Physiological Integrity

1960 soru

Soru 1561Soru →

The nurse is caring for a client with a spinal cord injury at the T4 level. The client suddenly reports a severe, pounding headache and profuse diaphoresis above the level of the injury. The blood pressure is 198/104 mm Hg and heart rate is 52 beats per minute. Arrange the following nursing interventions in the correct priority order from first to last.

Öğeleri doğru sıraya koymak için sürükleyin

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Cevap

The correct sequence is: Elevate the head of the bed, assess the urinary catheter or bladder, notify the healthcare provider, and administer antihypertensive medication.
The correct sequence prioritizes immediate physiological safety, followed by cause identification, and then medical escalation. Elevating the head of the bed utilizes orthostasis to immediately reduce blood pressure and prevent stroke. Finding and removing the noxious stimulus (commonly bladder distention) treats the root cause. If these measures do not resolve the crisis, the healthcare provider must be notified to provide orders for antihypertensives.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the complication based on the clinical presentation.
The client with a T4 spinal cord injury presenting with severe hypertension, bradycardia, pounding headache, and diaphoresis is experiencing autonomic dysreflexia.
Recognizing this life-threatening medical emergency is critical for determining the immediate interventions.
2
Determine the most immediate physical intervention to mitigate risk.
Elevate the head of the bed to a high Fowler's or sitting position.
Sitting the client upright takes advantage of gravity to induce orthostatic hypotension, which immediately helps lower the dangerously high blood pressure.
3
Investigate and remove the most likely noxious stimulus causing the reaction.
Assess the urinary catheter or bladder.
A distended bladder or kinked catheter is the most frequent trigger for autonomic dysreflexia. Removing the trigger is essential to stop the sympathetic nervous system response.
4
Escalate the situation and prepare for pharmacological management.
Notify the healthcare provider, followed by administering antihypertensive medications if needed.
If the blood pressure remains elevated after nursing interventions, medical management is required to prevent complications such as a cerebral hemorrhage.

Anahtar Kavram

Autonomic dysreflexia is a medical emergency characterized by extreme hypertension in clients with spinal cord injuries at or above T6. The immediate priority is placing the client in a sitting position to mechanically lower blood pressure, followed by identifying and removing the noxious stimulus.
Soru 1562Soru →

A 68-year-old client with a history of heart failure is admitted for an acute exacerbation and is receiving high-dose intravenous furosemide. During the afternoon assessment, the client appears increasingly lethargic with shallow respirations at a rate of 10 breaths/min. The latest laboratory results reveal a serum potassium level of 2.6 mEq/L. An arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis on room air shows:

pHpH: 7.53
PaCO2PaCO_2: 49 mm Hg
HCO3−HCO_3^-: 35 mEq/L
PaO2PaO_2: 82 mm Hg

Which immediate action should the nurse take to reduce the client's risk for a life-threatening physiological complication?

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Cevap: Initiate continuous electrocardiogram monitoring and verify the prescription for an intravenous potassium chloride infusion.

Cevap

The nurse should immediately place the client on continuous cardiac monitoring and prepare to administer intravenous potassium chloride.
The client is experiencing severe hypokalemia (2.6 mEq/L) and partially compensated metabolic alkalosis, which are classical complications of aggressive loop diuretic therapy. The elevated pHpH (7.53) and HCO3−HCO_3^- (35 mEq/L) indicate primary metabolic alkalosis, while the elevated PaCO2PaCO_2 (49 mm Hg) and hypoventilation (10 breaths/min) represent the body's compensatory mechanism to retain acid. The most immediate, life-threatening risk is a fatal cardiac dysrhythmia due to the critical potassium deficit. Therefore, initiating continuous cardiac monitoring and replacing the potassium are the most urgent nursing priorities.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the arterial blood gas (ABG) values.
The pHpH is elevated (alkalemia), the HCO3−HCO_3^- is elevated (primary metabolic alkalosis), and the PaCO2PaCO_2 is elevated (compensatory respiratory acidosis).
Accurate ABG interpretation is required to determine the client's primary acid-base imbalance and physiological state.
2
Correlate the diagnostic data with the clinical presentation and medication history.
High-dose furosemide causes significant potassium and hydrogen ion loss, resulting in the critical hypokalemia (2.6 mEq/L) and metabolic alkalosis.
Understanding the pharmacological effects of loop diuretics explains the etiology of the abnormal laboratory results.
3
Determine the physiological cause of the respiratory changes.
The shallow, slow respirations are due to severe hypokalemia (causing muscle weakness) and the body's natural compensatory effort to retain carbon dioxide to lower the elevated pHpH.
Recognizing compensatory mechanisms prevents the nurse from inappropriately intervening to stop them.
4
Identify the most immediate life-threatening risk and prioritize the nursing intervention.
Severe hypokalemia places the client at extreme risk for lethal ventricular dysrhythmias, making cardiac monitoring and cautious potassium replacement the absolute highest priorities.
Prioritization requires addressing the most acute, life-threatening physiological risk first.

Anahtar Kavram

Reduction of risk potential in clients receiving loop diuretics involves monitoring for profound hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis, and intervening immediately to prevent fatal cardiac dysrhythmias.
Soru 1563Soru →

A nurse is assessing a client who has been receiving continuous nasogastric (NG) tube suctioning for 48 hours due to a mechanical small bowel obstruction. The client is now reporting severe muscle cramping and tingling in the extremities. The nurse observes that the client's respirations are shallow at a rate of 10 breaths/min. Based on the client's clinical presentation and the physiological effects of gastric fluid loss, which of the following arterial blood gas (ABG) results should the nurse anticipate?

