Physiological Integrity

1960 soru

Soru 1701Soru →

A nurse is planning care for an older adult client who is 1 day postoperative following a right total hip arthroplasty (posterior approach). The client has a history of mild cognitive impairment and is currently experiencing intermittent confusion. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the client's care plan to promote basic care and comfort? Select all that apply.

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Cevap: Place an abduction wedge between the client's legs while resting in bed.; Ensure the client's heels are elevated completely off the mattress.; Assist the client with using a fracture bedpan for elimination if they are unable to safely transfer to a commode.

Cevap

The correct interventions are placing an abduction wedge between the legs, elevating the heels off the mattress, and using a fracture bedpan for elimination.
After a posterior total hip arthroplasty, basic care and comfort must align strictly with postoperative safety precautions. Maintaining leg abduction with a wedge prevents dislocation of the new hip prosthesis. Elevating the heels prevents pressure injuries, which is a key component of basic care for clients with limited mobility. Using a fracture bedpan reduces the need for the client to lift their hips excessively or bend past safe angles when they cannot safely transfer out of bed.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the client's surgical procedure and the associated postoperative risks.
The client had a right total hip arthroplasty via a posterior approach. This carries a high risk for hip dislocation if the joint is flexed beyond 90 degrees, adducted across the midline, or internally rotated.
Understanding surgical precautions is essential before planning basic care, positioning, and mobility interventions.
2
Evaluate each basic care intervention for safety and appropriateness in this specific clinical context.
Using abduction wedges, elevating heels, and utilizing a fracture bedpan all support comfort and prevent complications (pressure injuries, joint stress) without violating hip precautions.
Basic care interventions must align directly with the client's specific mobility restrictions and skin integrity needs.
3
Identify and eliminate contraindicated or unsafe interventions.
A high Fowler's position violates hip flexion precautions. Assessing incisions is outside a UAP's scope of practice. Wrist restraints skip necessary, less-restrictive safety alternatives.
Recognizing professional scope of practice, post-procedure contraindications, and restraint protocols prevents client harm.

Anahtar Kavram

Postoperative Basic Care, Comfort, and Positioning for Total Hip Arthroplasty
Tahmini Süre:2m 0s
Soru 1702Soru →

A nurse is assessing a postoperative client who is at risk for internal hemorrhage. Which of the following clinical findings should the nurse identify as the earliest indicator of developing hypovolemic shock?

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Cevap: Unexplained restlessness and an increasing heart rate

Cevap

The earliest indicator of developing hypovolemic shock is unexplained restlessness and an increasing heart rate.
The correct answer identifies that sympathetic nervous system activation in early shock causes an increased heart rate (tachycardia) and changes in mental status, such as restlessness or mild anxiety. These are the body's initial compensatory mechanisms responding to decreased circulating volume before the blood pressure ultimately drops.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's risk factors and potential complications based on the clinical scenario.
The postoperative client is at risk for internal hemorrhage, which can rapidly lead to hypovolemic shock.
Identifying the primary risk guides the nurse's assessment priorities and helps anticipate expected physiological changes.
2
Recall the physiological sequence of the body's compensatory mechanisms during hypovolemic shock.
The body first compensates by activating the sympathetic nervous system, increasing heart rate and causing subtle mental status changes, before blood pressure drops.
Understanding the timeline of physiological compensation is required to differentiate early indicators from late, decompensatory signs.
3
Evaluate each option against the known early signs of shock.
Restlessness and tachycardia occur early; hypotension and oliguria occur later as compensation fails; and respirations typically increase, not decrease.
This allows the selection of the correct option that specifically matches the 'earliest indicator' requirement in the stem.

Anahtar Kavram

Early compensatory mechanisms in hypovolemic shock include tachycardia and altered mental status (such as restlessness or anxiety), whereas hypotension is a late sign indicating compensatory failure.
Soru 1703Soru →

A nurse is caring for a client admitted with pneumonia who has a continuous, compatible 0.9% sodium chloride infusion running at 75 mL/hr. The nurse is preparing to administer a prescribed intravenous (IV) push dose of dexamethasone. In which order should the nurse perform the following actions? Arrange the steps from first to last.

