Physiological Integrity

1960 soru

Soru 1541Soru →

A nurse is preparing to administer a scheduled bolus enteral feeding via a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube to a client who is receiving long-term nutritional support. Arrange the following nursing actions in the correct sequence.

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Cevap

The correct sequence is to first elevate the head of the bed, then verify tube placement, check the gastric residual volume, flush the tube to ensure patency, and finally administer the feeding formula.
Safe enteral feeding administration follows a logical, safety-oriented progression. Elevating the head of the bed is the critical first step to protect the airway and prevent aspiration. Once the client is positioned safely, verifying placement ensures the tube is properly located in the stomach. Checking residual volume then assesses the client's physiological tolerance of the feeding. Flushing the tube ensures it is patent and clear. Finally, administering the formula is the last step, performed only after all safety parameters have been established.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Elevate the head of the client's bed to at least 30 to 45 degrees.
The client is placed in a safe position to prevent aspiration.
Airway protection is the absolute priority. Manipulating the tube or feeding a flat client significantly increases the risk of aspiration pneumonia.
2
Verify tube placement by checking the external bumper marking at the stoma site.
The nurse confirms the tube has not migrated.
Ensuring correct tube placement prevents the accidental administration of formula into the peritoneal cavity or respiratory tract.
3
Aspirate to check the gastric residual volume and return the contents to the stomach.
The nurse assesses gastric emptying and prevents electrolyte loss.
High residual volumes indicate delayed gastric emptying. Returning the aspirate prevents acid-base and electrolyte imbalances.
4
Flush the gastrostomy tube with 30 mL of water.
The tube is cleared and patency is confirmed.
Flushing prevents tube clogging and ensures the pathway is clear before introducing the viscous feeding formula.
5
Administer the prescribed bolus feeding formula by gravity.
The client receives the prescribed nutrition.
Formula is administered only after safety checks (positioning, placement, tolerance, and patency) have been completed.

Anahtar Kavram

Safe administration of enteral tube feedings requires a sequential approach prioritizing aspiration prevention, verifying placement, assessing gastrointestinal tolerance, and maintaining tube patency.
Soru 1542Soru →

An intensive care nurse is managing a client in profound cardiogenic shock complicated by severe metabolic acidosis. The client has a single-lumen central venous catheter currently dedicated to a continuous intravenous infusion of norepinephrine at 0.15 mcg/kg/min0.15 \text{ mcg/kg/min} to maintain a mean arterial pressure of 62 mm Hg62 \text{ mm Hg}. The healthcare provider gives a STAT prescription for 50 mEq50 \text{ mEq} of intravenous sodium bicarbonate. Which action represents the safest and most appropriate method for the nurse to administer this medication?

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Cevap: Establish a new peripheral intravenous access site to administer the prescribed medication independently.

Cevap

Establish a new peripheral intravenous access site to administer the prescribed medication independently.
The correct action recognizes two critical physiological and pharmacological principles: first, norepinephrine is a life-sustaining continuous infusion that cannot be interrupted without causing rapid cardiovascular collapse; second, sodium bicarbonate is highly alkaline and will immediately deactivate catecholamines if they share the same intravenous pathway. Establishing a separate intravenous line is the only safe solution that addresses both constraints.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's hemodynamic status.
The client is in profound shock, dependent on continuous norepinephrine to maintain a borderline mean arterial pressure (62 mm Hg62 \text{ mm Hg}).
Understanding the client's extreme fragility confirms that the vasopressor infusion cannot be paused, even for a brief medication push and flush.
2
Evaluate the pharmacological compatibility of the prescribed medications.
Sodium bicarbonate is a highly alkaline solution, whereas norepinephrine is a catecholamine that requires an acidic environment to remain chemically stable.
Mixing these two medications will cause the alkaline bicarbonate to chemically inactivate the norepinephrine and may result in crystallization within the tubing.
3
Determine the physical constraints of the available intravenous access.
The client has a single-lumen central catheter, meaning any medication administered through its ports will directly mix with the continuous norepinephrine infusion before entering the bloodstream.
Since the single lumen cannot be safely shared (due to chemical incompatibility) and the primary infusion cannot be paused (due to shock), the existing line is entirely unavailable for the new medication.
4
Synthesize findings to select the safest nursing intervention.
A secondary intravenous access (such as a new peripheral line) must be established to administer the STAT sodium bicarbonate.
This is the only method that ensures the immediate delivery of the required alkalizing agent without jeopardizing the client's life-sustaining hemodynamic support.

Anahtar Kavram

Intravenous Compatibility and Vasopressor Management in Shock
Soru 1543Soru →

A 62-year-old client has a chest tube connected to a closed water-seal drainage system for the treatment of a right-sided spontaneous pneumothorax. Which assessment findings indicate a developing physiological complication or system malfunction that requires immediate intervention? Select all that apply.

