Physiological Integrity

1960 soru

Soru 1521Soru →

A geriatric client with right-sided heart failure and marked dependent edema is receiving inpatient care. The client also has right-sided hemiplegia secondary to a past cerebrovascular event. Over the last few hours, the client has become highly restless and is experiencing new-onset urinary incontinence. Which intervention regarding the client's comfort and care is the most appropriate?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Support the flaccid right extremities in proper anatomical alignment using pillows and apply a moisture barrier ointment to the perineum after cleansing.

Cevap

Support the flaccid right extremities in proper anatomical alignment using pillows and apply a moisture barrier ointment to the perineum after cleansing.
The correct intervention addresses two critical basic care needs safely: it prevents musculoskeletal damage (joint subluxation and contractures) in the paralyzed limbs through supportive alignment, and it prevents skin breakdown from moisture and acidity related to the new-onset incontinence.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's complex presentation, noting the history of right-sided heart failure, right hemiplegia, and acute changes (restlessness, incontinence).
Recognize that the client needs immediate skin protection and musculoskeletal support while avoiding interventions that could worsen the cardiac status.
Multisystem conditions require prioritizing interventions that provide comfort without inducing physiological harm.
2
Evaluate the safety of positioning interventions for edema in the context of heart failure.
Determine that sharply elevating the legs is contraindicated as it overloads the failing right ventricle.
Increased preload exacerbates right-sided heart failure.
3
Review the scope of delegation and principles of geriatric assessment.
Rule out UAP delegation for skin assessment and reject the assumption that acute changes are normal aging.
Assessments must be performed by the RN, and sudden behavioral/elimination changes indicate acute pathology.
4
Select the intervention that safely addresses physical comfort (alignment) and skin integrity (barrier ointment).
The correct action focuses on protective basic care within the RN's scope.
This intervention prevents complications of hemiplegia and incontinence without risking cardiac decompensation.

Anahtar Kavram

Safe positioning and hygiene maintenance in clients with complex, multi-system comorbidities.
Soru 1522Soru →

A nurse is preparing to administer an intravenous (IV) push medication that is incompatible with the client's continuous IV fluid infusion. The client has a single peripheral IV access. Arrange the following actions in the correct sequence to safely administer this medication. (Place the first action at the top and the last action at the bottom.)

Öğeleri doğru sıraya koymak için sürükleyin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

The correct sequence is to first stop the continuous infusion, clamp the tubing above the lowest port, scrub the hub and flush with saline to clear the line, administer the medication over the prescribed time, flush again with saline at the same slow rate as the medication, and finally unclamp and restart the infusion.
Safely administering an IV push medication into a line with an incompatible continuous infusion requires creating a saline barrier and preventing the two medications from mixing. By stopping the pump and clamping the tubing, the nurse prevents retrograde flow. Flushing with saline before and after the medication creates a liquid barrier. Most importantly, flushing after the medication at the same slow rate is critical to prevent a rapid bolus of the medication remaining in the tubing's dead space.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Stop the continuous intravenous infusion pump.
The active flow of the incompatible fluid is halted.
It is critical to stop the incompatible fluid from infusing while the line is being manipulated and flushed.
2
Clamp the primary intravenous tubing above the injection port closest to the client.
The pathway back into the main IV bag and tubing is blocked.
Clamping prevents the subsequent flush and medication from traveling backward up the tubing (retrograde flow) and mixing with the incompatible primary fluid.
3
Scrub the injection port hub, aspirate for blood return, and flush with normal saline.
The line from the port to the vein is cleared of incompatible fluid.
This establishes a sterile access point, confirms venous placement, and creates a physical saline barrier between the incompatible fluids.
4
Administer the prescribed intravenous push medication over the recommended time.
The medication is safely delivered into the vein.
Pushing the medication slowly over the recommended duration prevents toxicity and severe adverse reactions.
5
Flush the injection port with normal saline at the same rate the medication was administered.
The residual medication in the IV tubing is pushed into the bloodstream at a safe speed.
Flushing too rapidly will forcefully push the medication occupying the dead space of the tubing into the client, essentially administering a rapid bolus and risking speed shock.
6
Unclamp the primary intravenous tubing and restart the continuous infusion.
The continuous therapy is resumed.
Once the medication is safely cleared from the line, it is safe to restart the primary continuous infusion.

Anahtar Kavram

Safe administration of an intravenous push medication through a line with an incompatible continuous infusion.
Soru 1523Soru →

A nurse is providing care for a client who is 1 day postoperative following a right total hip arthroplasty with a posterior approach. Which nursing action is most appropriate when assisting the client with basic care and mobility?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Maintaining an abduction wedge between the client's legs while turning them in bed.

Cevap

Maintaining an abduction wedge between the client's legs while turning them in bed.
Following a total hip arthroplasty (posterior approach), it is critical to prevent the affected leg from crossing the midline of the body (adduction). Utilizing an abduction wedge or pillow between the client's legs when turning them prevents this contraindicated movement and maintains the hip in proper alignment, greatly reducing the risk of joint dislocation.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the surgical procedure and its specific postoperative movement restrictions.
A total hip arthroplasty using a posterior approach requires avoiding hip flexion greater than 90 degrees, adduction (crossing the legs), and internal rotation.
These specific movements place excessive stress on the posterior joint capsule and can cause the new prosthetic head to dislocate.
2
Evaluate each nursing intervention to determine if it violates these movement precautions or safe nursing practice.
Elevating the head of the bed to 90 degrees and bending to put on socks both violate the flexion precaution. Delegating the first transfer violates the RN scope of practice.
Only actions that maintain proper anatomical alignment and adhere to delegation principles are appropriate.
3
Select the intervention that promotes safety and comfort while preventing dislocation.
Using an abduction wedge keeps the legs apart during turns.
This directly prevents adduction, securing the hip joint in a safe, neutral position.

