing life-threatening risks immediately after an invasive procedure.
3
Determine the physical mechanism required to stop or prevent bleeding.
Applying direct, external pressure to the puncture site promotes clotting and hemostasis.
Direct pressure mechanically occludes severed vessels until a stable clot forms.
4
Select the position that best achieves this mechanical compression.
Placing the client on their right side allows their own body weight and the mattress (or a small towel) to splint the puncture site.
This utilizes gravity and body mass to provide continuous, non-invasive pressure to the right side.

Anahtar Kavram

Post-procedure Positioning for Hemostasis
Soru 1466Soru →

A clinical team is providing hygiene and mobility support for a bedfast client who exhibits new-onset urinary incontinence and a localized, non-blanchable redness over the sacral area. Which interventions are appropriate for this client? Select all that apply.

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Cevap: Apply a zinc oxide-based moisture barrier cream to the perineum after cleansing.; Utilize a friction-reducing device, such as a lift sheet, when repositioning the client in bed.; Establish an individualized turning schedule that rotates the client's position at least every two hours.

Cevap

The appropriate interventions include applying a moisture barrier cream to the perineum, utilizing a friction-reducing device during repositioning, and establishing a turning schedule of at least every two hours.
Maintaining basic care and comfort for a bedfast client with impaired skin integrity requires strategies that minimize pressure, shear, and moisture. Applying a zinc-oxide moisture barrier protects the skin from the corrosive effects of urine. Using a lift sheet minimizes friction and shearing forces that damage fragile epidermal layers during movement. Repositioning the client at least every two hours ensures that blood flow is restored to vulnerable tissues over bony prominences like the sacrum.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's risk factors and clinical presentation.
The client is bedfast (immobility risk), has new-onset incontinence (moisture/pathology risk), and has non-blanchable sacral redness (Stage 1 pressure injury).
Identifying the specific threats to the client's skin integrity and basic comfort guides appropriate evidence-based interventions.
2
Evaluate each intervention for safety, efficacy, and scope of practice.
Moisture barriers, friction-reducing devices, and frequent turning directly mitigate moisture and pressure risks. High Fowler's positioning, delegating assessments, and ignoring new-onset incontinence are unsafe or improper practices.
Nursing interventions must adhere to standard protocols for pressure injury prevention and proper delegation guidelines.

Anahtar Kavram

Basic Care and Comfort: Skin Integrity and Mobility Interventions
Soru 1467Soru →

A nurse is caring for a 62-year-old client who underwent a cardiac catheterization via the right femoral artery 2 hours ago for the evaluation of ischemic heart disease. Which of the following nursing actions will reduce the client's risk for post-procedure complications? Select all that apply.

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Cevap: Instructing the client to keep the right leg straight and immobilized.; Palpating the bilateral pedal pulses and comparing the temperature of the lower extremities.; Encouraging an increased intake of oral fluids unless contraindicated by the client's cardiopulmonary status.

Cevap

The correct actions include instructing the client to keep the right leg straight, assessing bilateral pedal pulses and limb temperature, and encouraging oral fluid intake.
To reduce risk potential after a femoral cardiac catheterization, the nurse must prevent bleeding by keeping the affected extremity straight, monitor for arterial occlusion via frequent bilateral neurovascular checks, and promote the excretion of nephrotoxic contrast media by encouraging fluid hydration.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the anatomical site and the specific procedure performed.
The client had a cardiac catheterization via the right femoral artery.
Determines the specific procedural risks, such as femoral bleeding, retroperitoneal hemorrhage, and distal limb ischemia.
2
Evaluate each nursing action against evidence-based risk reduction strategies for femoral artery punctures.
Straightening the leg, frequent neurovascular checks, and hydration are protective measures. High Fowler's positioning, delegating critical assessments, and ignoring early shock signs are harmful.
Differentiates between actions that mitigate complications and those that actively increase the risk of physiological decompensation.