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Cevap: Tracheal deviation toward the left side of the neck; Continuous, vigorous bubbling in the water-seal chamber; Asymmetric chest expansion with absent breath sounds on the right side

Cevap

The findings that require immediate intervention are tracheal deviation toward the left side, continuous vigorous bubbling in the water-seal chamber, and asymmetric chest expansion with absent breath sounds on the right side.
The correct choices represent acute physiological deterioration (tension pneumothorax, worsening lung collapse) or a system failure (continuous air leak). Immediate intervention is required to restore respiratory hemodynamics and ensure the patency of the closed drainage system.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's baseline condition
The client has a right-sided pneumothorax requiring closed-chest drainage to restore negative intrapleural pressure.
Establishing the baseline is necessary to differentiate expected therapeutic outcomes from pathological changes.
2
Evaluate respiratory and systemic assessment findings
Tracheal deviation to the left and absent breath sounds on the right are identified as signs of a tension pneumothorax.
These findings indicate dangerously high intrathoracic pressure compromising ventilation and venous return, requiring immediate life-saving intervention.
3
Assess the chest drainage system mechanics
Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber is identified as an abnormal finding.
While intermittent bubbling during exhalation is normal in a resolving pneumothorax, continuous bubbling indicates a persistent and pathological air leak in the system or pleural space.
4
Differentiate normal from abnormal findings
Tidaling, positioning the system below the chest, and minimal serous output are recognized as expected and correct.
Recognizing expected findings prevents unnecessary and potentially harmful interruptions to safe, standard care.

Anahtar Kavram

Chest Tube Complication Recognition and Risk Reduction
Soru 1544Soru →

A nurse is instructing a client with right-sided hemiparesis on how to safely ambulate using a single-point cane. Place the following steps of the ambulation sequence in the correct order. (Arrange the items from first to last.)

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Cevap

The correct sequence for safe cane ambulation is: hold the cane in the strong hand, advance the cane, step forward with the weak leg, shift weight to the weak leg and cane, and finally step past the cane with the strong leg.
Safe ambulation with a cane requires the 'COAL' method (Cane Opposite Affected Leg). The client must hold the cane in the strong (left) hand. The sequence begins by advancing the cane to create a new, forward base of support. Next, the weak (right) leg is advanced to become even with the cane, ensuring the strong leg remains firmly planted for balance. Once the weak leg and cane are in position, the client shifts their weight onto them. This allows the strong (left) leg to safely step forward past the cane, completing the gait cycle.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the strong and weak sides based on the client's clinical presentation.
The right side is weak (hemiparesis), making the left side the strong (unaffected) side.
Assistive devices must be properly placed on the strong side to reduce stress on the affected joint or limb and maximize stability.
2
Determine the sequence of the initial forward movement.
The client must first advance the cane.
Advancing the cane establishes a forward base of support before any feet leave the ground.
3
Determine which leg must move first.
The weak (right) leg is advanced to align with the cane.
Moving the weak leg first allows the strong leg to remain firmly planted, providing maximum stability and balance during the vulnerable phase of the step.
4
Complete the gait cycle.
Weight is shifted to the weak leg and cane, allowing the strong (left) leg to advance past the cane.
The strong leg moves last so that it can smoothly propel the body forward while the cane and weak leg securely bear the shifted weight.

Anahtar Kavram

Assistive Device Ambulation (Cane Sequence)
Soru 1545Soru →

A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is caring for a client with a serum potassium level of 2.4 mEq/L2.4 \text{ mEq/L}. The healthcare provider prescribes an intravenous infusion of 40 mEq40 \text{ mEq} of potassium chloride in 100 mL100 \text{ mL} of 0.9% sodium chloride0.9\% \text{ sodium chloride} to be administered over 30 minutes30 \text{ minutes}. The client has a patent 20-gauge peripheral intravenous catheter. Which of the following is the priority nursing action?

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Cevap: Contact the healthcare provider to question the prescribed infusion rate.

Cevap

Contact the healthcare provider to question the prescribed infusion rate.
The maximum safe administration rate for intravenous potassium chloride through a peripheral line is 10 mEq/hr10 \text{ mEq/hr} (or up to 20 mEq/hr20 \text{ mEq/hr} through a central line with continuous cardiac monitoring). The prescribed order of 40 mEq40 \text{ mEq} over 30 minutes30 \text{ minutes} equates to a rate of 80 mEq/hr80 \text{ mEq/hr}. This rate is highly toxic and can cause immediate, fatal cardiac arrhythmias such as ventricular fibrillation. The nurse must act as a client advocate by withholding the medication and contacting the healthcare provider to request a safe infusion rate and time.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the prescribed dosage and infusion time.
The prescription is for 40 mEq40 \text{ mEq} to be infused over 0.5 hours0.5 \text{ hours}.
Determining the hourly rate is required to evaluate administration safety.
2
Calculate the hourly infusion rate.
The rate is 40 mEq÷0.5 hours=80 mEq/hr40 \text{ mEq} \div 0.5 \text{ hours} = 80 \text{ mEq/hr}.
Standard safety guidelines for intravenous potassium are based on hourly maximums.
3
Compare the calculated rate to safe administration guidelines.
The maximum safe peripheral limit is 10 mEq/hr10 \text{ mEq/hr}. The prescribed rate of 80 mEq/hr80 \text{ mEq/hr} is severely unsafe.
Rapid infusion of potassium causes fatal cardiac arrhythmias.
4
Determine the priority nursing action.
The nurse must withhold the medication and contact the healthcare provider immediately.
Patient safety is the highest priority; the nurse must not execute a lethal medical order.