Anahtar Kavram

Postoperative Positioning and Mobility for Total Hip Arthroplasty (Posterior Approach)
Soru 1524Soru →

A nurse is caring for a client admitted with an acute severe asthma exacerbation. Upon admission, the client was anxious and tachypneic with a respiratory rate of 34/min, and auscultation revealed loud, diffuse bilateral wheezing. Two hours later, the nurse notes that the client is now lethargic, the respiratory rate has decreased to 14/min, and breath sounds are markedly diminished. Which of the following arterial blood gas (ABG) results should the nurse anticipate based on the client's current clinical status?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: pH 7.28, PaCO2 58 mm Hg, PaO2 55 mm Hg, HCO3- 25 mEq/L

Cevap

The ABG showing a pH of 7.28, elevated PaCO2 of 58 mm Hg, and normal HCO3- of 25 mEq/L (uncompensated respiratory acidosis) best reflects the client's clinical deterioration.
The client is exhibiting signs of impending respiratory failure, often referred to as a 'silent chest'. The exhaustion of respiratory muscles leads to alveolar hypoventilation. As ventilation drops, carbon dioxide is retained, causing the PaCO2 to rise and the pH to fall. The correct ABG reflects uncompensated respiratory acidosis (low pH, high PaCO2, normal HCO3-), which directly aligns with the lethargy and bradypnea described in the stem.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the change in the client's clinical presentation.
The client transitioned from anxious, tachypneic, and actively wheezing to lethargic with a decreased respiratory rate and 'silent chest' (diminished breath sounds).
Tracking clinical trends is essential to determine whether the client is improving or deteriorating.
2
Interpret the physiological meaning of the current findings.
Lethargy, a falling respiratory rate, and absent wheezing in a severe asthma attack indicate severe bronchospasm, respiratory muscle fatigue, and an inability to maintain adequate ventilation.
A 'silent chest' is a classic sign of impending respiratory failure, meaning air movement is severely compromised.
3
Correlate the physical findings with anticipated ABG changes.
Inadequate ventilation leads to carbon dioxide retention (hypercapnia), which drops the blood pH, resulting in respiratory acidosis.
Hypoventilation directly causes a primary accumulation of PaCO2, and because it is an acute event, the kidneys have not had time to compensate with HCO3- retention.

Anahtar Kavram

During an asthma exacerbation, a transition from hyperventilation (respiratory alkalosis) to hypoventilation (respiratory acidosis) accompanied by a 'silent chest' and lethargy signals impending respiratory failure.
Soru 1525Soru →

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC). Which of the following nursing actions are appropriate for managing this client's parenteral therapy? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Replace the TPN solution bag and the intravenous administration tubing every 24 hours.; Keep a bag of 10% dextrose in water (D10W) readily available in case the TPN infusion is abruptly interrupted.; Assess the client's capillary blood glucose levels every 4 to 6 hours.

Cevap

The appropriate actions are replacing the TPN bag and tubing every 24 hours, keeping D10W available in case of sudden interruption, and monitoring blood glucose levels every 4 to 6 hours.
Appropriate management of TPN includes changing the bag and tubing every 24 hours to prevent bacterial growth in the lipid and dextrose-rich solution. Regular blood glucose monitoring is essential because the high glucose load can cause hyperglycemia. Additionally, keeping D10W available prevents rebound hypoglycemia if the TPN infusion must be stopped abruptly.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the therapy being administered and its associated risks.
The client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via a central line. TPN carries high risks for infection, drug incompatibilities, and metabolic imbalances (especially hyper/hypoglycemia).
Understanding the composition of TPN dictates the specific infection control and metabolic monitoring requirements.
2
Evaluate each intervention against evidence-based safety protocols for parenteral nutrition.
Replacing equipment every 24 hours, monitoring glucose, and having D10W on standby align with safe TPN protocols. Co-administering medications in the same lumen and altering infusion rates violate safety standards.
Evidence-based guidelines mandate dedicated lines for TPN, strict rate control, and aggressive infection prevention measures.

Anahtar Kavram

Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN) Administration Safety
Soru 1526Soru →

A critically ill adult client is admitted to the intensive care unit with severe diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). The initial laboratory results indicate a blood glucose level of 715 mg/dL715\text{ mg/dL}, an arterial pH of 7.127.12, and a serum potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L3.1\text{ mEq/L}. To reduce the risk of fatal complications during treatment, arrange the following collaborative interventions in the safest chronological order from first to last.

Öğeleri doğru sıraya koymak için sürükleyin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