Anahtar Kavram

Post-Cardiac Catheterization Care and Complication Prevention
Soru 1468Soru →

An adult client is admitted to the gastroenterology unit and requires continuous total parenteral nutrition (TPN). The TPN is infusing through a single-lumen peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC). The client has a new prescription for a scheduled intravenous (IV) dose of pantoprazole. Which action should the nurse take to safely administer the medication?

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Cevap: Establish a new peripheral intravenous access site to administer the prescribed pantoprazole

Cevap

The correct action is to establish a new peripheral intravenous access site to administer the prescribed pantoprazole.
Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is a complex, highly concentrated solution that requires a dedicated intravenous line due to the high risk of chemical incompatibility and precipitation with other medications. Additionally, the high glucose content of TPN makes the line highly susceptible to bacterial and fungal infections. Because the client has a single-lumen PICC currently dedicated to the TPN, the nurse cannot use this line for any other infusions or medications. The safest and only appropriate action is to establish a separate peripheral intravenous site for the administration of the pantoprazole.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the client's current intravenous access and existing continuous infusions.
The client has a single-lumen PICC that is actively being used for a continuous TPN infusion.
Recognizing the type of line and current infusion is necessary to evaluate if the site can be safely used for additional medications.
2
Evaluate the compatibility and safety guidelines for administering medications alongside TPN.
Evidence-based practice dictates that TPN must always have a dedicated intravenous line or a dedicated lumen in a multi-lumen central catheter.
TPN has a high risk of chemical incompatibility with most medications and poses a high risk for infection due to its concentrated glucose and lipid content.
3
Determine the safest method to administer the newly prescribed intravenous medication.
The nurse must start a new peripheral intravenous catheter for the pantoprazole.
Since the current single-lumen PICC is occupied by TPN and cannot be shared, piggybacked into, or safely interrupted, a secondary access site is clinically required.

Anahtar Kavram

Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN) Safe Administration and Dedicated Line Protocol
Soru 1469Soru →

A nurse is preparing to administer a scheduled dose of intravenous (IV) piggyback ceftriaxone to a client admitted with pneumonia. The client currently has a continuous IV infusion of parenteral nutrition (PN) running at 75 mL/hr75\text{ mL/hr} through a central venous catheter. Which action must the nurse prioritize first?

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Cevap: Verify the compatibility of ceftriaxone with the parenteral nutrition using a drug reference guide.

Cevap

The nurse must first verify the compatibility of ceftriaxone with the parenteral nutrition using a drug reference guide.
The most critical priority when administering multiple intravenous fluids or medications through a single line is to ensure they are chemically and physically compatible. Parenteral nutrition is a highly complex nutritional mixture that is incompatible with a wide variety of medications. Verifying compatibility prevents the formation of precipitates, which can occlude the central venous catheter or cause a fatal embolism in the client.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the primary continuous infusion and the prescribed secondary medication.
The client is receiving complex parenteral nutrition (PN) continuously and is prescribed a secondary IV piggyback antibiotic.
Recognizing that multiple IV fluids will be infusing through the same central line access prompts the need for an immediate safety check.
2
Prioritize nursing actions based on fundamental safety principles.
Safety checks must precede any procedural setup, calculation, or delegation.
Administering incompatible medications can result in line occlusion from precipitation, drug inactivation, or systemic harm to the client.
3
Select the intervention that addresses the most critical physiological safety risk.
Checking a drug reference guide for compatibility is determined to be the absolute first priority action.
Compatibility must be established definitively before taking any physical steps to administer the medication.

Anahtar Kavram

IV Medication Compatibility and Administration Safety
Soru 1470Soru →

A client hospitalized with severe cellulitis requires scheduled doses of intravenous vancomycin. The client has an active, continuous heparin drip running via a dedicated single-lumen peripheral catheter. Which of the following nursing actions are necessary for safe administration and monitoring? Select all that apply.

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Cevap: Administer the medication over a minimum of 60 minutes to reduce the risk of severe hypotension.; Assess the client for a sudden onset of severe flushing and a macular rash on the upper body.; Review the client's serum creatinine and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) laboratory results regularly.