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Cevap

The correct sequence is: clean the port closest to the client, attach the medication syringe, pinch the primary tubing above the port, inject the medication slowly, and finally release the tubing to allow the primary fluid to flush the line.
Administering an IV push medication through a compatible continuous infusion requires a specific sequence to ensure safety and efficacy. Infection control comes first by cleaning the port. The syringe is then attached. The nurse must pinch the tubing above the port to ensure the medication flows toward the client, not back up the tubing. The medication is then injected at a safe rate. Finally, releasing the tubing allows the continuous fluid to flush the line, ensuring the complete dose reaches the client.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Clean the Y-site injection port closest to the client with an antiseptic wipe.
The entry point is disinfected.
Prevents the introduction of microorganisms into the client's bloodstream during administration.
2
Attach the syringe containing the prepared medication to the injection port.
The syringe is connected to the IV system.
Establishes a secure, closed route for the medication to enter the IV line.
3
Pinch the primary intravenous tubing just above the injection port.
Fluid flow from the primary bag is temporarily halted.
Directs the medication downward toward the client rather than allowing it to travel back up the primary line.
4
Inject the medication slowly over the recommended amount of time.
The medication enters the client's vein.
Delivers the therapeutic dose at a safe rate, preventing speed shock or severe cardiovascular reactions.
5
Release the primary tubing to allow the continuous infusion to flush the line.
The continuous fluid resumes flowing into the client.
Ensures the remainder of the medication trapped in the lower tubing is fully flushed into the client's systemic circulation.

Anahtar Kavram

Safe Administration of Intravenous Push Medications via Continuous Infusion
Soru 1704Soru →

A nurse is caring for a client who is 24 hours post-operative following a right total hip arthroplasty. The client suddenly reports sharp, right-sided chest pain and acute shortness of breath. The client appears highly agitated and diaphoretic. Vital signs are: heart rate 128 bpm, blood pressure 92/64 mm Hg, respiratory rate 30 breaths/min, and oxygen saturation 84% on room air. An arterial blood gas (ABG) is obtained with the following results: pH 7.52, PaCO2 28 mm Hg, PaO2 54 mm Hg, and HCO3 24 mEq/L. Which of the following is the priority nursing action?

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Cevap: Apply high-flow oxygen via a non-rebreather mask

Cevap

The priority action is to apply high-flow oxygen via a non-rebreather mask.
The client is exhibiting classic signs of a pulmonary embolism, a critical complication of orthopedic surgery. The ABG reveals severe hypoxemia (PaO2 54 mm Hg), which is driving a compensatory hyperventilation resulting in respiratory alkalosis. According to the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) of emergency care, addressing the profound hypoxemia with high-flow oxygen is the absolute highest priority to prevent tissue ischemia and cardiac arrest.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the clinical presentation and vital signs.
Sudden chest pain, dyspnea, tachycardia, hypotension, and severe hypoxemia (SpO2 84%, PaO2 54 mm Hg) in a post-operative orthopedic client strongly suggest a massive pulmonary embolism.
Identifying the underlying medical emergency dictates the necessary life-saving interventions.
2
Interpret the arterial blood gas (ABG) results.
The ABG shows pH 7.52 (alkalemia) and PaCO2 28 mm Hg (respiratory alkalosis), with severe hypoxemia (PaO2 54 mm Hg).
Understanding that the respiratory alkalosis is a compensatory mechanism for the profound lack of oxygen prevents implementing contraindicated therapies like rebreathing CO2.
3
Evaluate the proposed interventions against safety constraints.
Hip flexion of 90 degrees or greater is contraindicated post-hip arthroplasty, eliminating high Fowler's positioning as a safe option.
Nurses must integrate surgical safety precautions even during acute medical resuscitations.
4
Prioritize the remaining safe actions using the ABC (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) framework.
Immediate correction of severe hypoxemia (Breathing) takes absolute precedence over fluid resuscitation (Circulation).
Failure to immediately correct a PaO2 of 54 mm Hg will lead to rapid tissue ischemia, cardiac dysrhythmias, and cardiac arrest.