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Cevap: pH 7.51, PaCO2 49 mm Hg, HCO3 34 mEq/L

Cevap

The expected result is pH 7.51, PaCO2 49 mm Hg, HCO3 34 mEq/L, representing metabolic alkalosis with partial respiratory compensation.
The correct answer reflects an elevated pH (alkalosis) and an elevated HCO3 (metabolic origin), which is the direct result of acid loss from NG suctioning. Furthermore, the elevated PaCO2 correctly demonstrates the body's physiological adaptation of hypoventilating (shallow respirations at 10 breaths/min) to retain acid and partially compensate for the alkalosis.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the primary source of fluid loss and its effect on acid-base balance.
Continuous NG suctioning removes significant amounts of stomach acid (hydrochloric acid).
The loss of acid leaves the body with a relative excess of base (bicarbonate), leading to primary metabolic alkalosis (elevated pH and elevated HCO3).
2
Analyze the client's symptoms.
The client has muscle cramping, tingling, and a decreased respiratory rate (10 breaths/min).
Alkalosis causes a decrease in ionized calcium, resulting in neuromuscular irritability (tingling and cramping). The shallow, slow breathing is the body's expected physiological response.
3
Determine the body's compensatory mechanism for the primary imbalance.
The lungs compensate for metabolic alkalosis by hypoventilating.
Hypoventilation retains carbon dioxide (an acid) to help lower the pH back toward normal, resulting in an elevated PaCO2 level (partial respiratory compensation).
4
Select the ABG values that match these findings.
Identify the option with elevated pH (> 7.45), elevated HCO3 (> 26 mEq/L), and elevated PaCO2 (> 45 mm Hg).
Only the correct option demonstrates metabolic alkalosis with an elevated PaCO2, reflecting appropriate respiratory compensation.

Anahtar Kavram

Continuous loss of gastric acid through NG suctioning or vomiting leads to metabolic alkalosis. The body compensates for this imbalance through respiratory hypoventilation to retain CO2.
Soru 1564Soru →

A clinical protocol for unfractionated heparin is being used to manage a client with a recent pulmonary embolism. The client's admission weight is 75 kg75 \text{ kg}. The intravenous (IV) medication bag contains 25,000 units25,000 \text{ units} of heparin mixed in 250 mL250 \text{ mL} of 0.9% sodium chloride.

At 10:00, the client's activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is reported as 4242 seconds. The client's heparin infusion is currently running at 15 units/kg/hr15 \text{ units/kg/hr}.

The facility's heparin nomogram includes the following directives:

aPTT ResultIV Bolus DirectiveContinuous Infusion Directive
3131 to 4545 seconds40 units/kg40 \text{ units/kg}Increase by 2 units/kg/hr2 \text{ units/kg/hr}
4646 to 7070 secondsNoneContinue current rate
7171 to 9090 secondsNoneDecrease by 2 units/kg/hr2 \text{ units/kg/hr}

After administering the required IV bolus, what is the correct new rate for the continuous infusion pump in mL/hr\text{mL/hr}? (Round to the nearest tenth).

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Cevap: 12.8 mL/hr12.8 \text{ mL/hr}

Cevap

The correct new rate for the continuous infusion pump is 12.8 mL/hr12.8 \text{ mL/hr}.
According to the protocol, an aPTT of 4242 seconds requires increasing the infusion by 2 units/kg/hr2 \text{ units/kg/hr}. The new dose is 17 units/kg/hr17 \text{ units/kg/hr}. For a 75 kg75 \text{ kg} client, this equals 1275 units/hr1275 \text{ units/hr}. Given a concentration of 100 units/mL100 \text{ units/mL} (25,000 units/250 mL25,000 \text{ units} / 250 \text{ mL}), the pump rate is 1275÷100=12.75 mL/hr1275 \div 100 = 12.75 \text{ mL/hr}, which rounds to 12.8 mL/hr12.8 \text{ mL/hr}.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the correct protocol directive based on the aPTT result.
The aPTT is 4242 seconds, falling into the 31-45 seconds range. The directive is to increase the continuous infusion by 2 units/kg/hr2 \text{ units/kg/hr}.
Applying the correct protocol action is required before calculating the new dosage.
2
Calculate the new weight-based dosage rate.
Current dose (15 units/kg/hr15 \text{ units/kg/hr}) + Increase (2 units/kg/hr2 \text{ units/kg/hr}) = 17 units/kg/hr17 \text{ units/kg/hr}.
The continuous infusion must be adjusted based on the client's body weight to safely reach the therapeutic range.
3
Calculate the total units per hour required for this client.
17 units/kg/hr×75 kg=1275 units/hr17 \text{ units/kg/hr} \times 75 \text{ kg} = 1275 \text{ units/hr}.
The pump requires a total volume per hour, so the weight-based dose must be converted to an absolute hourly dose.
4
Convert the hourly dose to a volume rate (mL/hr\text{mL/hr}) based on the drug concentration.
Concentration is 25,000 units/250 mL=100 units/mL25,000 \text{ units} / 250 \text{ mL} = 100 \text{ units/mL}. New Rate = 1275 units/hr÷100 units/mL=12.75 mL/hr1275 \text{ units/hr} \div 100 \text{ units/mL} = 12.75 \text{ mL/hr}.
Electronic infusion pumps are programmed in mL/hr\text{mL/hr}.
5
Round the final answer to the nearest tenth.
12.7512.75 rounds to 12.8 mL/hr12.8 \text{ mL/hr}.
Following specific rounding instructions is critical for accurate medication administration.