Cevap

The correct actions include administering the medication over at least 60 minutes, assessing for signs of flushing and rash (Red Man Syndrome), and monitoring serum creatinine and BUN levels.
Vancomycin is a potent antibiotic with known risks of nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity, and infusion-related reactions. It is essential to monitor renal function markers (BUN and creatinine) to prevent kidney damage. The medication must be infused slowly over at least 60 minutes to prevent Red Man Syndrome, which presents as intense flushing, erythema, and pruritus of the face, neck, and upper torso. The nurse must actively assess for this reaction during the infusion.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Evaluate the medication's administration guidelines and known adverse effects.
Identified that vancomycin requires slow infusion (minimum 60 minutes) and can cause Red Man Syndrome and nephrotoxicity.
Understanding the pharmacokinetic profile of high-alert medications prevents severe infusion reactions and end-organ damage.
2
Assess the compatibility of vancomycin with the client's current intravenous therapy.
Determined that vancomycin and heparin are physically incompatible.
Preventing drug precipitation in the IV line avoids potential emboli and loss of venous access.
3
Determine appropriate delegation of care for the infusion site.
Recognized that IV site assessment cannot be delegated to unlicensed assistive personnel.
Clinical judgment and evaluation are exclusively the responsibility of the registered nurse.

Anahtar Kavram

Safe administration of high-alert parenteral medications requires assessing IV compatibility, monitoring for specific toxicities, and adhering to strict infusion rate limits.
Soru 1471Soru →

A nurse is caring for a client with decompensated liver cirrhosis who has just undergone a therapeutic paracentesis with the removal of 6.56.5 liters of ascitic fluid. Thirty minutes after the procedure, the client reports feeling lightheaded. The puncture site dressing is dry and intact.

ParameterPre-ProcedureCurrent
Blood Pressure126/74126/74 mmHg104/82104/82 mmHg
Heart Rate8484 bpm114114 bpm
Respiratory Rate1818 breaths/min2626 breaths/min

Current arterial blood gas (ABG) on room air:
pH: 7.497.49
PaCO 2_2: 3030 mmHg
PaO 2_2: 8888 mmHg
HCO 3−_3^-: 2323 mEq/L

Which of the following is the priority nursing action to reduce the client's risk of a severe physiological complication?

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Cevap: Initiate the prescribed intravenous albumin infusion.

Cevap

The correct action is to initiate the prescribed intravenous albumin infusion.
The correct answer is to initiate the prescribed intravenous albumin infusion. The client is exhibiting classic signs of Post-Paracentesis Circulatory Dysfunction (PPCD), a form of hypovolemic shock caused by rapid fluid shifts and splanchnic vasodilation after the removal of large volumes of ascitic fluid. The profoundly narrowing pulse pressure (dropping from 5252 mmHg to 2222 mmHg), tachycardia, tachypnea, and lightheadedness are early compensatory mechanisms for cardiovascular collapse. Albumin acts as a powerful colloid volume expander, increasing intravascular oncotic pressure to pull fluid back into the vascular space and mitigate this life-threatening fluid shift.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's vital sign trends and current clinical presentation.
The client has a significantly narrowing pulse pressure (dropping from 5252 mmHg to 2222 mmHg), new-onset tachycardia (114114 bpm), and tachypnea (2626 breaths/min) accompanied by lightheadedness.
These are hallmark compensatory signs of early distributive/hypovolemic shock.
2
Correlate the clinical findings with the recent procedure.
The client had 6.56.5 liters of fluid removed during paracentesis, placing them at high risk for Post-Paracentesis Circulatory Dysfunction (PPCD).
Rapid removal of large volumes of ascites (typically >5> 5 liters) causes profound splanchnic vasodilation and fluid shifts out of the intravascular space into the peritoneal cavity.
3
Evaluate the arterial blood gas (ABG) results in the context of the clinical picture.
The ABG indicates uncompensated respiratory alkalosis, which is a sympathetic and compensatory response to shock and hypoxia at the tissue level, rather than a primary respiratory disorder.
Treating the ABG abnormality in isolation would dangerously ignore the underlying life-threatening hemodynamic instability.
4
Determine the absolute priority nursing intervention for risk reduction.
The nurse must immediately initiate the prescribed intravenous albumin infusion.
Albumin is a colloid that increases intravascular oncotic pressure, pulling fluid back into the vascular space and preventing the progression of PPCD to severe cardiovascular collapse.