Anahtar Kavram

Prioritization in Pulmonary Embolism and Orthopedic Precautions
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 1705Soru →

An older adult client with advanced dementia and frequent urinary incontinence is confined to bed. The nurse notes new, non-blanchable erythema on the client's sacrum. The client has also been frequently scratching at the perineal area. Which nursing intervention is the most appropriate to promote comfort and protect the client's skin integrity?

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Cevap: Cleanse the perineal region with a pH-balanced, no-rinse cleanser and apply a moisture barrier ointment.

Cevap

The most appropriate intervention is to cleanse the perineal region with a pH-balanced, no-rinse cleanser and apply a moisture barrier ointment.
Cleansing with a pH-balanced, no-rinse cleanser and applying a moisture barrier ointment protects the epidermis from moisture-associated skin damage (MASD), reduces the irritating effects of urine, and soothes the skin. This non-invasive hygiene measure directly addresses the cause of the client's discomfort without introducing new risks, aligning with standard basic care and comfort protocols.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's current clinical presentation and identify primary risk factors.
The client has urinary incontinence causing perineal irritation (manifested by scratching) and sacral erythema, which indicates an early-stage pressure injury.
Identifying the root cause of the discomfort and skin breakdown is necessary to select a targeted, non-harmful intervention.
2
Evaluate the proposed interventions against safety standards, scope of practice, and evidence-based skin care guidelines.
Cleansing and applying barrier cream safely treats the moisture issue; elevating the head of the bed causes harmful shear; delegating assessment violates the RN scope of practice; and restraints are excessively restrictive.
Prioritizing non-invasive, evidence-based hygiene measures protects the client while adhering to legal and safety standards.

Anahtar Kavram

Prevention of Moisture-Associated Skin Damage and Pressure Injuries
Soru 1706Soru →

An emergency department nurse is caring for an older adult client who was brought from an assisted living facility with a suspected urinary tract infection. The client, who is typically alert and oriented, is currently restless and agitated. Vital signs reveal a temperature of 38.2°C (100.8°F), a heart rate of 118 beats/min, a respiratory rate of 24 breaths/min, and a blood pressure of 106/82 mm Hg. The client's blood pressure upon arrival one hour ago was 128/74 mm Hg. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

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Cevap: Administer a prescribed isotonic intravenous fluid bolus.

Cevap

The priority action is to administer a prescribed isotonic intravenous fluid bolus.
This client is exhibiting classic signs of early (compensatory) septic shock. The key clinical indicator is the rapidly narrowing pulse pressure (from 54 mm Hg upon arrival to 24 mm Hg currently). Combined with tachycardia, tachypnea, and new-onset agitation (a symptom of cerebral hypoxia), these findings demonstrate that the body is attempting to compensate for decreased systemic perfusion. The absolute priority is to restore intravascular volume and improve tissue perfusion by administering an isotonic intravenous fluid bolus.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the trend in the client's vital signs and clinical presentation.
The client has developed a rapidly narrowing pulse pressure (from 54 to 24 mm Hg), tachycardia, tachypnea, and new-onset agitation.
Identifying acute changes from baseline helps the nurse recognize rapid physiological deterioration.
2
Correlate the clinical findings with the underlying pathology.
The combination of a suspected infection (UTI), fever, narrowing pulse pressure, tachycardia, and altered mental status points to early (compensatory) septic shock.
Agitation indicates decreased cerebral perfusion, while the vital sign changes reflect the body's sympathetic nervous system attempting to maintain cardiac output.
3
Determine the highest priority nursing intervention.
The most critical need is to restore circulating intravascular volume and tissue perfusion by administering isotonic intravenous fluids.
According to the ABCs and prioritization principles, circulatory collapse must be addressed immediately to prevent progression to uncompensated shock and multi-organ failure.