The correct sequence is to first initiate intravenous fluid resuscitation, followed by intravenous potassium chloride, then continuous intravenous regular insulin, followed by adding dextrose to the fluids, and finally administering subcutaneous basal insulin.
The prioritization of DKA management centers on mitigating life-threatening physiological decompensation. First, the profound osmotic diuresis caused by severe hyperglycemia leads to hypovolemic shock; therefore, restoring intravascular volume with isotonic fluid (0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride) is the paramount initial action. Second, while insulin is the definitive treatment for DKA, this client has a critically low serum potassium of 3.1 mEq/L3.1\text{ mEq/L}. Insulin drives potassium into the intracellular space. Administering insulin before correcting the hypokalemia would cause a precipitous drop in serum potassium, placing the client at imminent risk for fatal ventricular arrhythmias. Thus, intravenous potassium chloride must be infused prior to initiating insulin. Third, once potassium reaches ≥3.3 mEq/L\ge 3.3\text{ mEq/L}, a continuous intravenous insulin infusion is started to halt ketogenesis. Fourth, as blood glucose levels drop to approximately 250 mg/dL250\text{ mg/dL}, 5%5\% dextrose is added to the maintenance fluids to prevent hypoglycemia and subsequent cerebral edema. Finally, once the anion gap has closed and DKA is resolved, subcutaneous basal insulin is administered. The intravenous insulin is continued for 11 to 22 hours post-subcutaneous injection to prevent rebound ketoacidosis.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's laboratory values and physiological state.
The client is in severe DKA with critical hypokalemia (3.1 mEq/L3.1\text{ mEq/L}).
Identifying life-threatening abnormalities determines the priority of interventions.
2
Determine the priority of initial medical management.
Isotonic fluid resuscitation is the immediate priority.
DKA causes profound osmotic diuresis leading to hypovolemic shock. Restoring perfusion prevents cardiovascular collapse.
3
Evaluate the safety of initiating insulin therapy.
Insulin must be held until the serum potassium is replaced.
Insulin rapidly drives potassium into cells. Administering insulin when serum potassium is <3.3 mEq/L< 3.3\text{ mEq/L} causes fatal hypokalemia and arrhythmias.
4
Sequence the remaining interventions as the client's condition stabilizes.
Insulin is started, followed by adding dextrose when glucose falls, and finally overlapping with subcutaneous insulin.
Dextrose prevents cerebral edema, and overlapping insulin prevents rebound ketoacidosis.

Anahtar Kavram

Reduction of Risk Potential: DKA Protocol Sequencing
Soru 1527Soru →

A nurse is caring for a 68-year-old client admitted 12 hours ago with acute pyelonephritis. The client is currently restless, and the nurse notes their skin is abnormally warm and flushed. Assessment reveals a urine output of 15 mL/hr over the past two hours. Vital signs are:

* Blood pressure: 86/42 mmHg
* Heart rate: 124 bpm
* Respiratory rate: 28 breaths/min
* Temperature: 39.1°C (102.4°F)

An arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis on room air shows: pH 7.31, PaCO2 29 mmHg, HCO3- 14 mEq/L, and PaO2 86 mmHg. Which of the following actions should the nurse perform FIRST?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Initiate a rapid intravenous infusion of an isotonic crystalloid solution

Cevap

The nurse should first initiate a rapid intravenous infusion of an isotonic crystalloid solution.
Initiating a rapid intravenous infusion of an isotonic crystalloid solution is the highest priority because the client is in the early 'warm' phase of septic shock. This phase of distributive shock is characterized by massive systemic vasodilation, resulting in relative hypovolemia, warm/flushed skin, hypotension, and inadequate tissue perfusion (evidenced by oliguria and lactic acidosis). The ABG confirms metabolic acidosis with compensatory tachypnea. According to evidence-based sepsis management guidelines, the most critical initial action for sepsis-induced hypoperfusion is aggressive fluid resuscitation to restore intravascular volume and improve oxygen delivery to tissues.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation.
The combination of severe hypotension, tachycardia, oliguria, and warm/flushed skin in a client with an active pyelonephritis infection indicates the early (hyperdynamic) phase of distributive septic shock.
Recognizing the specific phase and type of shock is required to determine the correct pathophysiological intervention.
2
Interpret the arterial blood gas (ABG) values.
The ABG reveals a partially compensated metabolic acidosis (low pH, low HCO3-) caused by tissue hypoperfusion (lactic acidosis). The PaO2 is normal, indicating the tachypnea is a compensatory respiratory response, not hypoxia.
Misinterpreting the tachypnea and ABG can lead to prioritizing oxygen therapy over critical fluid resuscitation.
3
Determine the highest priority intervention.
The immediate priority for sepsis-induced relative hypovolemia and tissue hypoperfusion is rapid volume expansion with isotonic crystalloids.
Restoring intravascular volume is a critical prerequisite before administering vasopressors to prevent worsening tissue ischemia.

Anahtar Kavram

Prioritization in Septic Shock Management and Hemodynamic Resuscitation
Soru 1528Soru →

A nurse is caring for a client who is mechanically ventilated in the intensive care unit following abdominal surgery. The ventilator's high-pressure alarm has been sounding frequently. The client's latest arterial blood gas (ABG) results are provided in the table below:

ParameterResultReference Range
pH7.267.267.357.35 - 7.457.45
PaCO2\text{PaCO}_260 mm Hg60 \text{ mm Hg}3535 - 45 mm Hg45 \text{ mm Hg}
HCO3−\text{HCO}_3^-24 mEq/L24 \text{ mEq/L}2222 - 26 mEq/L26 \text{ mEq/L}
PaO2\text{PaO}_265 mm Hg65 \text{ mm Hg}8080 - 100 mm Hg100 \text{ mm Hg}

Which intervention should the nurse implement first to reduce the risk of further physiological decompensation?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Auscultate bilateral lung sounds and perform endotracheal suctioning.

Cevap

The correct intervention is to auscultate bilateral lung sounds and perform endotracheal suctioning.
The client is experiencing uncompensated respiratory acidosis, as evidenced by a low pH and an elevated PaCO2, along with hypoxemia. In a mechanically ventilated client, frequent high-pressure alarms combined with these ABG changes strongly suggest an airway obstruction, such as accumulated mucus or secretions. Auscultating the lungs and suctioning the endotracheal tube clears the airway, improves effective ventilation, and directly addresses the underlying cause of both the high peak pressures and the retained carbon dioxide.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the provided ABG results.
The ABG shows uncompensated respiratory acidosis (low pH, high PaCO2, normal HCO3) accompanied by hypoxemia (low PaO2).
Identifying the primary acid-base imbalance is necessary to determine the physiological root cause.
2
Correlate the ABG findings with the clinical data.
The combination of respiratory acidosis and frequent high-pressure ventilator alarms indicates increased airway resistance, likely due to an obstruction such as accumulated secretions.
High-pressure alarms trigger when the ventilator meets excessive resistance while delivering a breath, which commonly leads to poor ventilation and CO2 retention.
3
Determine the highest priority nursing intervention.
Auscultating the lungs and suctioning the endotracheal tube is the priority action.
Removing the physical obstruction clears the airway, allows for adequate alveolar ventilation, and directly resolves both the high-pressure alarm and the respiratory acidosis.