Anahtar Kavram

Calculating weight-based continuous IV medication titrations according to a standardized protocol
Soru 1565Soru →

A healthcare team is managing an immobile older adult client who has severe osteoarthritis and frequent urinary incontinence. Which nursing interventions should be incorporated into the plan of care to promote comfort and maintain physiological integrity? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

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Cevap: Cleanse the skin promptly after any soiling using a pH-balanced, no-rinse body wash.; Employ a foam wedge to support the client in a 30-degree laterally inclined position.; Apply a zinc oxide-based moisture barrier cream to the perineum following incontinent episodes.

Cevap

The correct interventions are cleansing the skin promptly with a pH-balanced product, using a foam wedge to maintain a 30-degree lateral tilt, and applying a moisture barrier cream to the perineal area.
Proper care for a bedbound and incontinent client focuses on meticulous skin hygiene and safe positioning. Cleansing with pH-balanced, no-rinse products prevents the stripping of natural skin oils, while applying moisture barrier creams shields the epidermis from the caustic effects of urine. Positioning the client in a 30-degree lateral tilt effectively redistributes body weight, avoiding excessive pressure on vulnerable bony prominences like the sacrum and greater trochanter.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's primary risk factors based on the clinical presentation.
The client is completely immobile and experiences frequent incontinence, placing them at severe risk for pressure injuries and incontinence-associated dermatitis.
Identifying the highest risks directs the selection of appropriate preventive nursing interventions.
2
Evaluate the proposed skin care and hygiene interventions.
Using pH-balanced cleansers and barrier creams protects the skin's integrity, while delegating clinical assessment to a UAP is unsafe and violates scope of practice.
Proper topical care prevents skin breakdown, but the RN must perform the actual evaluation of the skin.
3
Evaluate the proposed positioning and systemic care interventions.
A 30-degree lateral tilt safely relieves pressure. Placing a roll under the knees causes venous stasis and is contraindicated. Furthermore, assuming sudden confusion is normal ignores potential acute complications like a urinary tract infection.
Nursing interventions must be evidence-based to prevent harm such as deep vein thrombosis or delayed treatment of infections.

Anahtar Kavram

Basic Care and Comfort: Immobility and Skin Integrity
Soru 1566Soru →

A nurse is caring for a client who is 66 hours post-total thyroidectomy. The client becomes increasingly restless and reports a "tight" sensation around the anterior neck. The nurse observes the client swallowing frequently and hears a harsh, high-pitched inspiratory sound. A recent arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis reveals a pH of 7.317.31, PaCO2PaCO_2 of 52 mm Hg52 \text{ mm Hg}, PaO2PaO_2 of 88 mm Hg88 \text{ mm Hg}, and HCO3−HCO_3^- of 24 mEq/L24 \text{ mEq/L}. Which priority action should the nurse take to reduce the client's risk of an adverse outcome?

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Cevap: Elevate the head of the bed and immediately ensure the availability of an emergency tracheostomy tray.

Cevap

The nurse should elevate the head of the bed to decrease tissue edema and immediately prepare an emergency tracheostomy tray to manage the impending mechanical airway obstruction.
The client is displaying classic signs of a rapidly expanding cervical hematoma (frequent swallowing, feeling of tightness, stridor). The ABG confirms respiratory acidosis due to mechanical airway obstruction. The immediate priority is to reduce venous pressure by elevating the head of the bed and to prepare for an emergency surgical airway.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the clinical presentation (frequent swallowing, neck tightness, stridor).
Identifies signs of an expanding cervical hematoma and acute upper airway obstruction.
Post-thyroidectomy clients are at high risk for hemorrhage, which can rapidly compress the trachea.
2
Interpret the Arterial Blood Gas (ABG) values.
pH is 7.31 (acidosis) and PaCO2 is 52 mm Hg (respiratory cause), indicating uncompensated respiratory acidosis.
Confirms that the client is retaining CO2 due to mechanical hypoventilation, ruling out hyperventilation or alkalosis.
3
Determine the highest priority intervention to reduce physiological risk.
Selects elevating the head of the bed and securing emergency airway equipment.
Airway compromise is the most immediate threat to life; proper positioning and equipment readiness mitigate this critical risk.

Anahtar Kavram

Recognizing and mitigating acute airway obstruction secondary to cervical hematoma post-thyroidectomy.
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 1567Soru →

During interdisciplinary rounds, the nursing team discusses interventions for a client newly fitted with a halo vest apparatus for a stable cervical fracture. Which specific actions should be incorporated into the client's daily regimen? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

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Cevap: Clean the skin underneath the vest using a clean, damp cloth without soap or lotion.; Serve meals with solid foods cut into small, bite-sized pieces and provide a long straw.; Place a small, flat pillow under the client's head to decrease pressure when resting supine.