Anahtar Kavram

Safe administration of intravenous potassium chloride
Soru 1546Soru →

An older adult client is restricted to bed rest on the surgical unit following a lumbar spinal fusion. When addressing the client's basic care, comfort, and mobility needs, which interventions should the nurse implement? Select all that apply.

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Cevap: Use a logrolling technique with the assistance of at least one other staff member when turning the client.; Place a supportive pillow between the client's knees when turning them to a lateral recumbent position.; Apply a protective moisture barrier ointment to the sacral and perineal skin during hygiene care.

Cevap

The correct interventions are using a logrolling technique with assistance, placing a pillow between the knees when in a lateral position, and applying a moisture barrier ointment to protect the skin.
Following a lumbar spinal fusion, the client's spine must be kept in straight alignment to prevent injury to the surgical site. Logrolling with multiple staff members ensures the spine moves as a single unit without twisting. Placing a pillow between the knees in a lateral position prevents inward rotation of the hip and pulling on the lower spine, thereby promoting proper alignment and comfort. Finally, applying a moisture barrier during hygiene is a fundamental basic care measure to prevent skin breakdown in vulnerable clients who are restricted to bed.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's specific medical condition and activity restrictions.
The client has undergone a lumbar spinal fusion and requires interventions that maintain strict spinal alignment while on bed rest.
Preventing spinal twisting or acute flexion is critical to avoid surgical complications and promote healing.
2
Evaluate each intervention for safety, scope of practice, and physiological rationale.
Logrolling, using supportive pillows between the knees, and protecting skin integrity are safe basic care standards. Conversely, placing the client in high Fowler's, delegating clinical assessments, and ignoring sudden confusion are unsafe practices.
Nursing actions must maintain alignment, ensure proper RN oversight for clinical evaluation, and accurately recognize acute pathological changes versus normal aging.

Anahtar Kavram

Basic Care, Comfort, and Positioning for Post-Spinal Surgery
Soru 1547Soru →

A nurse is planning skin integrity and comfort measures for an intubated client with severe acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) who is undergoing therapeutic prone positioning. Which action is the most appropriate to include in the plan of care to protect the client's skin and promote safety?

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Cevap: Apply prophylactic foam or hydrocolloid dressings to the client's forehead, cheeks, and chin prior to placing the client in the prone position.

Cevap

The most appropriate action is to apply prophylactic foam or hydrocolloid dressings to the face (forehead, cheeks, chin) prior to initiating the prone position to prevent pressure injuries.
Applying prophylactic barrier dressings to the face is a critical, evidence-based basic care intervention. It minimizes friction, manages microclimate, and redistributes the intense pressure placed on the facial bones, significantly reducing the risk of deep tissue injury during the 12 to 16 hours the client remains prone.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the primary basic care risks associated with prone positioning in intubated clients.
The client is at extreme risk for pressure injuries on the dependent surfaces, particularly the face, anterior shoulders, chest, and knees.
Therapeutic proning lasts for extended periods (typically 12-16 hours), placing intense, unyielding pressure on bony prominences that are not accustomed to weight-bearing.
2
Evaluate the proposed skin and safety interventions against evidence-based care guidelines.
Prophylactic dressings are recommended; continuous static head positioning causes necrosis; 45-degree elevation is anatomically impossible in prone; and airway manipulation cannot be delegated.
Ensures the selected nursing action effectively balances comfort and skin integrity with critical care airway security.

Anahtar Kavram

Pressure injury prevention and safe positioning protocols for clients in therapeutic prone positions.
Tahmini Süre:2m 0s
Soru 1548Soru →

A telemetry nurse is caring for a client who suddenly develops paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (SVT). The client's heart rate is 205 beats/min, and blood pressure is 114/72 mm Hg. The client is alert and reports feeling a "racing heart." The client has a double-lumen central venous catheter (CVC) in the right internal jugular vein. The proximal lumen is infusing continuous normal saline, and the distal lumen is capped. No peripheral intravenous access is available. The healthcare provider is at the bedside and verbally orders, "Administer adenosine 6 mg rapid IV push stat."

What is the most appropriate action by the nurse?

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Cevap: Clarify the prescription with the provider to reduce the adenosine dose to 3 mg due to the central venous administration route