Anahtar Kavram

Airway Management and ABG Interpretation in Mechanical Ventilation
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 1529Soru →

A charge nurse is evaluating a newly licensed nurse who is managing a client 12 hours postoperative following a right total pneumonectomy. No chest tube is present. The client's vital signs are: blood pressure 110/70 mmHg, heart rate 98 bpm, respiratory rate 20/min, and oxygen saturation 94% on 2 L/min via nasal cannula. Which action by the newly licensed nurse requires immediate intervention by the charge nurse to prevent a life-threatening complication?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Assisting the client into a full left lateral decubitus position to optimize ventilation-perfusion matching.

Cevap

The action that requires immediate intervention is assisting the client into a full left lateral decubitus position (the unoperated side).
The correct answer is the action of positioning the client on their unoperated side. While placing the 'good lung down' is a standard strategy to optimize ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) matching in conditions like unilateral pneumonia, it is strictly contraindicated following a pneumonectomy. Placing a post-pneumonectomy client on their unoperated (left) side allows gravity to pull the heart and mediastinal structures into the empty surgical space. This can cause a catastrophic mediastinal shift, severe compression of the single remaining lung, cardiovascular collapse, and extreme tension on the sutured bronchial stump leading to a blowout. The client should only be positioned supine or on the operated (right) side.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the surgical procedure and its physiological impact on the client's anatomy.
A right total pneumonectomy removes the entire right lung, leaving an empty right pleural space and relying solely on the left lung for oxygenation.
Understanding the structural changes is essential to predict postoperative complications and safe positioning.
2
Evaluate the safety of the positioning intervention chosen by the new nurse.
Placing the client on the left (unoperated) side allows gravity to pull the heart and mediastinum heavily into the empty right space.
Unlike typical pneumonia where 'good lung down' improves ventilation-perfusion matching, pneumonectomy creates a high-risk void that dictates completely different positioning rules.
3
Identify the potential consequences of the positioning error.
A mediastinal shift occurs, compressing the remaining left lung, severely decreasing venous return, and putting extreme tension on the sutured bronchial stump.
This confirms that positioning the client on the unoperated side is a life-threatening error requiring immediate charge nurse intervention.

Anahtar Kavram

Post-pneumonectomy positioning requires placing the client supine or on the operative side to prevent catastrophic mediastinal shift and protect the single remaining lung.
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 1530Soru →

A registered nurse is preparing to administer a mixed dose of NPH and regular insulin to a client with diabetes mellitus. In what order should the nurse perform the following actions to safely prepare the injection? Arrange the steps in the correct sequence.

Öğeleri doğru sıraya koymak için sürükleyin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

The correct sequence is: roll the NPH vial, cleanse both stoppers, inject air into the NPH vial, inject air into the regular insulin vial, withdraw the regular insulin, and finally withdraw the NPH insulin.
When mixing regular (short-acting, clear) and NPH (intermediate-acting, cloudy) insulin in the same syringe, the nurse must prevent contamination of the regular insulin with the NPH insulin. The correct process follows the 'clear before cloudy' principle. First, the NPH vial is rolled to suspend the particles safely. Both stoppers are cleansed to maintain asepsis. Air is injected into the NPH vial first, then into the regular vial, to equalize pressure without mixing the liquids. The nurse then withdraws the regular (clear) insulin first, followed by the NPH (cloudy) insulin.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Gently roll the vial of NPH insulin between the palms of the hands.
The suspension is mixed evenly without creating froth.
NPH insulin is a suspension that must be mixed before use; shaking vigorously can cause bubbles that lead to inaccurate dosing.
2
Cleanse the rubber stoppers of both insulin vials with alcohol swabs.
The entry points on the vials are disinfected.
Prevents the introduction of microorganisms into the sterile medication vials.
3
Inject a volume of air equal to the prescribed dose into the NPH insulin vial.
Pressure is equalized in the NPH vial without the needle touching the insulin.
Injecting air prevents a vacuum. Doing this first in the NPH vial prevents accidental contamination later.
4
Inject a volume of air equal to the prescribed dose into the regular insulin vial.
Pressure is equalized in the regular insulin vial.
Prepares the regular insulin vial for immediate withdrawal of the medication.
5
Withdraw the prescribed dose of regular insulin into the syringe.
The short-acting (clear) insulin is drawn into the syringe first.
Drawing the clear insulin first prevents it from being contaminated by the longer-acting NPH insulin.
6
Insert the needle into the NPH insulin vial and withdraw the prescribed dose of NPH insulin.
The intermediate-acting (cloudy) insulin is added, completing the combined dose.
This final step ensures both insulins are accurately mixed in one syringe without altering the rapid action profile of the regular insulin.

Anahtar Kavram

Insulin Mixing Sequence (Clear before Cloudy)
Soru 1531Soru →

A client admitted with a hypertensive emergency is receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of sodium nitroprusside at 3 mcg/kg/min3 \text{ mcg/kg/min}. The client weighs 220 lbs220 \text{ lbs}. The medication is supplied as 50 mg50 \text{ mg} of sodium nitroprusside in 250 mL250 \text{ mL} of 5%5\% dextrose in water (D5W). Upon assessment, the nurse notes the client's blood pressure has decreased to 86/52 mmHg86/52 \text{ mmHg}. The healthcare provider prescribes titrating the infusion rate down to 1 mcg/kg/min1 \text{ mcg/kg/min}. Which action is most appropriate for the nurse to take?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Adjust the infusion pump to deliver 30 mL/hr30 \text{ mL/hr} and assess the client's blood pressure every 5 minutes.