Cevap

The correct actions include cleaning the skin under the vest with a damp cloth, cutting food into bite-sized pieces with a straw provided, and placing a small pillow under the head when supine.
The correct interventions address the unique hygiene, nutritional, and comfort needs of a client with a cervical immobilization device. Cleaning the skin with a damp cloth prevents chemical irritation from soaps and lotions building up underneath the vest. Serving pre-cut food and providing a straw compensates for the client's inability to flex their neck, reducing the risk of aspiration and promoting adequate intake. Placing a small, flat pillow under the head when supine prevents the posterior vest from pushing the head forward, ensuring comfort and neutral alignment.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's condition and the physiological constraints of a halo fixator device.
The device immobilizes the cervical spine, alters the client's center of gravity, restricts neck flexion, and permanently covers the torso.
Understanding the physical limitations imposed by the device dictates the necessary modifications for basic care, hygiene, and nutrition.
2
Evaluate the proposed hygiene and nutritional interventions.
Using only a damp cloth under the vest prevents skin breakdown from chemical buildup. Pre-cut food and long straws accommodate the client's inability to look down while eating.
Basic care must adapt to the physical limitations and maintain tissue integrity without compromising safety.
3
Review the options involving positioning, delegation, and safety restraints.
A small pillow safely supports the head. However, pulling on struts compromises the device's stability, assessing pin sites is strictly an RN responsibility, and routine restraints violate standard safety protocols.
Nurses must differentiate between standard supportive care and contraindicated actions that jeopardize the client or violate the scope of practice.

Anahtar Kavram

Nursing Management of Halo Fixation Devices
Soru 1568Soru →

A 42-year-old client is admitted to the trauma unit following a motor vehicle collision. The client is diagnosed with a basilar skull fracture and has clear fluid leaking from the right ear. The client is lethargic but arousable, reporting a severe, throbbing headache. The nurse reviews the client's arterial blood gas (ABG) results obtained on room air:

MeasurementResult
pH7.31
PaCO₂52 mm Hg
HCO₃⁻25 mEq/L
PaO₂78 mm Hg

To reduce the risk of life-threatening physiological decompensation, which of the following is the priority nursing action?

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Cevap: Elevate the head of the bed to 30 degrees and ensure the client's neck is in a neutral, midline position.

Cevap

Elevate the head of the bed to 30 degrees and ensure the client's neck is in a neutral, midline position.
The client's ABG results indicate uncompensated respiratory acidosis with significant hypercapnia (PaCO₂ 52 mm Hg). Elevated carbon dioxide is a potent cerebral vasodilator that increases cerebral blood flow and intracranial pressure (ICP). In a client with a head injury, such as a basilar skull fracture with a cerebrospinal fluid leak, this hypercapnia greatly increases the risk of brain herniation. Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees and maintaining the neck in a neutral, midline position promotes jugular venous drainage, which is the priority, evidence-based action to mechanically reduce ICP and prevent physiological decompensation.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the arterial blood gas (ABG) results.
The ABG reveals uncompensated respiratory acidosis (pH 7.31, PaCO₂ 52 mm Hg, normal HCO₃⁻).
Identifying the acid-base imbalance is necessary to anticipate physiological complications.
2
Relate the physiological effects of hypercapnia to the client's primary trauma diagnosis.
Elevated carbon dioxide levels cause potent cerebral vasodilation, which increases cerebral blood flow and raises intracranial pressure (ICP) in a rigid skull.
Understanding the systemic effects of the ABG values dictates which interventions are safe or dangerous.
3
Evaluate the clinical implications of the basilar skull fracture and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak.
The client is at high risk for both significantly increased ICP and central nervous system infection.
Neurotrauma requires specific positioning and handling of drainage to prevent herniation and meningitis.
4
Determine the priority non-pharmacological nursing action.
Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees and keeping the neck in a neutral position promotes optimal jugular venous outflow.
This mechanically reduces ICP without introducing respiratory depression or blocking CSF pathways.

Anahtar Kavram

Management of increased intracranial pressure in the setting of acute hypercapnia and basilar skull fracture.
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 1569Soru →

An adult client with a history of epilepsy is admitted to the medical unit and has a continuous intravenous (IV) infusion of 5%5\% dextrose in water (D5W) infusing at 100 mL/hr100 \text{ mL/hr} through a peripheral catheter. The healthcare provider prescribes a 1,000 mg1,000 \text{ mg} loading dose of IV phenytoin to be administered promptly. The client has no other vascular access. Which action is most appropriate for the nurse to take?

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Cevap: Pause the D5W infusion, flush the catheter with 0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride, administer the phenytoin, and flush the catheter again with 0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride.

Cevap

The nurse must pause the D5W infusion, flush the line with 0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride, administer the phenytoin, and flush the line again with 0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride.
The option describing flushing with 0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride before and after administration is correct because phenytoin is strictly incompatible with dextrose-containing solutions like D5W. Flushing clears the tubing of the incompatible fluid, allowing safe administration without precipitation.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the compatibility of the prescribed medication (phenytoin) with the current continuous infusion (5%5\% dextrose in water).
Phenytoin is recognized as incompatible with dextrose-containing solutions.
Administering incompatible medications can cause precipitation, which blocks the IV catheter or causes a potentially fatal embolus.
2
Determine the correct diluent and flush solution for phenytoin.
0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride (normal saline) is identified as the only compatible solution.
Normal saline maintains the stability of phenytoin in solution and prevents crystallization.
3
Plan the safe administration sequence for a single IV line.
The sequence must be: pause primary fluid, flush with normal saline, administer medication, flush with normal saline, and restart primary fluid.
This sequence ensures the incompatible medication and continuous fluid never mix in the IV tubing.

Anahtar Kavram

Phenytoin is incompatible with dextrose solutions and must be administered using 0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride to prevent precipitation.
Soru 1570Soru →

A critical care nurse evaluates a client who has been receiving high-dose continuous intravenous furosemide for three days to manage acute decompensated heart failure. The client now exhibits profound muscle weakness, depressed deep tendon reflexes, and shallow respirations at a rate of 9 breaths per minute. A continuous electrocardiogram displays flattened T waves and newly developed prominent U waves. Based on this clinical deterioration, which arterial blood gas (ABG) result should the nurse anticipate?