Cevap

The nurse must clarify the order with the provider to reduce the adenosine dose from 6 mg to 3 mg because the medication will be administered via a central venous catheter.
The correct answer identifies that the standard initial dose of adenosine (6 mg) must be reduced when given via a central line. Adenosine causes transient atrioventricular (AV) node block to terminate SVT and has a half-life of less than 10 seconds. The standard 6 mg dose is calculated for peripheral IV administration, factoring in natural degradation as the drug travels up the arm to the heart. When administered via a central venous catheter (CVC) that terminates in the superior vena cava, the drug reaches the cardiac tissue almost instantly and in a much higher concentration. According to resuscitation guidelines, the initial adenosine dose must be reduced by half (to 3 mg) for central administration to prevent profound, prolonged asystole or high-degree heart blocks. The nurse must act as a patient advocate and clarify this order with the provider.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Assess the client's hemodynamic stability and presenting rhythm.
The client is in SVT but remains hemodynamically stable (alert, blood pressure 114/72 mm Hg), making pharmacological intervention appropriate over electrical cardioversion.
Differentiating between stable and unstable SVT dictates whether the client receives medications (adenosine) or immediate synchronized cardioversion.
2
Evaluate the prescribed medication dose against the available intravenous access route.
The provider ordered 6 mg of adenosine, which is the standard peripheral dose. However, the client only has a central venous catheter (CVC).
Medication pharmacokinetics, particularly for rapidly acting cardiac drugs, can change drastically based on the route of administration.
3
Determine the appropriate dosage adjustment for central line administration.
Resuscitation guidelines require reducing the initial adenosine dose to 3 mg when administered centrally.
Central administration bypasses peripheral degradation, delivering the medication to the heart instantly. A full 6 mg central dose drastically increases the risk of prolonged asystole.
4
Formulate the safest nursing action based on the findings.
The nurse must hold the medication and clarify the order with the provider to reduce the dose to 3 mg before administration.
Nurses must verify that all components of a medication prescription are safe and appropriate for the client's specific clinical situation, acting as the final safety checkpoint.

Anahtar Kavram

Pharmacokinetics of Adenosine via Central Venous Access
Soru 1549Soru →

A client is receiving an initial intravenous infusion of vancomycin for a severe soft tissue infection. Fifteen minutes after the infusion begins, the nurse observes that the client's face, neck, and upper chest are intensely red. The client reports feeling dizzy and severely itchy. Current vital signs reveal a blood pressure of 88/54 mmHg88/54 \text{ mmHg} and a heart rate of 118 beats/min118 \text{ beats/min}. What is the priority nursing action?

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Cevap: Stop the intravenous vancomycin infusion completely.

Cevap

Stop the intravenous vancomycin infusion completely.
The client is experiencing a severe vancomycin infusion reaction (historically referred to as red man syndrome) complicated by hemodynamic instability. While mild cases involving only localized flushing and itching can often be managed by slowing the infusion rate, the presence of systemic hypotension (blood pressure 88/54 mmHg88/54 \text{ mmHg}) and dizziness indicates a severe reaction or potential anaphylactic shock. The absolute priority action is to immediately stop the infusion to prevent further release of histamine and worsening shock. Only after the infusion is stopped should the nurse assess the airway, notify the healthcare provider, and administer prescribed supportive therapies such as intravenous fluids and antihistamines.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Assess the client's clinical presentation and vital signs during the medication administration.
The client exhibits intense erythema, severe pruritus, dizziness, hypotension (88/54 mmHg88/54 \text{ mmHg}), and tachycardia (118 beats/min118 \text{ beats/min}).
Identifying these systemic signs differentiates a mild vancomycin infusion reaction from a severe reaction with hemodynamic compromise.
2
Determine the priority intervention based on the severity of the reaction.
The nurse must immediately stop the infusion.
Hypotension and dizziness indicate compromised tissue perfusion. The offending agent must be discontinued before administering rescue medications or altering the client's position.

Anahtar Kavram

Management of severe vancomycin infusion reactions and anaphylaxis
Soru 1550Soru →

A nurse is caring for a client with cardiogenic shock who weighs 85 kg85 \text{ kg}. The healthcare provider prescribes a continuous intravenous (IV) infusion of dopamine at 5 mcg/kg/min5 \text{ mcg/kg/min}. The pharmacy provides an IV bag containing 400 mg400 \text{ mg} of dopamine mixed in 250 mL250 \text{ mL} of 5%5\% Dextrose in Water (D5W). At what rate should the nurse set the IV infusion pump in mL/hr\text{mL/hr}? (Record your answer to the nearest tenth.)

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Cevap: 15.9

Cevap

The nurse should set the infusion pump to 15.9 mL/hr.
The correct answer is derived by calculating the weight-based dose per minute, converting it to an hourly rate, matching the units to the supplied concentration (mcg to mg), and dividing by the concentration of the dopamine bag. Finally, the value is rounded to the nearest tenth.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Calculate the required dose per minute based on the client's weight.
85 kg×5 mcg/kg/min=425 mcg/min85 \text{ kg} \times 5 \text{ mcg/kg/min} = 425 \text{ mcg/min}
The prescription is weight-based, requiring the nurse to multiply the ordered rate by the client's weight in kg.
2
Convert the per-minute dose to a per-hour dose.
425 mcg/min×60 min/hr=25,500 mcg/hr425 \text{ mcg/min} \times 60 \text{ min/hr} = 25,500 \text{ mcg/hr}
Infusion pumps are programmed in mL per hour, so the minute dosage must be converted to an hourly rate.
3
Convert the required hourly dose from micrograms (mcg) to milligrams (mg).
25,500 mcg/hr÷1000 mcg/mg=25.5 mg/hr25,500 \text{ mcg/hr} \div 1000 \text{ mcg/mg} = 25.5 \text{ mg/hr}
The supplied medication concentration is provided in mg, so the hourly dose must match these units.
4
Calculate the concentration of the supplied IV fluid.
400 mg÷250 mL=1.6 mg/mL400 \text{ mg} \div 250 \text{ mL} = 1.6 \text{ mg/mL}
Determining the concentration simplifies the final volume calculation.
5
Calculate the final infusion rate and round to the nearest tenth.
25.5 mg/hr÷1.6 mg/mL=15.9375 mL/hr25.5 \text{ mg/hr} \div 1.6 \text{ mg/mL} = 15.9375 \text{ mL/hr}, which rounds to 15.9 mL/hr15.9 \text{ mL/hr}
Dividing the required hourly dose by the concentration yields the final pump setting.