Cevap

The nurse should adjust the infusion pump to 30 mL/hr30 \text{ mL/hr} and assess the blood pressure every 5 minutes.
The correct action involves accurately calculating the new weight-based infusion rate and implementing vigilant clinical monitoring. By completing the dimensional analysis (100 kg×1 mcg/kg/min×60 minutes=6000 mcg/hr100 \text{ kg} \times 1 \text{ mcg/kg/min} \times 60 \text{ minutes} = 6000 \text{ mcg/hr}; 6000 mcg÷200 mcg/mL=30 mL/hr6000 \text{ mcg} \div 200 \text{ mcg/mL} = 30 \text{ mL/hr}), the nurse ensures precise drug delivery. Furthermore, because sodium nitroprusside is a potent vasodilator with a very short half-life (approximately 2 minutes), blood pressure must be monitored continuously or at minimum every 5 to 10 minutes during active titration.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms.
220 lbs÷2.2 lbs/kg=100 kg220 \text{ lbs} \div 2.2 \text{ lbs/kg} = 100 \text{ kg}
Nitroprusside is dosed based on metric body weight.
2
Calculate the total required dose per minute based on the new prescribed rate.
100 kg×1 mcg/kg/min=100 mcg/min100 \text{ kg} \times 1 \text{ mcg/kg/min} = 100 \text{ mcg/min}
Determines the exact amount of medication the client needs every sixty seconds.
3
Convert the dose per minute to the dose per hour.
100 mcg/min×60 min/hr=6000 mcg/hr100 \text{ mcg/min} \times 60 \text{ min/hr} = 6000 \text{ mcg/hr}
IV pumps are programmed in mL per hour, so the dose must reflect an hourly requirement.
4
Determine the concentration of the supplied medication in mcg/mL.
50 mg=50,000 mcg50 \text{ mg} = 50,000 \text{ mcg}. 50,000 mcg÷250 mL=200 mcg/mL50,000 \text{ mcg} \div 250 \text{ mL} = 200 \text{ mcg/mL}
Establishes how much active drug is in each milliliter of the IV fluid.
5
Calculate the final infusion rate in mL/hr.
6000 mcg/hr÷200 mcg/mL=30 mL/hr6000 \text{ mcg/hr} \div 200 \text{ mcg/mL} = 30 \text{ mL/hr}
Provides the correct volume to set on the infusion pump to deliver the prescribed dose.

Anahtar Kavram

Weight-Based Continuous Infusion Titration and Hypotension Management
Soru 1532Soru →

A 58-year-old client is being managed in the high-dependency unit for acute necrotizing pancreatitis. Over the past three hours, the nurse notes the client's heart rate has increased from 8686 to 116116 beats/min, and the blood pressure has trended from 134/78134/78 mm Hg to 112/86112/86 mm Hg. The client's urine output for the last hour is 1515 mL. The most recent arterial blood gas analysis reveals a pH of 7.317.31, PaCO2 of 3535 mm Hg, and HCO3- of 1616 mEq/L. Based on these findings, which immediate risk mitigation action should the nurse prioritize?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Administer a prescribed rapid intravenous crystalloid fluid bolus.

Cevap

Administer a prescribed rapid intravenous crystalloid fluid bolus.
The clinical picture demonstrates early, compensatory hypovolemic shock, a major complication of acute necrotizing pancreatitis due to massive fluid shifting (third-spacing). The key indicators are a narrowing pulse pressure (dropping from 5656 mm Hg to 2626 mm Hg), progressive tachycardia, and severely decreased urine output. Furthermore, the arterial blood gas results confirm metabolic acidosis (pH 7.317.31, HCO3- 1616 mEq/L), which occurs secondary to tissue hypoperfusion and lactic acid buildup. Administering a rapid intravenous crystalloid bolus directly addresses the underlying fluid deficit, mitigates the risk of organ failure, and restores adequate tissue perfusion.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the vital sign trends to identify signs of hemodynamic instability.
The client has developed tachycardia and a narrowing pulse pressure (dropping from 5656 mm Hg to 2626 mm Hg), accompanied by oliguria.
Narrowing pulse pressure and tachycardia are classic early compensatory mechanisms for hypovolemia before profound hypotension occurs.
2
Interpret the arterial blood gas (ABG) values.
A pH of 7.317.31 (acidosis) and HCO3- of 1616 mEq/L (abnormally low) with a normal PaCO2 indicate uncompensated metabolic acidosis.
Metabolic acidosis in this context is likely due to lactic acid accumulation from poor tissue perfusion, a hallmark of developing shock.
3
Determine the highest priority intervention based on the physiological data.
The most critical action is to restore intravascular volume and improve tissue perfusion.
Acute necrotizing pancreatitis causes massive fluid shifts into the retroperitoneal space (third-spacing). Intravenous fluid resuscitation is the primary risk mitigation strategy to prevent progression to irreversible shock.

Anahtar Kavram

Early Recognition and Mitigation of Hypovolemic Shock
Soru 1533Soru →

An older adult client is prescribed a large-volume cleansing enema to treat severe constipation. Which of the following actions should the nurse take when preparing and administering this intervention?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Position the client in a left lateral position with the right knee flexed.

Cevap

The nurse should position the client in a left lateral position with the right knee flexed (Sims' position).
The correct action is to place the client in the left lateral Sims' position. Because the descending colon is located on the left side of the body, this position allows gravity to help the enema solution flow smoothly into the sigmoid and descending colon, maximizing the effectiveness of the treatment and minimizing client discomfort.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Evaluate the anatomy of the lower gastrointestinal tract.
The descending colon and sigmoid colon are located on the left side of the abdomen.
Understanding anatomy dictates the positioning required for gravity to assist in fluid flow.
2
Determine the optimal client position for enema administration.
The left lateral position with the right knee flexed (Sims' position) is selected.
This position places the descending colon at the lowest point, allowing the enema solution to flow easily by gravity into the sigmoid colon and descending colon.