Anahtar Kavram

Recognition and initial management of early compensatory shock, characterized by a narrowing pulse pressure, tachycardia, and altered mental status.
Soru 1707Soru →

A nurse is monitoring a client who was admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) and is currently receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of regular insulin and 0.9% sodium chloride. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse identify as a complication of the current treatments? (Select all that apply.)

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Cevap: Serum potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L; New onset of a severe headache and lethargy; Fine crackles auscultated in the bilateral lung bases

Cevap

The assessment findings indicating a complication of DKA treatment are a serum potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L, new onset of a severe headache and lethargy, and fine crackles in the bilateral lung bases.
The correct findings represent known iatrogenic complications of DKA therapy. Insulin therapy causes potassium to shift intracellularly, resulting in hypokalemia. Rapid lowering of serum osmolality can cause water to shift into brain cells, causing cerebral edema, which presents as a headache and lethargy. Finally, the aggressive fluid resuscitation necessary for DKA can overwhelm the circulatory system, leading to pulmonary edema, which is auscultated as crackles.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's current therapies
The client is receiving continuous IV insulin and 0.9% sodium chloride for DKA.
Understanding the specific treatments helps anticipate potential adverse physiological effects.
2
Evaluate the physiological effects of IV insulin therapy
Insulin lowers blood glucose but also drives potassium into cells, risking hypokalemia. Furthermore, too rapid glucose reduction can cause cerebral edema.
Insulin directly impacts both glycemic control and intracellular electrolyte balance.
3
Evaluate the physiological effects of aggressive IV fluid resuscitation
Large volumes of isotonic fluids can cause fluid overload, manifesting as pulmonary edema (crackles in lung bases).
DKA requires rapid volume expansion, which inherently carries a risk of fluid volume excess.
4
Differentiate treatment complications from underlying disease symptoms
Acidosis (pH 7.25) and normal urine output (60 mL/hr) are baseline disease manifestations or signs of therapeutic improvement, respectively, not complications.
A nurse must distinguish between the pathology of the disease process and the adverse effects of its management.

Anahtar Kavram

Complications of Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA) Treatment
Soru 1708Soru →

A nurse is preparing to discontinue a client's non-tunneled central venous catheter (CVC) located in the right subclavian vein. Place the following nursing actions in the correct chronological order to ensure safe removal and prevent complications.

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Cevap

The correct sequence is: Position the client supine, instruct them to perform the Valsalva maneuver, withdraw the catheter smoothly, apply immediate firm pressure, and finally secure an occlusive dressing.
Following this specific chronological sequence ensures that the intrathoracic pressure remains higher than atmospheric pressure during the exact moment the vein is exposed. This effectively prevents air from entering the central circulation. Subsequent immediate pressure and the application of an occlusive dressing maintain hemostasis and provide an airtight seal.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Position the client flat in a supine position.
Central venous pressure is increased.
Lowering the head of the bed prevents negative pressure in the central veins, which is the primary mechanism that can draw air into the circulation.
2
Instruct the client to take a deep breath, hold it, and bear down.
Intrathoracic pressure is temporarily maximized.
The Valsalva maneuver ensures that pressure inside the chest is higher than atmospheric pressure, providing a protective barrier against air embolism during catheter removal.
3
Withdraw the catheter in a smooth, continuous motion.
The catheter is removed safely.
Smooth removal prevents catheter breakage and must occur while the patient is actively maintaining the Valsalva maneuver.
4
Apply immediate, firm pressure to the site with a sterile gauze pad.
Hemostasis is achieved and the tract is manually sealed.
Immediate pressure stops venous bleeding and acts as a physical barrier to air until the tract can be dressed.
5
Secure an air-tight, occlusive dressing over the insertion site.
The insertion site is protected from air and infection.
An occlusive dressing prevents delayed air entry through the residual catheter tract while the tissue heals over the next 24 to 72 hours.