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Cevap: pH 7.53, PaCO2 56 mm Hg, HCO3 38 mEq/L

Cevap

pH 7.53, PaCO2 56 mm Hg, HCO3 38 mEq/L
Continuous high-dose furosemide therapy promotes significant renal excretion of potassium, hydrogen, and chloride ions, resulting in profound hypokalemia and metabolic alkalosis. The clinical findings of severe muscle weakness, flattened T waves, and prominent U waves confirm hypokalemia. To compensate for the primary metabolic alkalosis, the respiratory center decreases the breathing rate to retain carbon dioxide, which acts as an acid to lower the pH toward normal. This compensatory hypoventilation is evidenced by the respiratory rate of 9 breaths per minute. Therefore, the anticipated ABG must demonstrate a primary metabolic alkalosis (elevated pH, elevated HCO3) with compensatory carbon dioxide retention (elevated PaCO2).

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the primary pathophysiological consequence of the current pharmacological therapy.
High-dose loop diuretics (furosemide) cause massive renal excretion of potassium, hydrogen, and chloride ions, leading to severe hypokalemia and metabolic alkalosis.
Understanding the mechanism of action of the medication is required to predict the resulting acid-base imbalance.
2
Correlate physical assessment and diagnostic findings with the suspected imbalance.
Muscle weakness, depressed reflexes, flattened T waves, and prominent U waves clinically confirm severe hypokalemia.
Clinical manifestations validate the predicted physiological changes, ensuring accurate clinical judgment.
3
Analyze the body's compensatory response to the primary acid-base disorder.
The body compensates for primary metabolic alkalosis by decreasing the respiratory rate (hypoventilation, 9 breaths/min) to retain carbon dioxide, which acts as an acid.
Recognizing compensatory mechanisms is crucial for distinguishing between primary and secondary ABG abnormalities.
4
Select the ABG that reflects the combined primary disorder and compensatory response.
The anticipated ABG must show an elevated pH and elevated HCO3 (metabolic alkalosis) with an elevated PaCO2 (compensatory respiratory acidosis).
This specific combination perfectly aligns with the client's current clinical deterioration.

Anahtar Kavram

Compensatory Mechanisms in Acid-Base Imbalances
Soru 1571Soru →

An individual with an acute exacerbation of rheumatoid arthritis is admitted to the medical-surgical unit. During morning rounds, the client reports significant joint stiffness and bilateral hand pain that makes moving difficult. Which nursing action is most appropriate to promote comfort and facilitate the client's activities of daily living?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Coordinate with the client to schedule a warm shower immediately upon awakening before assisting with other tasks.

Cevap

Coordinate with the client to schedule a warm shower immediately upon awakening before assisting with other tasks.
Coordinating a warm shower immediately upon awakening is the most effective intervention because moist heat decreases muscle tension, alleviates joint stiffness, and provides non-pharmacologic pain relief. This directly facilitates the client's ability to participate in activities of daily living.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the client's underlying pathology and primary symptom.
The client is experiencing an acute exacerbation of rheumatoid arthritis, characterized by severe morning joint stiffness and pain.
Understanding the specific disease process is essential for selecting safe and effective non-pharmacologic comfort measures.
2
Determine the most appropriate evidence-based intervention for morning stiffness.
The application of moist heat, such as a warm shower or bath, is identified as the optimal intervention.
Heat therapy increases blood flow, relaxes muscle spasms, and significantly reduces joint stiffness associated with rheumatoid arthritis.
3
Evaluate the safety and appropriateness of the remaining options.
The other options pose safety risks, such as contractures from improper positioning, inappropriate delegation, or inaccurate disease education.
Providing basic care and comfort requires prioritizing interventions that avoid exacerbating the client's condition or causing further injury.

Anahtar Kavram

Basic Care and Comfort: Non-pharmacologic Pain Management and Positioning
Soru 1572Soru →

A client presents to the emergency department experiencing an acute panic attack with a respiratory rate of 38 breaths per minute. The client reports lightheadedness and tingling in the extremities. Arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis reveals a pH of 7.52, a PaCO2 of 26 mm Hg, and an HCO3- of 24 mEq/L. Based on these findings, which acid-base imbalance is occurring?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Uncompensated respiratory alkalosis

Cevap

The client is experiencing uncompensated respiratory alkalosis.
The client is hyperventilating due to a panic attack, leading to excessive exhalation of carbon dioxide. The arterial blood gas results confirm this: the elevated pH (7.52) defines alkalosis, and the decreased PaCO2 (26 mm Hg) identifies the respiratory system as the cause. Because the bicarbonate (HCO3-) remains within the normal range of 22-26 mEq/L, the kidneys have not yet begun to compensate for the imbalance, making it uncompensated.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the pH to determine the primary acid-base state.
The pH is 7.52.
Normal pH is 7.35 to 7.45. A pH of 7.52 is elevated, indicating an alkalotic state.
2
Evaluate the PaCO2 to determine if there is a respiratory component.
The PaCO2 is 26 mm Hg.
Normal PaCO2 is 35 to 45 mm Hg. A value of 26 mm Hg is low (hypocapnia). Because CO2 acts as an acid, a low PaCO2 causes alkalosis, which matches the pH.
3
Evaluate the HCO3- to determine metabolic involvement or compensation.
The HCO3- is 24 mEq/L.
Normal HCO3- is 22 to 26 mEq/L. A value of 24 mEq/L is normal, indicating no primary metabolic issue and no renal compensation occurring yet.
4
Combine the findings to classify the imbalance.
Uncompensated respiratory alkalosis.
The matching pH and PaCO2 define the primary respiratory alkalosis, and the normal HCO3- confirms it is uncompensated.