Anahtar Kavram

Recognition and Prevention of Post-Paracentesis Circulatory Dysfunction (PPCD)
Tahmini Süre:2m 0s
Soru 1472Soru →

A rapid response nurse is managing a client who experienced a severe extravasation of a continuous norepinephrine infusion from a peripheral intravenous catheter. Following the facility's extravasation management protocol, the primary health care provider prescribes phentolamine mesylate 0.15 mg/kg0.15\text{ mg/kg} to be infiltrated subcutaneously around the ischemic site.

The client weighs 191.4 lbs191.4\text{ lbs}.

The pharmacy dispenses phentolamine in lyophilized vials, which the nurse reconstitutes to yield a concentration of 5 mg/mL5\text{ mg/mL}.

The protocol mandates that the exact calculated phentolamine dose must be further diluted with 0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride to achieve a final total syringe volume of 12 mL12\text{ mL} prior to administration.

How many milliliters (mL\text{mL}) of 0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride must the nurse draw up to mix with the phentolamine? Record your answer to the nearest tenth.

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Cevap: 9.4

Cevap

The nurse must draw up 9.4 mL of 0.9% sodium chloride.
To determine the correct amount of diluent, the nurse must first convert the client's weight to kilograms (191.4 lbs÷2.2=87 kg191.4\text{ lbs} \div 2.2 = 87\text{ kg}). Next, calculate the total medication dose (87 kg×0.15 mg/kg=13.05 mg87\text{ kg} \times 0.15\text{ mg/kg} = 13.05\text{ mg}). Then, determine the volume of the medication using the available concentration (13.05 mg÷5 mg/mL=2.61 mL13.05\text{ mg} \div 5\text{ mg/mL} = 2.61\text{ mL}). Finally, subtract the medication volume from the required total syringe volume to find the amount of diluent needed (12 mL−2.61 mL=9.39 mL12\text{ mL} - 2.61\text{ mL} = 9.39\text{ mL}). Rounding 9.39 mL9.39\text{ mL} to the nearest tenth yields 9.4 mL9.4\text{ mL}.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms.
87 kg87\text{ kg}
The prescribed dose is weight-based in mg/kg, so the weight must be converted. 191.4 lbs÷2.2=87 kg191.4\text{ lbs} \div 2.2 = 87\text{ kg}.
2
Calculate the total required dose in milligrams.
13.05 mg13.05\text{ mg}
Multiply the client's weight in kilograms by the prescribed dosage. 87 kg×0.15 mg/kg=13.05 mg87\text{ kg} \times 0.15\text{ mg/kg} = 13.05\text{ mg}.
3
Calculate the volume of the phentolamine medication.
2.61 mL2.61\text{ mL}
Divide the total required dose by the available concentration. 13.05 mg÷5 mg/mL=2.61 mL13.05\text{ mg} \div 5\text{ mg/mL} = 2.61\text{ mL}.
4
Determine the volume of diluent required.
9.39 mL9.39\text{ mL}
Subtract the medication volume from the target final syringe volume to find the amount of diluent needed. 12 mL−2.61 mL=9.39 mL12\text{ mL} - 2.61\text{ mL} = 9.39\text{ mL}.
5
Round the final volume to the nearest tenth.
9.4 mL9.4\text{ mL}
Standard rounding rules dictate that a hundredth value of 9 rounds the tenth value up. 9.39 mL≈9.4 mL9.39\text{ mL} \approx 9.4\text{ mL}.