Anahtar Kavram

Basic Care and Comfort: Bowel Elimination and Enema Administration
Tahmini Süre:1m 0s
Soru 1534Soru →

An emergency department team is treating a client for a hypertensive emergency. The provider prescribes a continuous sodium nitroprusside infusion with instructions to begin at 0.3 mcg/kg/min0.3 \text{ mcg/kg/min} and titrate upward by 0.3 mcg/kg/min0.3 \text{ mcg/kg/min} every 5 minutes5 \text{ minutes} until the mean arterial pressure (MAP) falls below 100 mm Hg100 \text{ mm Hg}.

The client's admission weight is 231 lbs231 \text{ lbs}.
The pharmacy supplies a premixed IV bag containing 50 mg50 \text{ mg} of sodium nitroprusside in 250 mL250 \text{ mL} of 5%5\% dextrose in water (D5WD_5W).

The nurse initiates the infusion. Because the client's MAP remains consistently above 100 mm Hg100 \text{ mm Hg} during the initial monitoring period, the nurse performs exactly three protocol-directed upward titrations.

Determine the new IV pump rate in mL/hr\text{mL/hr} immediately following the third titration. Round your final answer to the nearest whole number.

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: 38

Cevap

38
To determine the correct IV pump rate for a weight-based titration, the nurse must first convert the weight to kilograms (231 lbs÷2.2=105 kg231 \text{ lbs} \div 2.2 = 105 \text{ kg}). Next, the new dose is calculated by adding the three titrations to the initial rate: 0.3+(3×0.3)=1.2 mcg/kg/min0.3 + (3 \times 0.3) = 1.2 \text{ mcg/kg/min}. This weight-based dose is multiplied by the client's weight (1.2×105=126 mcg/min1.2 \times 105 = 126 \text{ mcg/min}) and then converted to an hourly rate (126×60=7560 mcg/hr126 \times 60 = 7560 \text{ mcg/hr}). Finally, the hourly dose is divided by the bag concentration in matching units (50,000 mcg÷250 mL=200 mcg/mL50,000 \text{ mcg} \div 250 \text{ mL} = 200 \text{ mcg/mL}). The result (7560÷200=37.8 mL/hr7560 \div 200 = 37.8 \text{ mL/hr}) is rounded to the nearest whole number to get 38 mL/hr38 \text{ mL/hr}.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms.
105 kg105 \text{ kg}
Weight-based dosing requires the client's weight in metric units (kg). Divide 231 lbs231 \text{ lbs} by 2.22.2.
2
Determine the new prescribed dose after three upward titrations.
1.2 mcg/kg/min1.2 \text{ mcg/kg/min}
The initial dose is 0.3 mcg/kg/min0.3 \text{ mcg/kg/min}. Each titration adds 0.3 mcg/kg/min0.3 \text{ mcg/kg/min}. Three titrations add 0.9 mcg/kg/min0.9 \text{ mcg/kg/min} to the baseline.
3
Calculate the total dose per minute based on the client's weight.
126 mcg/min126 \text{ mcg/min}
Multiply the weight-based dose (1.2 mcg/kg/min1.2 \text{ mcg/kg/min}) by the client's weight (105 kg105 \text{ kg}) to find the absolute per-minute dose.
4
Convert the per-minute dose to an hourly dose.
7560 mcg/hr7560 \text{ mcg/hr}
IV pumps are programmed in hours. Multiply the per-minute dose (126 mcg/min126 \text{ mcg/min}) by 6060 minutes.
5
Calculate the concentration of the medication in mcg/mL.
200 mcg/mL200 \text{ mcg/mL}
Convert 50 mg50 \text{ mg} to 50,000 mcg50,000 \text{ mcg}, then divide by the 250 mL250 \text{ mL} bag volume to align units with the ordered dose.
6
Calculate the required infusion volume per hour and round to the nearest whole number.
38 mL/hr38 \text{ mL/hr}
Divide the hourly dose (7560 mcg/hr7560 \text{ mcg/hr}) by the concentration (200 mcg/mL200 \text{ mcg/mL}) to get 37.8 mL/hr37.8 \text{ mL/hr}, which rounds to 3838.

Anahtar Kavram

Calculation and titration of weight-based continuous intravenous infusions (mcg/kg/min to mL/hr).
Soru 1535Soru →

A nurse is initiating the post-procedure care plan for a client who returned to the medical-surgical unit following a percutaneous liver biopsy. To actively reduce the client's risk for a life-threatening complication, which intervention should the nurse implement?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Position the client on the right side with a small, rolled towel placed directly under the puncture site.

Cevap

Position the client on the right side with a small, rolled towel placed directly under the puncture site.
Following a percutaneous liver biopsy, the most significant risk to the client is internal hemorrhage due to the extensive vascularity of the liver. Placing the client in a right lateral (side-lying) position, especially with a towel or small pillow under the puncture site, utilizes the client's body weight to apply direct, continuous pressure to the liver capsule. This mechanical compression promotes hemostasis and drastically reduces the risk of bleeding.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the primary physiological risk following a percutaneous liver biopsy.
Hemorrhage is the most significant and life-threatening post-procedure complication because the liver is a highly vascular organ.
Recognizing the highest risk dictates the priority preventative nursing action.
2
Evaluate how positioning can mitigate the identified risk of hemorrhage.
The liver is located in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen.
Placing the client in a right lateral position uses gravity and the weight of the client's body to compress the area against the mattress.
3
Select the intervention that best applies direct mechanical pressure.
The right side-lying position with a towel underneath directly compresses the liver capsule.
This mechanical pressure is essential to stop venous or arterial oozing from the needle track and promote clot formation.