Anahtar Kavram

Safe removal of a central venous catheter requires meticulous interventions to increase central venous pressure and prevent a potentially fatal air embolism.
Soru 1709Soru →

A nurse is evaluating a client 24 hours after an endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) who has developed severe post-procedure acute pancreatitis. The nurse is monitoring the client for subtle indicators of physiological decompensation. Which of the following assessment findings require immediate intervention to reduce the risk of life-threatening complications? Select all that apply.

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Cevap: Carpal spasms occurring when the blood pressure cuff remains inflated above the systolic pressure.; Blood pressure trending from 124/76 mm Hg to 104/86 mm Hg with a heart rate of 118 beats/min.; New-onset fine crackles auscultated in the bilateral lung bases.

Cevap

The correct findings requiring immediate intervention are the presence of carpal spasms with blood pressure cuff inflation, a narrowing pulse pressure with tachycardia, and new-onset bilateral lung crackles.
The correct answers identify severe, life-threatening complications of acute pancreatitis that require immediate rescue interventions. Carpal spasms when a blood pressure cuff is inflated (Trousseau's sign) indicate profound hypocalcemia, a complication of fat saponification that can lead to lethal arrhythmias. A rapidly narrowing pulse pressure (from 48 down to 18 mm Hg) coupled with tachycardia is a subtle, early indicator of hypovolemic or hemorrhagic shock due to massive retroperitoneal fluid shifts (third-spacing). New-onset bilateral crackles indicate pulmonary capillary leak and the development of Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS) or pleural effusion, another critical complication.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the clinical scenario and the client's risk profile.
The client has severe acute pancreatitis post-ERCP, placing them at extremely high risk for systemic complications including hypovolemic shock, ARDS, and severe electrolyte imbalances (hypocalcemia).
Understanding the pathophysiology of severe pancreatitis is required to anticipate which organ systems are likely to fail.
2
Evaluate each assessment finding to discriminate between expected disease manifestations and subtle signs of physiological decompensation.
Severe radiating pain and assuming a fetal position are expected manifestations of pancreatitis. The normal ABG values indicate stability. However, carpal spasms (Trousseau's sign), a pulse pressure narrowing to 18 mm Hg with tachycardia, and lung crackles indicate organ compromise.
Prioritization requires identifying anomalies that threaten the Airway, Breathing, or Circulation before treating localized pain.
3
Select the findings that represent life-threatening complications requiring immediate rescue intervention.
The findings indicating hypocalcemia (tetany risk), early shock (cardiovascular collapse), and ARDS (respiratory failure) are selected as the correct answers.
Early recognition and mitigation of these specific complications directly reduces the risk of client mortality.

Anahtar Kavram

Reduction of Risk Potential: Recognizing Systemic Complications of Acute Pancreatitis
Tahmini Süre:2m 0s
Soru 1710Soru →

A client is 48 hours postoperative following a right above-the-knee amputation and is preparing to begin physical therapy. To prevent common postoperative complications associated with this procedure, which of the following actions should the nurse take?

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Cevap: Position the client prone for 20 to 30 minutes several times a day.

Cevap

The nurse should position the client prone for 20 to 30 minutes several times a day to prevent hip flexion contractures.
Positioning the client prone for 20 to 30 minutes, 3 to 4 times daily, is an essential basic care measure after a lower extremity amputation. This position actively extends the hip joint, preventing the development of hip flexion contractures, which can severely impair the client's future ability to be fitted for and independently walk with a prosthesis.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the primary postoperative complication risk.
The primary physical mobility risk for a client with an above-the-knee amputation is the development of a hip flexion contracture.
Prolonged flexion of the hip joint impairs the ability to properly fit and walk with a prosthetic limb in the future.
2
Evaluate the timing of the nursing interventions.
The client is 48 hours postoperative.
While limb elevation is appropriate during the first 24 hours to reduce acute edema, it is contraindicated after this period because it keeps the hip locked in a flexed state.
3
Select the intervention that counteracts the risk factor safely.
Assisting the client into a prone position is the correct evidence-based action.
Prone positioning physically extends the hip joint, counteracting the tendency for contracture formation.