Anahtar Kavram

Calculating complex weight-based medication dosages and diluent volumes for parenteral administration.
Soru 1473Soru →

A client with severe sepsis is receiving a continuous intravenous (IV) infusion of norepinephrine at 0.05 mcg/kg/min0.05\text{ mcg/kg/min} through the proximal lumen of a double-lumen central venous catheter (CVC). The healthcare provider orders an intermittent IV infusion of piperacillin/tazobactam 3.375 g3.375\text{ g} diluted in 100 mL100\text{ mL} of normal saline to be administered over 30 minutes30\text{ minutes}. A drug reference indicates that piperacillin/tazobactam is physically incompatible with norepinephrine. Which of the following is the most appropriate action by the nurse?

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Cevap: Initiate the piperacillin/tazobactam infusion through the distal lumen of the CVC using an infusion pump set at 200 mL/hr200\text{ mL/hr}.

Cevap

The nurse should initiate the antibiotic infusion through the distal lumen of the CVC at a rate of 200 mL/hr200\text{ mL/hr}.
A double-lumen central venous catheter contains two structurally separate internal lumens that do not mix within the catheter, allowing physically incompatible medications to be administered simultaneously. The medications exit into the high-flow environment of the superior vena cava, where immediate hemodilution prevents precipitation. The correct IV pump rate is mathematically derived by dividing the total volume (100 mL100\text{ mL}) by the infusion time in hours (0.5 hours0.5\text{ hours}), which equals 200 mL/hr200\text{ mL/hr}.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Evaluate the design and safety properties of a double-lumen central venous catheter.
A double-lumen CVC contains two distinct, parallel internal pathways that exit at different points in the bloodstream.
This allows for the simultaneous administration of physically incompatible medications without them ever mixing inside the catheter.
2
Calculate the correct intravenous infusion rate for the piperacillin/tazobactam.
Divide the total volume by the time in hours: 100 mL÷0.5 hours=200 mL/hr100\text{ mL} \div 0.5\text{ hours} = 200\text{ mL/hr}.
IV pumps must be programmed in mL/hr\text{mL/hr} to safely deliver the medication over the prescribed 3030-minute timeframe.
3
Assess the clinical implications of the continuous norepinephrine infusion.
Norepinephrine is a critical, short-acting vasopressor. It must not be paused for the antibiotic infusion.
Interrupting a vasopressor in a septic client will rapidly lead to profound, life-threatening hypotension.

Anahtar Kavram

Administration of physically incompatible medications via multi-lumen central venous catheters and calculating accurate IV infusion pump rates.
Soru 1474Soru →

A nurse is preparing to administer a large-volume cleansing enema to an adult client experiencing severe constipation. Arrange the following nursing actions in the correct chronological sequence of execution.

Öğeleri doğru sıraya koymak için sürükleyin

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Cevap

The correct sequence is: 1) position the client in the left lateral Sims position, 2) lubricate the tube, 3) insert the tube while the client exhales, 4) elevate the container to initiate flow, and 5) clamp or lower the container if cramping occurs.
The correct sequence for enema administration prioritizes safe anatomical positioning, proper preparation to minimize trauma, precise insertion technique, controlled gravity-based fluid delivery, and appropriate responsiveness to client complications such as cramping.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Assist the client into a left lateral Sims position with the right knee flexed.
The client's descending colon is optimally positioned for gravity-assisted flow.
This alignment takes advantage of anatomical curves, allowing the enema solution to flow downward into the sigmoid colon.
2
Apply a water-soluble lubricant to the distal 3 to 4 inches of the rectal tube.
The tip of the enema tubing is coated and ready for smooth insertion.
Lubrication reduces friction, preventing damage to the delicate mucosal lining of the rectum and minimizing client discomfort.
3
Instruct the client to exhale gently while inserting the tip 3 to 4 inches toward the umbilicus.
The tube is safely placed into the rectum without forced resistance.
Exhaling relaxes the external anal sphincter. Directing the tube toward the umbilicus follows the natural anatomical angle of the rectum.
4
Hold the enema container 12 to 18 inches above the client's hips and open the roller clamp.
The enema solution begins flowing slowly into the colon.
Elevating the bag dictates the hydrostatic pressure. Placing it no higher than 18 inches ensures the fluid flows at a safe, tolerable rate.
5
Clamp the tubing or lower the container temporarily if the client reports severe abdominal cramping.
The flow is paused or slowed, reducing sudden bowel distention.
Cramping indicates rapid distention. Pausing or slowing the flow allows the bowel walls to accommodate the fluid volume.