Anahtar Kavram

Arterial Blood Gas (ABG) Interpretation
Soru 1573Soru →

A client who sustained a C4 spinal cord injury in a motor vehicle collision earlier today is admitted to the trauma intensive care unit. The nurse suspects the development of a distributive shock state related to the loss of sympathetic vascular tone. Which assessment findings validate this clinical deterioration? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

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Cevap: Apical pulse of 42 beats/min; Blood pressure of 82/40 mm Hg; Core body temperature of 35.2°C (95.4°F)

Cevap

The clinical findings that validate the development of neurogenic shock are an apical pulse of 42 beats/min, a blood pressure of 82/40 mm Hg, and a core body temperature of 35.2°C (95.4°F).
Neurogenic shock occurs as a result of a disruption in the descending sympathetic pathways in the spinal cord, most commonly from injuries above the T6 level. The loss of sympathetic tone causes massive peripheral vasodilation (resulting in severe hypotension), leaves the parasympathetic nervous system unchecked (resulting in profound bradycardia), and impairs the body's ability to regulate core temperature (resulting in heat loss and hypothermia). Identifying this specific triad of symptoms is critical for adapting fluid and vasopressor therapies appropriately.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's injury and the suspected condition.
The client has a high cervical (C4) spinal cord injury and is suspected of having neurogenic shock.
Injuries above T6 carry a high risk of disrupting the sympathetic nervous system pathways, precipitating neurogenic shock.
2
Recall the pathophysiology of neurogenic shock.
It involves a loss of sympathetic vasomotor tone, leading to massive vasodilation, unopposed parasympathetic influence, and impaired thermoregulation.
Understanding the underlying mechanism distinguishes this distributive shock from hypovolemic or cardiogenic shock.
3
Evaluate each assessment finding against the pathophysiology.
Hypotension and bradycardia directly result from vasodilation and unopposed vagal tone. Hypothermia occurs due to vasodilation and heat loss.
Matching symptoms to the pathophysiological mechanism confirms the correct clinical indicators while ruling out compensatory responses seen in other shock states.

Anahtar Kavram

Neurogenic shock is a hemodynamic syndrome characterized by hypotension, bradycardia, and hypothermia, resulting from the loss of sympathetic nervous system tone following a high spinal cord injury.
Soru 1574Soru →

A night shift nurse evaluates an older adult client who is unable to sleep due to severe, burning discomfort in both feet. The client has a documented medical history of advanced peripheral arterial disease (PAD). Which nursing intervention provides the safest and most effective comfort measure for this condition?

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Cevap: Assist the client to sit on the edge of the mattress and allow their legs to hang downward.

Cevap

Assist the client to sit on the edge of the mattress and allow their legs to hang downward.
In advanced peripheral arterial disease (PAD), severe narrowing of the arteries restricts oxygenated blood from reaching the distal extremities, leading to ischemic rest pain that often worsens at night when the client is supine. Placing the client in a dependent position (such as dangling the legs over the edge of the bed) leverages gravity to assist arterial perfusion, thereby increasing oxygen delivery to the tissues and effectively relieving the discomfort.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's symptoms and medical history.
The client is experiencing severe, burning foot pain at night, combined with a history of advanced PAD.
Identifying the etiology of the pain (ischemic rest pain) is required before implementing a comfort measure.
2
Determine the pathophysiological principle of PAD.
Arterial narrowing restricts oxygenated blood flow to the distal extremities.
Understanding the compromised blood flow guides the nurse to select interventions that enhance arterial perfusion.
3
Evaluate the positioning options based on gravitational effects on blood flow.
Dependent positioning (dangling) utilizes gravity to pull blood down to the feet, improving perfusion and relieving ischemic pain.
This directly counters the arterial insufficiency, providing immediate non-pharmacologic comfort.

Anahtar Kavram

Dependent positioning for Peripheral Arterial Disease (PAD)
Soru 1575Soru →

A nurse is performing a tubing change on a client's central venous catheter. The tubing accidentally disconnects, and the client suddenly develops severe dyspnea, tachycardia, and a feeling of impending doom. Suspecting an air embolism, arrange the following nursing interventions in the order they should be performed to minimize client risk. All options must be used.

Öğeleri doğru sıraya koymak için sürükleyin

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Cevap

The correct sequence is to first clamp the catheter, then position the client in the left lateral Trendelenburg position, administer oxygen, notify emergency personnel, and finally assess vital signs.
When an air embolism is suspected during central line care, prioritizing actions correctly is critical to reduce risk potential. The absolute first priority is to clamp the catheter to stop the source of the air. Next, the nurse must place the client in a left lateral Trendelenburg position (Durant's maneuver) to trap the air in the right ventricle apex. After positioning, 100% oxygen is applied to treat hypoxia and shrink the air bubble by washing out nitrogen. Once these immediate, life-saving actions are complete, the nurse activates the rapid response team. Finally, continuous monitoring and obtaining vital signs are performed while waiting for the team to arrive.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Stop the source of the embolism.
The central venous catheter is clamped.
Prevents further air entrainment into the venous system, halting the progression of the complication.
2
Reposition the client to trap the air.
The client is placed in the left lateral Trendelenburg position.
This maneuver uses gravity to keep the air embolism in the right side of the heart, reducing the risk of a fatal pulmonary occlusion.
3
Address the resulting hypoxia.
100% oxygen is administered via a non-rebreather mask.
Treats systemic hypoxemia and accelerates the washout of nitrogen, effectively shrinking the air embolus.
4
Summon advanced medical help.
The rapid response team is activated.
The client requires immediate medical evaluation and potentially advanced hemodynamic support or interventions.
5
Monitor the client's physiological status.
A complete set of vital signs is obtained.
Provides essential baseline data on hemodynamic stability to guide further medical treatment once the rapid response team arrives.