Anahtar Kavram

Reduction of Risk Potential: Post-Procedure Hemorrhage Prevention
Soru 1536Soru →

An emergency department triage nurse evaluates a client who sustained blunt force abdominal trauma in a motor vehicle collision. The nurse suspects the client is entering the compensatory stage of shock. Which of the following assessment findings support this physiological adaptation? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Resting heart rate of 118 beats per minute; Blood pressure reading of 114/96 mm Hg; Hypoactive bowel sounds in all four quadrants

Cevap

The findings that support the compensatory stage of shock are a resting heart rate of 118 beats per minute, a blood pressure reading of 114/96 mm Hg (narrowing pulse pressure), and hypoactive bowel sounds.
During the compensatory stage of shock, the sympathetic nervous system triggers the release of epinephrine and norepinephrine. This physiological adaptation causes an increase in heart rate to maintain cardiac output and induces widespread peripheral vasoconstriction, which elevates diastolic blood pressure and results in a narrowed pulse pressure. Additionally, blood is strategically shunted away from non-vital organs, such as the gastrointestinal tract, leading to hypoactive bowel sounds.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's risk factors and current clinical scenario.
The client suffered blunt abdominal trauma, placing them at high risk for internal hemorrhage and hypovolemic shock.
Identifying the etiology of shock determines the expected physiological response.
2
Recall the physiological mechanisms characteristic of the compensatory stage of shock.
The body activates the sympathetic nervous system and the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS) to maintain cardiac output and perfusion to vital organs.
Understanding compensatory mechanisms allows for the anticipation of specific clinical signs.
3
Evaluate each assessment finding against the expected physiological adaptations.
Tachycardia, a narrowing pulse pressure, and decreased gastrointestinal motility directly result from sympathetic stimulation and the shunting of blood away from non-vital organs.
Differentiating early compensatory signs from late progressive signs or alternative shock states ensures accurate clinical judgment.

Anahtar Kavram

Physiological Adaptation: Compensatory Mechanisms in Early Shock
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 1537Soru →

A nurse is assessing a client who underwent a percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) via the right femoral artery 2 hours ago. The client suddenly reports a warm, wet sensation in their right groin. The nurse immediately dons clean gloves and observes active arterial bleeding and a rapidly expanding hematoma. Place the following nursing interventions in the correct priority sequence to manage this complication.

Öğeleri doğru sıraya koymak için sürükleyin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

The correct sequence is: 1) Apply firm manual pressure above the site, 2) Activate the emergency call system, 3) Evaluate blood pressure and heart rate, 4) Assess the affected lower extremity, and 5) Apply a mechanical compression device.
In the event of an arterial hemorrhage post-cardiac catheterization, the nurse's first priority is to stop the bleeding by applying direct pressure slightly above the skin puncture site, following the anatomical track of the needle to the actual arteriotomy. Once pressure is applied, the nurse must immediately summon help without leaving the client. Next, systemic perfusion (vital signs) must be assessed to rule out life-threatening hypovolemic shock, followed by an assessment of the affected limb for localized ischemia. Finally, a definitive pressure dressing or mechanical device is applied once hemostasis is achieved.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the most immediate life-threatening issue.
The client is experiencing an active arterial hemorrhage from the femoral artery.
According to the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) framework, severe arterial bleeding compromises circulation and requires immediate mechanical intervention (pressure) to prevent exsanguination.
2
Determine the next crucial action after controlling the bleeding.
The nurse must activate the emergency call system.
The nurse cannot safely leave the bleeding client to get supplies or call the provider, so help must be summoned directly to the bedside.
3
Prioritize systemic assessment over localized assessment.
Evaluate systemic vital signs, including blood pressure and heart rate.
Systemic perfusion takes priority over limb perfusion. The nurse must determine if the blood loss has caused systemic hemodynamic instability, such as hypovolemic shock.
4
Assess localized complications.
Evaluate the distal pulses, color, and temperature of the affected leg.
After systemic stability is addressed, the nurse must ensure that the hematoma or the applied manual pressure has not completely compromised arterial blood flow to the foot, which could cause tissue ischemia.
5
Identify the final resolution step.
Apply a mechanical compression device or pressure dressing.
This step replaces manual pressure only after hemostasis is successfully achieved and the client is hemodynamically stable.

Anahtar Kavram

Prioritization of care for post-cardiac catheterization complications
Soru 1538Soru →

A nurse is preparing to remove a client's non-tunneled central venous catheter (CVC). After performing hand hygiene, donning appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE), and removing the old dressing, in what order should the nurse perform the following actions? Arrange the steps from first to last.

Öğeleri doğru sıraya koymak için sürükleyin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

The correct sequence for removing a central venous catheter is to first position the client appropriately (supine or Trendelenburg), instruct them to perform the Valsalva maneuver, withdraw the catheter during the maneuver, immediately apply firm pressure to the site, and finally secure an occlusive dressing.
This sequence systematically minimizes the risk of air embolism and bleeding. Proper positioning and the Valsalva maneuver create positive pressure in the central veins prior to removal. Immediate pressure and an occlusive dressing ensure the venous tract remains sealed from the atmosphere after the catheter is removed.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Position the client supine or in a slight Trendelenburg position.
Central venous pressure is increased.
This reduces the risk of air entering the central veins due to negative pressure.
2
Instruct the client to perform the Valsalva maneuver.
Intrathoracic pressure is elevated.
Creating positive pressure in the chest prevents air from being sucked into the open vein during removal.
3
Withdraw the catheter smoothly.
The catheter is safely removed from the vein.
Removal must occur while the patient is actively bearing down to ensure the vein remains positively pressurized.
4
Apply firm pressure with sterile gauze.
Hemostasis is achieved and the entry point is temporarily sealed.
This prevents bleeding from the highly vascular site and immediately blocks air entry.
5
Apply an occlusive dressing.
The insertion site is completely sealed.
An airtight barrier prevents air from tracking down the subcutaneous tunnel into the vein while the site heals.