Anahtar Kavram

Weight-based continuous IV infusion rate calculation (mcg/kg/min to mL/hr)
Soru 1551Soru →

A 32-year-old client is admitted to the emergency department following a high-speed motor vehicle collision. The client sustained blunt trauma to the anterior chest. The nurse's initial assessment reveals a blood pressure of 88/54 mm Hg, heart rate of 134 bpm, and respiratory rate of 32 breaths/min. The client's trachea is deviated to the left, and jugular venous distention (JVD) is present despite the head of the bed being elevated to 45 degrees. An arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis on room air shows pH 7.28, PaCO2 56 mm Hg, HCO3 24 mEq/L, and PaO2 58 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse take FIRST?

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Cevap: Prepare the client for an emergent right-sided needle thoracostomy.

Cevap

The correct action is to prepare the client for an emergent right-sided needle thoracostomy.
The client's presentation of profound hypotension, tachycardia, jugular venous distention, and left-sided tracheal deviation strongly indicates a right-sided tension pneumothorax. This condition traps air in the pleural space, creating massive intrathoracic pressure that compresses the great vessels and heart, leading to obstructive shock and cardiopulmonary collapse. The immediate, life-saving intervention is to relieve this pressure through an emergent needle thoracostomy (decompression) on the affected right side, followed by a chest tube insertion.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the clinical assessment findings.
The client presents with severe hypotension, tachycardia, jugular venous distention (JVD), and a trachea deviated to the left.
These are the hallmark signs of a tension pneumothorax. The leftward tracheal deviation specifically isolates the pathology to the right side of the chest.
2
Differentiate the type of shock present.
The client is experiencing obstructive shock, not hypovolemic shock.
Trapped air in the pleural space creates massive intrathoracic pressure, physically compressing the heart and great vessels. This mechanical obstruction prevents venous return (causing JVD) and drastically reduces cardiac output (causing hypotension).
3
Interpret the arterial blood gas (ABG) values.
pH 7.28 (acidosis), PaCO2 56 mm Hg (respiratory acidosis), HCO3 24 mEq/L (normal), and PaO2 58 mm Hg (severe hypoxemia).
This confirms acute, uncompensated respiratory acidosis resulting from the collapsed lung's inability to ventilate and oxygenate.
4
Determine the highest priority nursing intervention.
Preparation for immediate pleural decompression (needle thoracostomy) on the right side.
Relieving the trapped air is the only definitive way to reverse the mechanical obstruction, restore cardiac output, and allow the lung to re-expand. Other interventions like fluids or positioning will not correct the underlying life-threatening pathology.

Anahtar Kavram

Tension Pneumothorax and Obstructive Shock Management
Tahmini Süre:2m 0s
Soru 1552Soru →

During the first 4 hours of postoperative care following a radical nephrectomy, a client's physiological parameters begin to shift. The initial postoperative assessment revealed a blood pressure of 138/76 mm Hg and a heart rate of 78 beats/min. The current assessment shows a blood pressure of 116/88 mm Hg, a heart rate of 115 beats/min, and a respiratory rate of 22 breaths/min. In response to these changes, which of the following interventions should the nurse prioritize?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Increase the prescribed intravenous isotonic fluid rate and immediately contact the healthcare provider.

Cevap

Increase the prescribed intravenous isotonic fluid rate and immediately contact the healthcare provider.
The correct answer addresses the client's transition into compensatory hypovolemic shock. A radical nephrectomy carries a high risk of hemorrhage. The client's pulse pressure has narrowed significantly (from 62 mm Hg to 28 mm Hg) and is accompanied by new-onset tachycardia. These are classic early signs of shock as the body attempts to maintain cardiac output. Increasing intravenous fluids helps restore intravascular volume, and immediate provider notification is critical for further medical or surgical intervention.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the baseline vital signs compared to the current vital signs.
The client's pulse pressure narrowed from 62 mm Hg to 28 mm Hg, and the heart rate increased from 78 to 115 beats/min.
Identifying trends in vital signs is essential to detect early physiological decompensation before severe hypotension occurs.
2
Interpret the clinical significance of these vital sign changes in a postoperative client.
The combination of tachycardia and a narrowing pulse pressure indicates the compensatory stage of hypovolemic shock, likely due to internal hemorrhage.
A radical nephrectomy is a highly vascular procedure with a significant risk of postoperative bleeding.
3
Select the nursing intervention that directly mitigates this life-threatening risk.
Administering intravenous fluids and notifying the provider addresses the volume deficit and initiates necessary medical management.
Immediate action is required to prevent progression to decompensated shock and potential organ failure.