Anahtar Kavram

Emergency management of a central venous air embolism requires immediate mechanical intervention (clamping and positioning) prior to oxygenation, notification, or assessment.
Soru 1576Soru →

A critical care registered nurse evaluates a client 44 hours post-endovascular aneurysm repair (EVAR) of an abdominal aortic aneurysm via bilateral femoral artery access. The client has a documented history of severe emphysema. Which clinical findings or observations demand immediate intervention to mitigate physiological deterioration? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

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Cevap: Progressive, severe lumbar back pain that remains unrelieved by prescribed intravenous analgesia.; A consecutive two-hour urine output totaling 30 mL30\text{ mL}.; Sudden onset of unilateral mottling with absent Doppler pedal pulses in the left lower extremity.

Cevap

The findings requiring immediate intervention are the progressive lumbar back pain, the two-hour urine output of 30 mL, and the unilateral mottling with absent pedal pulses.
The correct findings directly indicate impending life-threatening physiological decompensation. Progressive lumbar back pain is the hallmark sign of an endoleak or retroperitoneal hemorrhage. An oliguric urine output of 30 mL30\text{ mL} over two hours (15 mL/hr15\text{ mL/hr}) suggests acute kidney injury secondary to contrast nephropathy or graft migration occluding the renal arteries. Finally, absent pedal pulses with unilateral mottling signify acute limb ischemia caused by arterial thrombosis or a distal embolus from the procedure.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the procedure-specific risks associated with an endovascular aneurysm repair (EVAR).
Identify potential life-threatening complications such as endoleak, retroperitoneal hemorrhage, graft migration affecting renal arteries, and distal arterial embolization.
Recognizing specific postoperative risks allows the nurse to prioritize subtle cues of physiological decompensation.
2
Evaluate the client's comorbid conditions and their impact on baseline diagnostic data.
Determine that the elevated carbon dioxide and bicarbonate with a normal pH is a chronic, compensated state for a client with emphysema.
Differentiating between acute respiratory failure and chronic compensation prevents inappropriate and potentially harmful interventions.
3
Review general postoperative and physical assessment standards of care.
Confirm that supine positioning with minimal bed elevation is required for femoral access recovery, and auscultating before palpating is the standard abdominal assessment sequence.
Preventing iatrogenic complications requires strict adherence to evidence-based practice and positioning protocols.

Anahtar Kavram

Early Recognition of Postoperative EVAR Complications and Distinguishing Baseline Pathologies
Soru 1577Soru →

A nurse is evaluating a client 12 hours after admission for full-thickness burns over 40% of the total body surface area. Which assessment findings indicate that the client is experiencing inadequate physiological adaptation and early hypovolemic (burn) shock? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Urine output averaging 15 mL/hr over the past two hours; Unexplained restlessness and progressive agitation; Narrowing of the arterial pulse pressure

Cevap

The findings indicating early shock are a urine output of 15 mL/hr, unexplained restlessness and agitation, and a narrowing of the arterial pulse pressure.
In the emergent phase of a major burn, massive capillary leak leads to intravascular volume depletion. The correct findings represent early inadequate adaptation: urine output <30 mL/hr indicates poor renal perfusion; restlessness is an early sign of cerebral hypoxia; and a narrowing pulse pressure is a classic sympathetic compensatory response to decreased stroke volume.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the clinical scenario
The client has massive burns (40% TBSA) in the emergent phase, placing them at extremely high risk for profound fluid shifts and hypovolemic (burn) shock.
Understanding the pathophysiology of the emergent burn phase directs the assessment toward recognizing signs of hypoperfusion.
2
Evaluate each option against the signs of compensatory shock
Identify findings that demonstrate decreased organ perfusion (oliguria, altered mentation) and sympathetic nervous system compensation (narrowing pulse pressure).
Early shock is characterized by compensatory mechanisms attempting to maintain core circulation at the expense of peripheral and renal perfusion.
3
Differentiate actual signs of shock from expected physiological responses to major trauma
Rule out respiratory alkalosis (expected from pain), bounding pulses (opposite of hypovolemia), and low-grade fever (expected inflammatory response).
Nurses must prioritize life-threatening decompensation over expected stress responses.

Anahtar Kavram

Early recognition of hypovolemic (burn) shock involves identifying subtle signs of hypoperfusion (oliguria, altered mental status) and compensatory mechanisms (narrowing pulse pressure), rather than solely relying on absolute hypotension.
Soru 1578Soru →

A client with severe gastroenteritis and dehydration is being monitored in the emergency department. Assessment reveals a heart rate of 122 beats per minute, a blood pressure of 96/78 mm Hg, and a respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute. An arterial blood gas (ABG) sample shows a pH of 7.31, PaCO2 of 30 mm Hg, and HCO3 of 16 mEq/L. Which of the following nursing actions is the priority?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Increase the rate of the prescribed intravenous isotonic fluid infusion.