Anahtar Kavram

Administration of a Large-Volume Cleansing Enema
Soru 1475Soru →

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous enteral tube feedings via a nasogastric (NG) tube. Which actions should the nurse take to reduce the client's risk of aspiration? Select all that apply.

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Cevap: Elevate the head of the bed to at least 30 degrees during the feeding.; Pause the continuous feeding pump before lowering the head of the bed to turn the client.; Assess gastric residual volumes every 4 to 6 hours as prescribed.

Cevap

The nurse should elevate the head of the bed to at least 30 degrees, pause the feeding pump before lowering the head of the bed, and assess gastric residual volumes every 4 to 6 hours.
Reducing the risk of aspiration requires keeping the head of the bed elevated to at least 30 degrees, pausing the feeding whenever the client must be laid flat, and regularly monitoring gastric residual volumes to detect delayed emptying.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the primary risk associated with enteral tube feedings.
The most significant and potentially life-threatening risk is pulmonary aspiration of gastric contents.
Understanding the primary risk guides the selection of preventive nursing interventions.
2
Evaluate each option for its effect on aspiration risk.
Keeping the head elevated, pausing feedings when flat, and checking residuals actively prevent gastric reflux. Supine positioning and unreliable placement checks increase the risk.
Applying physiological principles of gravity and current evidence-based assessment standards ensures safe client care.

Anahtar Kavram

Aspiration Prevention in Enteral Feedings
Soru 1476Soru →

A client with severe gastroenteritis requires intravenous rehydration. The treatment plan includes 1,000 mL1,000\text{ mL} of 0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride to run over a 4-hour4\text{-hour} period. At what rate in mL/hr\text{mL/hr} should the nurse program the infusion pump? (Record your answer using a whole number.)

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Cevap: 250

Cevap

The nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver 250 mL/hr250\text{ mL/hr}.
To determine the correct hourly infusion rate for an IV pump, divide the total volume of fluid to be infused (1,000 mL1,000\text{ mL}) by the total duration of the infusion (4 hours4\text{ hours}). The resulting quotient (250 mL/hr250\text{ mL/hr}) is the correct programming rate.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the total volume to be infused.
1,000 mL1,000\text{ mL}
The total volume serves as the numerator in the infusion rate formula.
2
Identify the total time for the infusion.
4 hours4\text{ hours}
The pump rate requires a time denominator in hours.
3
Divide the total volume by the total time.
1,000 mL÷4 hours=250 mL/hr1,000\text{ mL} \div 4\text{ hours} = 250\text{ mL/hr}
This calculation yields the exact volume to be delivered each hour.

Anahtar Kavram

Calculating basic intravenous pump infusion rates.
Soru 1477Soru →

A nurse is preparing to obtain a blood specimen for a comprehensive metabolic panel from a client's multi-lumen central venous catheter (CVC). A continuous infusion of parenteral nutrition is currently running through an adjacent lumen. To reduce the risk of pre-analytical laboratory errors and maintain line patency, in what order should the nurse perform the following actions? (Arrange the items in the correct chronological sequence.)