Anahtar Kavram

Early recognition and management of postoperative hypovolemic shock
Soru 1553Soru →

A nurse is planning basic care and comfort measures for a geriatric client who is recovering from a right total hip arthroplasty utilizing a posterior surgical approach. The client reports sacral discomfort from prolonged bed rest, and the nurse must reposition them while mitigating the risk of complications. Which action is the most appropriate?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Assist the client to roll onto the unoperated left side while maintaining a foam abductor wedge securely between the lower extremities.

Cevap

The most appropriate action is to assist the client to roll onto their unoperated left side while maintaining a foam abductor wedge securely between their lower extremities.
The correct action safely addresses the client's sacral discomfort by offloading pressure onto the unoperated side. Critically, the continuous use of the abductor wedge prevents the affected leg from crossing the midline (adduction) or turning inward (internal rotation), which are the primary mechanisms that cause posterior hip dislocation.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the client's surgical procedure and the associated anatomical precautions.
The client had a right total hip arthroplasty via a posterior approach, which requires strict avoidance of hip flexion greater than 90 degrees, hip adduction (crossing the midline), and internal rotation.
These specific movements can force the femoral head out of the acetabular cup, causing posterior dislocation of the new joint.
2
Evaluate the nursing goal.
The goal is to provide basic comfort and relieve sacral pressure while strictly adhering to orthopedic precautions.
Immobility increases the risk of pressure injuries, necessitating safe repositioning.
3
Analyze the proposed interventions against safety and scope of practice guidelines.
High-Fowler's position violates the hip flexion precaution. Delegating skin assessment violates the UAP scope of practice. Using restraints violates the principle of least restrictive interventions.
Nursing actions must simultaneously address comfort, surgical safety, and ethical/legal standards.
4
Select the intervention that safely achieves the comfort goal.
Turning to the unoperated side safely offloads sacral pressure, while the continuous use of an abductor wedge prevents the dangerous adduction and internal rotation of the affected limb.
This comprehensively addresses basic care needs without compromising the surgical site.

Anahtar Kavram

Post-operative positioning precautions for posterior total hip arthroplasty (avoiding >90 degree flexion, adduction, and internal rotation).
Soru 1554Soru →

A 72-year-old client with a history of moderate dementia is hospitalized for treatment of aspiration pneumonia. The client is receiving continuous intravenous (IV) fluids, has a poor appetite, and exhibits increased restlessness, repeatedly pulling at the IV tubing. Which of the following nursing actions are appropriate to promote the client's basic care and comfort? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

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Cevap: Provide oral hygiene every few hours using moistened sponge swabs to maintain mucous membrane moisture.; Ensure the client is positioned upright at a 45- to 90-degree angle while eating or drinking.; Implement a regular toileting schedule every 2 hours while the client is awake to manage incontinence and protect skin integrity.

Cevap

The appropriate actions are providing frequent oral hygiene, ensuring an upright position during oral intake, and implementing a regular toileting schedule.
The correct interventions prioritize physiological integrity, safety, and comfort. Providing frequent oral hygiene maintains mucous membrane moisture and reduces the risk of further respiratory infections. Ensuring the client is positioned upright at a 45- to 90-degree angle during intake utilizes gravity to prevent aspiration, which is critical given the current diagnosis. Implementing a regular toileting schedule proactively manages incontinence caused by IV fluids and dementia, protecting skin integrity and promoting dignity.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation and identify specific risks.
The client has a diagnosis of aspiration pneumonia, underlying dementia, poor appetite, and is exhibiting restless behavior by pulling at the IV line.
Identifying specific vulnerabilities guides the prioritization of safe and effective basic care interventions.
2
Evaluate each potential intervention against fundamental safety and comfort principles.
Upright positioning, oral care, and toileting schedules safely promote hygiene and comfort. Applying restraints, delegating initial assessments, and using flat positioning violate clinical safety standards.
Nursing actions must prioritize airway protection, maintain skin integrity, and utilize the least restrictive environment.

Anahtar Kavram

Basic Care and Comfort - Interventions for Aspiration Risk, Skin Integrity, and Safety
Soru 1555Soru →

The nurse is reviewing the health records of several clients to determine their risk for acid-base imbalances. Which of the following conditions place a client at high risk for developing respiratory acidosis? Select all that apply.

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Cevap: An overdose of an opioid analgesic; An exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

Cevap

The conditions that place a client at risk for respiratory acidosis are an overdose of an opioid analgesic and an exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
Respiratory acidosis occurs when there is a decrease in the rate or efficiency of respiration (hypoventilation), leading to an accumulation of carbon dioxide in the blood. An overdose of an opioid analgesic depresses the central respiratory drive, while an exacerbation of COPD involves airway obstruction and air trapping. Both conditions prevent the adequate exhalation of carbon dioxide, directly causing respiratory acidosis.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the defining mechanism of respiratory acidosis.
Respiratory acidosis is caused by hypoventilation and the retention of carbon dioxide (CO2).
Understanding the underlying pathophysiology is essential for identifying contributing clinical conditions.
2
Evaluate each condition for its effect on ventilation and CO2 elimination.
Opioid overdoses depress the respiratory center, and COPD obstructs expiratory airflow; both conditions lead directly to CO2 retention.
Conditions that decrease respiratory rate or obstruct airflow prevent the lungs from adequately clearing carbon dioxide.
3
Differentiate the incorrect options by identifying their corresponding acid-base imbalances.
Hyperventilation causes respiratory alkalosis. Nasogastric suctioning causes metabolic alkalosis. Diarrhea causes metabolic acidosis.
Eliminating distractors confirms that only the conditions causing hypoventilation lead to respiratory acidosis.