Cevap

The priority action is to increase the rate of the prescribed intravenous isotonic fluid infusion to restore intravascular volume.
The client is exhibiting clear signs of hypovolemic shock, including tachycardia, a significantly narrowed pulse pressure, and hypotension. The arterial blood gas indicates a metabolic acidosis, likely due to lactic acid accumulation from inadequate tissue perfusion. The respiratory rate of 28 is a necessary compensatory mechanism (respiratory alkalosis) to balance the acidic pH. The priority intervention is to restore intravascular volume and tissue perfusion by administering isotonic intravenous fluids.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's vital signs and hemodynamic status.
The heart rate of 122 bpm and a narrow pulse pressure (96/78 mm Hg = 18 mm Hg difference) strongly indicate early hypovolemic shock and compensatory vasoconstriction.
Identifying the primary physiological instability is the first step in clinical prioritization.
2
Interpret the arterial blood gas (ABG) results in the context of the clinical presentation.
The ABG reveals partially compensated metabolic acidosis (low pH, low HCO3, and compensatory low PaCO2). The increased respiratory rate (28 breaths/min) is the body's attempt to compensate by blowing off acid (CO2).
Understanding the acid-base balance helps determine if the respiratory symptoms are primary or secondary to a metabolic issue.
3
Determine the priority nursing intervention based on the root cause.
The metabolic acidosis is a result of lactic acid accumulation from poor tissue perfusion (hypovolemic shock). The priority is to restore circulating volume with intravenous fluids.
Treating the underlying cause of shock takes precedence over treating secondary symptoms or compensatory mechanisms.

Anahtar Kavram

Hypovolemic Shock and Compensatory Mechanisms
Tahmini Süre:1m 15s
Soru 1579Soru →

A surgical client is transferred to the progressive care unit following a major open abdominal surgery performed earlier in the day. Upon arrival, the client's baseline blood pressure was 132/76 mm Hg with a resting heart rate of 72 bpm. During the mid-shift evaluation, the nurse observes several new findings. Which of the following requires the most urgent clinical intervention?

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Cevap: The client's blood pressure is now 110/86 mm Hg with a continuous heart rate of 112 bpm.

Cevap

The vital signs showing a blood pressure of 110/86 mm Hg and a heart rate of 112 bpm indicate impending shock and require the most urgent intervention.
The correct answer identifies a client exhibiting a significantly narrowed pulse pressure (from a baseline of 56 mm Hg down to 24 mm Hg) accompanied by new-onset tachycardia. Following a major open abdominal surgery, these vital sign changes are classic early compensatory mechanisms for hypovolemic or hemorrhagic shock due to internal bleeding. The body attempts to maintain cardiac output through an increased heart rate, while peripheral vasoconstriction raises the diastolic blood pressure, causing the pulse pressure to narrow. This circulatory emergency requires immediate provider notification and rapid intervention, such as fluid resuscitation, to prevent hemodynamic collapse.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's vital sign trends by comparing current measurements to the admission baseline.
The heart rate has increased from 72 bpm to 112 bpm, and the pulse pressure has narrowed significantly from 56 mm Hg (132 - 76) to 24 mm Hg (110 - 86).
Identifying subtle, progressive changes in vital signs is essential for the early detection of physiological decompensation.
2
Interpret the clinical significance of the vital sign changes in the context of recent major abdominal surgery.
A narrowing pulse pressure combined with tachycardia is a classic presentation of early compensatory hemorrhagic or hypovolemic shock.
As blood volume drops due to internal bleeding, the body attempts to maintain perfusion by increasing the heart rate and causing peripheral vasoconstriction, which elevates the diastolic pressure and narrows the pulse pressure.
3
Prioritize the assessment findings using the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) framework to determine the most urgent need.
The signs of impending circulatory collapse (Circulation) mandate immediate intervention over positioning errors, severe pain, or infection control breaches.
Unrecognized and untreated hemorrhagic shock will rapidly progress to tissue ischemia, organ failure, and death.

Anahtar Kavram

Early Recognition of Postoperative Hemorrhagic Shock
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 1580Soru →

Upon reviewing morning laboratory results, the registered nurse notes a client's potassium level is 2.62.6 mEq/L. The healthcare provider has ordered 4040 mEq of intravenous potassium chloride. Which method represents the correct administration technique for this high-alert medication?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Ensuring the medication is diluted in a compatible solution and delivered via an electronic pump at a maximum rate of 1010 mEq per hour.

Cevap

Ensuring the medication is diluted in a compatible solution and delivered via an electronic pump at a maximum rate of 1010 mEq per hour.
Intravenous potassium chloride is a high-alert medication that must always be diluted and administered via an electronic infusion pump to prevent fatal cardiac dysrhythmias. For a peripheral intravenous line, the maximum safe infusion rate is 1010 mEq per hour. This standard ensures the medication is delivered slowly enough to prevent severe irritation to the vein and avoids sudden spikes in serum potassium that could precipitate cardiac arrest.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the ordered medication and its specific administration risks.
Potassium chloride is identified as a high-alert medication capable of causing fatal cardiac dysrhythmias if administered incorrectly.
Recognizing the danger of the drug guides the selection of strict administration protocols.
2
Evaluate the proposed rates and routes in the available choices.
Intravenous push and rates exceeding 1010 mEq per hour for a peripheral line are recognized as lethal or unsafe practices.
Standard safety guidelines dictate a maximum peripheral infusion rate of 1010 mEq per hour to protect the heart and veins.
3
Assess the preparation method for the medication.
Adding medication to an already infusing bag is rejected as an unsafe admixture practice.
Uneven distribution of potassium in a hanging bag can result in an unexpected bolus delivery.

Anahtar Kavram

Safe Administration of Intravenous Potassium
ÖncekiSayfa 79 / 98Sonraki
Physiological Integrity Alıştırma Soruları — NCLEX-RN — Sayfa 79 | Examkin