Öğeleri doğru sıraya koymak için sürükleyin

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Cevap

The correct sequence requires the nurse to first halt the continuous infusion, verify patency with a saline flush, clear the dead space of residual fluid by discarding an initial blood volume, collect the pure diagnostic sample, and finally flush the line again before resuming the parenteral nutrition.
Drawing blood from a multi-lumen central venous catheter carries a high risk of pre-analytical laboratory error if the sample is contaminated by concurrent infusions or diluted by flush solutions. Adhering to the standard sequence—pausing adjacent infusions, scrubbing the hub and flushing to confirm patency, utilizing a discard volume to clear dead space, drawing the diagnostic sample, and providing a final flush—ensures highly accurate laboratory data and preserves long-term catheter function.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Pause the continuous parenteral nutrition infusion.
Halts the delivery of intravenous fluids and nutrients.
Prevents the parenteral nutrition from artificially elevating glucose and electrolyte levels in the drawn blood sample.
2
Cleanse the needleless connector and flush with 0.9% sodium chloride.
Decontaminates the access point and verifies lumen patency.
Prevents intraluminal microbial contamination and ensures the catheter is viable for blood return without damaging the vessel.
3
Aspirate and discard the initial 5 mL of blood.
Removes the saline flush and stagnant fluid from the catheter.
Prevents hemodilution, ensuring the diagnostic sample accurately reflects the client's systemic venous blood composition.
4
Collect the required blood volume.
Secures the diagnostic specimen.
Fulfills the prescribed diagnostic test using an undiluted, uncontaminated blood source.
5
Flush the catheter with 0.9% sodium chloride and restart the infusion.
Clears residual blood from the line and resumes therapy.
Prevents fibrin formation and subsequent catheter occlusion while maintaining the client's vital nutritional support.

Anahtar Kavram

Strict sequential protocols for central venous catheter blood sampling—including pausing infusions and discarding initial waste volumes—are essential to mitigate the risk of pre-analytical laboratory errors and inappropriate clinical interventions.
Soru 1478Soru →

A nurse discovers that a client's central venous catheter (CVC) tubing has accidentally disconnected from the injection cap. The client suddenly appears extremely restless, is gasping for air, and exhibits circumoral cyanosis. Which of the following is the priority nursing action?

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Cevap: Clamp the catheter and place the client in a left lateral Trendelenburg position.

Cevap

The priority action is to immediately clamp the catheter and place the client in a left lateral Trendelenburg position.
When a central venous catheter becomes disconnected, the negative intrathoracic pressure during inspiration can draw air into the bloodstream, causing a life-threatening air embolism. The priority is to immediately clamp the catheter to prevent further air entry. Placing the client in a left lateral Trendelenburg position traps the air in the apex of the right atrium, preventing it from migrating into the right ventricle and pulmonary circulation where it would cause a fatal outflow obstruction.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the clinical complication based on the presentation.
The disconnected CVC combined with sudden dyspnea and cyanosis strongly indicates a central venous air embolism.
Air is drawn into the venous system due to negative intrathoracic pressure during inspiration when the catheter is open to the atmosphere.
2
Determine the priority mechanical intervention to halt the complication.
The catheter must be clamped immediately.
Stopping the source of the embolism is the first critical step in risk reduction to prevent further air entry.
3
Select the appropriate therapeutic positioning to mitigate physiological harm.
The client must be placed in a left lateral Trendelenburg position.
This specific position uses gravity to trap the air bubble in the apex of the right atrium, preventing it from migrating into the right ventricle and pulmonary artery.

Anahtar Kavram

Management of a central venous air embolism involves immediately stopping the air entry (clamping) and positioning the client on their left side in Trendelenburg to trap the air in the right atrium.
Soru 1479Soru →

An older adult client is admitted with a severe exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). During evening rounds, the client reports extreme fatigue but states, "I cannot fall asleep because I feel like I am suffocating when I lie down." Which nursing action is most appropriate to promote comfort and facilitate rest for this client?

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Cevap: Position the client leaning forward over an overbed table supported by pillows.