Anahtar Kavram

Respiratory Acidosis Etiology
Soru 1556Soru →

An emergency department nurse is evaluating a young adult who presented with a severe acute asthma exacerbation. Upon arrival, the client exhibited audible wheezing, prominent intercostal retractions, and a respiratory rate of 36 breaths/min. The baseline arterial blood gas (ABG) results on room air were:

ParameterValue
pH7.50
PaCO226 mm Hg
HCO323 mEq/L
PaO270 mm Hg

One hour after the administration of continuous nebulized bronchodilators and intravenous corticosteroids, the nurse reassesses the client. The client is now lethargic, the respiratory rate has decreased to 12 breaths/min, and lung sounds are significantly diminished bilaterally with no audible wheezing. The repeat ABG results are:

ParameterValue
pH7.27
PaCO264 mm Hg
HCO324 mEq/L
PaO252 mm Hg

Which intervention is the most appropriate priority action based on these clinical changes?

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Cevap: Alert the healthcare provider and prepare the airway equipment for immediate intubation and mechanical ventilation.

Cevap

Alert the healthcare provider and prepare the airway equipment for immediate intubation and mechanical ventilation.
The correct action is to prepare for immediate intubation and mechanical ventilation. During a severe asthma exacerbation, a shift from respiratory alkalosis (due to hyperventilation) to respiratory acidosis (rising PaCO2, falling pH) signals that the client has exhausted their respiratory muscles and can no longer maintain adequate ventilation. The physical signs of lethargy, a normalized or slow respiratory rate, and a lack of wheezing ('silent chest') confirm impending respiratory failure and the critical need for an advanced airway.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the initial ABG and clinical presentation.
The client initially presented in respiratory alkalosis (pH 7.50, low PaCO2) due to hyperventilation, which is a common early compensatory mechanism to overcome airway resistance in an asthma attack.
Understanding the baseline establishes the trajectory of the client's respiratory status.
2
Analyze the follow-up ABG results.
The repeat ABG shows uncompensated respiratory acidosis (pH dropped to 7.27, PaCO2 sharply rose to 64 mm Hg) and worsening hypoxemia (PaO2 52 mm Hg).
Identifying the acid-base shift is critical to recognizing alveolar hypoventilation.
3
Correlate the laboratory findings with the physical assessment.
The lethargy, decreased respiratory rate, and absence of wheezing ('silent chest') perfectly align with the hypercapnia. The client's respiratory muscles have fatigued, resulting in an inability to move air.
Clinical assessment validates the lab values and reveals the severity of the decompensation.
4
Determine the highest priority nursing intervention.
Immediate endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation are required because the client is in acute respiratory failure and can no longer maintain their own airway or ventilation.
Airway and breathing are the highest priorities; without mechanical support, the client will progress to cardiac arrest.

Anahtar Kavram

Recognition of impending respiratory failure and 'silent chest' in acute asthma exacerbation.
Soru 1557Soru →

An adult client is recovering on the surgical unit 48 hours after undergoing a right above-the-knee amputation. To prevent complications related to immobility and promote optimal physical comfort, which action should the nurse take?

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Cevap: Assist the client into a prone position for 20 to 30 minutes several times each day.

Cevap

Assist the client into a prone position for 20 to 30 minutes several times each day.
Following an above-the-knee amputation, the client is at high risk for developing a hip flexion contracture, which can complicate or completely prevent rehabilitation with a prosthesis. Assisting the client into a prone position for 20 to 30 minutes, three to four times a day, stretches the flexor muscles and prevents contracture formation.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the client's postoperative timeline and surgical procedure.
The client is 48 hours post-right above-the-knee amputation.
The timeline dictates which interventions are safe and which are contraindicated.
2
Determine the greatest mobility and positioning risk for a client with this specific amputation.
The most significant risk is the development of a hip flexion contracture.
Contractures severely limit joint mobility and can permanently prevent the future use of a prosthetic limb.
3
Evaluate the given options against contracture prevention strategies.
Prone positioning physically extends the hip joint, whereas elevating the limb or utilizing a high-Fowler's position promotes prolonged hip flexion.
To prevent flexion contractures, the joint must be periodically stretched in full extension.

Anahtar Kavram

Preventing hip flexion contractures following lower extremity amputation
Tahmini Süre:1m 0s
Soru 1558Soru →

A client is receiving care in the urgent care clinic after experiencing severe, watery diarrhea for the past three days. Based on the significant loss of lower gastrointestinal fluids, which acid-base imbalance should the nurse anticipate?