Anahtar Kavram

Safe removal of a central venous catheter requires meticulous interventions to prevent air embolism, a life-threatening complication caused by air entering the central circulation.
Soru 1539Soru →

A client with severe acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is mechanically ventilated and requires continuous sedation. The healthcare provider prescribes a propofol infusion at 30 mcg/kg/min30 \text{ mcg/kg/min}. The client weighs 209 lb209 \text{ lb}. The pharmacy dispenses propofol 1,000 mg1,000 \text{ mg} in a 100 mL100 \text{ mL} lipid emulsion. What should the nurse set the infusion pump rate to in mL/hr\text{mL/hr}? Record your answer to the nearest whole number.

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: 17

Cevap

17
To determine the correct pump rate, the nurse must first convert the client's weight to kilograms (209÷2.2=95 kg209 \div 2.2 = 95 \text{ kg}). Next, calculate the total dose per minute (30×95=2,850 mcg/min30 \times 95 = 2,850 \text{ mcg/min}) and multiply by 6060 to find the hourly dose (171,000 mcg/hr171,000 \text{ mcg/hr}). Because the medication is dispensed in milligrams, convert the hourly dose from micrograms to milligrams (171,000÷1,000=171 mg/hr171,000 \div 1,000 = 171 \text{ mg/hr}). The concentration of the dispensed propofol is 1,000 mg÷100 mL=10 mg/mL1,000 \text{ mg} \div 100 \text{ mL} = 10 \text{ mg/mL}. Finally, divide the required hourly dose by the concentration (171÷10=17.1 mL/hr171 \div 10 = 17.1 \text{ mL/hr}) and round to the nearest whole number, resulting in 1717.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms.
209 lb÷2.2 lb/kg=95 kg209 \text{ lb} \div 2.2 \text{ lb/kg} = 95 \text{ kg}
Critical care continuous infusions are dosed based on the client's weight in kilograms.
2
Calculate the prescribed dose per minute.
30 mcg/kg/min×95 kg=2,850 mcg/min30 \text{ mcg/kg/min} \times 95 \text{ kg} = 2,850 \text{ mcg/min}
This determines the total amount of medication the client needs every minute.
3
Convert the per-minute dose to an hourly dose.
2,850 mcg/min×60 min/hr=171,000 mcg/hr2,850 \text{ mcg/min} \times 60 \text{ min/hr} = 171,000 \text{ mcg/hr}
Infusion pumps are programmed to deliver fluids in mL per hour.
4
Convert the hourly dose from micrograms to milligrams.
171,000 mcg/hr÷1,000 mcg/mg=171 mg/hr171,000 \text{ mcg/hr} \div 1,000 \text{ mcg/mg} = 171 \text{ mg/hr}
The dispensed medication concentration is provided in milligrams, not micrograms.
5
Determine the concentration of the propofol emulsion.
1,000 mg÷100 mL=10 mg/mL1,000 \text{ mg} \div 100 \text{ mL} = 10 \text{ mg/mL}
This establishes how many milligrams of propofol are in each milliliter of the fluid.
6
Calculate the infusion pump rate in mL/hr.
171 mg/hr÷10 mg/mL=17.1 mL/hr171 \text{ mg/hr} \div 10 \text{ mg/mL} = 17.1 \text{ mL/hr}
Dividing the required hourly dose by the concentration yields the required fluid volume rate.
7
Round the final answer to the nearest whole number.
17.117.1 rounds down to 1717.
Matches the rounding instructions provided in the question stem.

Anahtar Kavram

Weight-based continuous intravenous medication infusion calculations requiring multiple unit conversions
Soru 1540Soru →

A nurse is assessing a client who experienced significant blood loss from a severe laceration. Which assessment findings should the nurse identify as early compensatory signs of hypovolemic shock? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Heart rate of 112 beats/minute; Restlessness and apprehension; Narrowing pulse pressure

Cevap

The correct findings include a heart rate of 112 beats/minute, restlessness and apprehension, and a narrowing pulse pressure.
In the early (compensatory) stage of hypovolemic shock, the body activates the sympathetic nervous system to maintain blood pressure and cardiac output. This results in an increased heart rate (tachycardia) and peripheral vasoconstriction, which causes a narrowing pulse pressure. Additionally, subtle decreases in cerebral perfusion and oxygenation manifest early as restlessness, apprehension, or anxiety.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the type of shock and its primary cause.
The client has significant blood loss, leading to hypovolemic shock.
Understanding the underlying etiology helps predict the body's compensatory mechanisms.
2
Recall the early compensatory mechanisms for hypovolemia.
The sympathetic nervous system activates, causing tachycardia, peripheral vasoconstriction, and mild cerebral hypoxia.
These physiological changes manifest as specific, recognizable clinical signs.
3
Evaluate each option against known early signs of hypovolemic shock.
Tachycardia, restlessness, and a narrowing pulse pressure align with sympathetic activation and early decreased perfusion.
Differentiating early signs from normal findings or signs of other shock types ensures accurate assessment.

Anahtar Kavram

Early compensatory mechanisms in hypovolemic shock include sympathetic nervous system activation, leading to tachycardia, narrowing pulse pressure, peripheral vasoconstriction (cool skin), and altered mental status (restlessness).
Tahmini Süre:1m 0s
ÖncekiSayfa 77 / 98Sonraki
Physiological Integrity Alıştırma Soruları — NCLEX-RN — Sayfa 77 | Examkin