Cevap

Position the client leaning forward over an overbed table supported by pillows.
Clients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) often experience orthopnea, which is severe dyspnea when lying flat. The most effective non-pharmacologic basic care measure to promote comfort and rest is assisting the client into the orthopneic position. By sitting up and leaning forward over an overbed table padded with pillows, the client's diaphragm drops, allowing for maximal chest expansion and decreasing the overall work of breathing.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation.
The client is experiencing severe dyspnea (orthopnea) due to a COPD exacerbation, preventing rest.
Identifying the root cause of the discomfort guides the selection of the most effective non-pharmacologic intervention.
2
Evaluate the proposed positioning and care interventions.
Leaning forward over a table (orthopneic position) is identified as the optimal mechanical position for lung expansion.
This specific position drops the diaphragm and allows the accessory muscles of respiration to function optimally, relieving the sensation of suffocation.

Anahtar Kavram

Basic Care and Comfort: Positioning to Promote Oxygenation and Rest
Soru 1480Soru →

A client is admitted to the cardiac intensive care unit with acute decompensated heart failure and a severely elevated blood pressure. The client is receiving a continuous intravenous (IV) infusion of nitroglycerin currently running at 15 mcg/min15\text{ mcg/min}. The provider's prescription states: "Titrate nitroglycerin infusion upward by 5 mcg/min5\text{ mcg/min} every 5 minutes until systolic blood pressure is less than 140 mm Hg140\text{ mm Hg}." The pharmacy provides a premixed nitroglycerin solution of 50 mg50\text{ mg} in 250 mL250\text{ mL} of 5%5\% dextrose in water (D5W). The client's blood pressure remains elevated, requiring exactly two dosage titrations over the next 10 minutes. What will the nurse set the IV infusion pump rate to in mL/hr\text{mL/hr} following the second titration? Record your answer as a number with one decimal place.

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Cevap: 7.5

Cevap

7.5
To solve this problem, multiple mathematical conversions are required to determine the final pump settings. First, determine the new dose: two titrations of 5 mcg/min5\text{ mcg/min} added to the baseline of 15 mcg/min15\text{ mcg/min} equals 25 mcg/min25\text{ mcg/min}. Next, convert this to an hourly rate because IV pumps run in mL/hr: 25 mcg/min×60 min/hr=1,500 mcg/hr25\text{ mcg/min} \times 60\text{ min/hr} = 1,500\text{ mcg/hr}. Then, determine the concentration of the supplied medication. Convert 50 mg50\text{ mg} to 50,000 mcg50,000\text{ mcg} so the units match the prescription, and divide by the total bag volume of 250 mL250\text{ mL} to find the concentration is 200 mcg/mL200\text{ mcg/mL}. Finally, divide the required hourly dose (1,500 mcg/hr1,500\text{ mcg/hr}) by the concentration (200 mcg/mL200\text{ mcg/mL}) to determine the correct IV pump rate of 7.5 mL/hr7.5\text{ mL/hr}.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Calculate the new ordered dose after the required titrations.
25 mcg/min25\text{ mcg/min}
The rate starts at 15 mcg/min and increases by 5 mcg/min twice (total increase of 10 mcg/min).
2
Convert the new per-minute dosage to a per-hour dosage.
1,500 mcg/hr1,500\text{ mcg/hr}
IV infusion pumps are set in mL/hr, so the dose must reflect an hourly rate (25×6025 \times 60).
3
Convert the medication mass in the IV bag from milligrams to micrograms.
50,000 mcg50,000\text{ mcg}
The ordered dose is in micrograms, so the available medication must be in the same unit (50×1,00050 \times 1,000).
4
Determine the concentration of the nitroglycerin solution in mcg/mL.
200 mcg/mL200\text{ mcg/mL}
Dividing the total micrograms (50,00050,000) by the total volume (250 mL250\text{ mL}) gives the concentration.
5
Calculate the final IV pump rate in mL/hr.
7.5 mL/hr7.5\text{ mL/hr}
Dividing the required hourly dose (1,500 mcg/hr1,500\text{ mcg/hr}) by the concentration (200 mcg/mL200\text{ mcg/mL}) yields the volume needed per hour.

Anahtar Kavram

Continuous IV Infusion Titration and Weight-Independent Dose Calculations
ÖncekiSayfa 74 / 98Sonraki
Physiological Integrity Alıştırma Soruları — NCLEX-RN — Sayfa 74 | Examkin