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Cevap: Metabolic acidosis

Cevap

Metabolic acidosis
The correct answer accurately reflects that severe diarrhea removes large quantities of bicarbonate from the body. Because bicarbonate is a primary base, its excessive loss causes the blood to become more acidic, resulting in metabolic acidosis.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the primary source of fluid loss described in the client's presentation.
The client has severe, watery diarrhea, which is a loss of lower gastrointestinal fluid.
Different body fluids contain different concentrations of electrolytes and acid-base buffers.
2
Determine the primary buffer lost in lower gastrointestinal fluids.
Intestinal fluids are rich in bicarbonate, which functions as a base in the body.
Understanding the composition of the lost fluid helps determine the resulting systemic imbalance.
3
Conclude the systemic effect of losing a large amount of base.
The excessive loss of bicarbonate leads to a relative excess of acid in the blood, resulting in metabolic acidosis.
The acid-base balance shifts toward acidity when a significant amount of base is depleted.

Anahtar Kavram

Lower gastrointestinal fluids are rich in bicarbonate. Excessive loss of these fluids through severe diarrhea leads to base depletion and subsequent metabolic acidosis.
Soru 1559Soru →

A nurse is preparing to administer a prescribed parenteral medication from a glass ampule. Arrange the following actions in the correct chronological order to ensure safe preparation. (Place the first action at the top and the final action at the bottom.)

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Cevap

The correct sequence is to tap the ampule to clear the stem, protect the fingers with gauze, snap the neck away from the body, draw the medication using a filter needle, and finally replace the filter needle with a standard administration device.
Safe medication preparation from a glass ampule requires a specific sequence to prevent injury and contamination. The medication must first be cleared from the stem to ensure accurate dosing. A barrier (gauze or alcohol swab) is then placed around the neck to protect the nurse's fingers before snapping the top away from the body to protect the face and eyes. A filter needle is essential to draw up the medication safely, preventing microscopic glass shards from entering the syringe. Finally, the filter needle must be discarded and replaced with a standard administration device, as using the same filter needle for injection would deliver trapped glass particles into the client.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Tap the upper chamber of the ampule lightly.
Trapped medication falls into the lower chamber of the ampule.
This ensures the entire volume of medication is accessible for withdrawal and prevents dosing errors.
2
Wrap a sterile gauze pad or unopened alcohol swab around the neck of the ampule.
The nurse's fingers are shielded by a physical barrier.
This minimizes the risk of laceration from glass shards during the snapping motion.
3
Snap the neck of the ampule firmly and quickly away from the body.
The ampule is safely opened.
Directing the breaking force away from the body protects the nurse's face and eyes from flying glass fragments.
4
Attach a filter needle to a sterile syringe and withdraw the medication.
The prescribed dose is drawn into the syringe free of glass contamination.
When a glass ampule is broken, microscopic shards inevitably fall into the fluid. The filter needle traps these particles.
5
Remove the filter needle and attach an appropriate administration device.
The syringe is safely prepared for client administration.
Using the filter needle for client injection is strictly contraindicated, as it would introduce the trapped glass particles into the client.

Anahtar Kavram

Safe medication preparation from a glass ampule
Soru 1560Soru →

A nurse is preparing to administer an intermittent bolus enteral feeding via a nasogastric (NG) tube to an adult client. In what order should the nurse perform the following actions? Arrange the steps in the correct chronological sequence from first to last.

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Cevap

The correct sequence is to first elevate the head of the bed, then verify tube placement and check residual volume, flush the tube with water, administer the feeding formula, and finally flush the tube with water again.
Safe administration of an intermittent bolus enteral feeding requires a systematic approach to prevent severe complications such as aspiration or tube occlusion. The nurse must initially elevate the head of the bed to at least 30 to 45 degrees to protect the airway. Next, verifying tube placement and assessing the gastric residual volume ensures the tube remains in the stomach and the client is tolerating previous feedings. Once safety is confirmed, flushing the tube with 30 mL of water confirms patency. The formula is then administered by gravity to prevent rapid infusion complications like dumping syndrome or cramping. Finally, a post-feeding flush clears the viscous formula from the tube, preventing clogs and bacterial growth.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Elevate the head of the bed.
The client is placed in a semi-Fowler's position.
This utilizes gravity to reduce the risk of gastroesophageal reflux and pulmonary aspiration during the procedure.
2
Verify placement and assess gastric residual volume (GRV).
Tube location in the stomach is confirmed and digestion rate is evaluated.
Ensures the feeding will be delivered to the correct anatomical location and prevents overfilling the stomach.
3
Flush the tube with 30 mL of water.
The internal lumen of the NG tube is cleared.
Confirms the tube is patent and ready to receive the thicker feeding formula.
4
Administer the bolus feeding.
The prescribed nutrition is infused into the client's stomach.
Gravity flow provides a steady, safe rate of administration to prevent nausea or cramping.
5
Perform a post-feeding water flush.
Residual formula is washed out of the tube.
Maintains tube patency for future use and prevents formula from spoiling inside the tube.

Anahtar Kavram

Procedural sequencing for safe enteral nutrition administration
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Physiological Integrity Alıştırma Soruları — NCLEX-RN — Sayfa 78 | Examkin