Anahtar Kavram

Prevention of flexion contractures following lower extremity amputation.
Tahmini Süre:1m 0s
Soru 1711Soru →

A client is admitted to the emergency department with a diagnosis of severe diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). The client is lethargic with Kussmaul respirations and a capillary blood glucose of 580 mg/dL (32.2 mmol/L). The nurse is preparing to initiate the prescribed treatment plan. In what order should the nurse implement the following actions? Arrange the interventions from highest priority to lowest priority.

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Cevap

The correct sequence is: 1) Administer a rapid bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride intravenously; 2) Verify the serum potassium level is above 3.3 mEq/L (3.3 mmol/L); 3) Start a continuous intravenous infusion of regular insulin; 4) Perform hourly capillary blood glucose monitoring; 5) Add 5% dextrose to the intravenous fluid replacement.
The standard protocol for Diabetic Ketoacidosis prioritizes immediate circulatory support followed by safe metabolic correction. Fluid resuscitation with isotonic saline is the absolute first step to correct severe hypovolemia and restore kidney perfusion. Next, the nurse must verify that serum potassium is sufficient (typically > 3.3 mEq/L) because insulin therapy will cause an intracellular shift of potassium, which could lead to fatal hypokalemia. Once a safe potassium level is confirmed, an intravenous continuous regular insulin infusion is started to halt lipolysis and clear ketoacids. With insulin running, hourly blood glucose monitoring is essential to titrate the dose accurately and avoid a precipitous drop. Finally, when blood glucose drops to approximately 250 mg/dL, the IV fluids are changed to include 5% dextrose to prevent sudden hypoglycemia and the rapid fluid shifts that cause fatal cerebral edema.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Administer a rapid bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride.
Intravascular volume is expanded and tissue perfusion is restored.
Severe dehydration and hypovolemia are the most immediate life-threatening complications of DKA and must be corrected first to prevent hypovolemic shock.
2
Verify the serum potassium level is above 3.3 mEq/L (3.3 mmol/L).
Safety for initiating insulin therapy is established.
Insulin drives potassium into the cells along with glucose. Giving insulin to a hypokalemic client can trigger fatal cardiac dysrhythmias.
3
Start a continuous intravenous infusion of regular insulin.
Blood glucose levels begin to decrease and ketoacid production stops.
Insulin is required to correct the underlying metabolic acidosis, halt lipolysis, and reverse the DKA.
4
Perform hourly capillary blood glucose monitoring.
The rate of glucose decline is closely tracked.
Close monitoring allows for accurate insulin titration and prevents dangerously rapid drops in blood sugar.
5
Add 5% dextrose to the intravenous fluid replacement.
Hypoglycemia and rapid osmotic fluid shifts are prevented.
When blood glucose drops to 250 mg/dL (13.9 mmol/L), dextrose must be added to prevent cerebral edema while the insulin infusion continues to clear the ketoacids.

Anahtar Kavram

The priority sequence for Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA) management centers on resolving life-threatening hypovolemia first, followed by careful electrolyte management before initiating insulin therapy, to prevent severe complications such as hypokalemia and cerebral edema.
Soru 1712Soru →

A nursing team is preparing to transfer an immobile client from a bed to a stretcher using a slide board (transfer board) and a draw sheet. Place the following steps in the correct chronological order to ensure a safe transfer.

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Cevap

The correct sequence for a safe slide board transfer is to position and lock the surfaces with the bed slightly higher, turn the client away, place the board under the draw sheet, roll the client supine onto the board, and finally pull the client across.
A safe lateral transfer with a slide board requires meticulous chronological preparation. First, the environment must be secured by locking the stretcher against the bed and adjusting the bed height slightly higher to let gravity assist the movement. Next, the client is turned away from the transfer direction to expose the back. The board is then positioned underneath the draw sheet to bridge the gap securely. The client is rolled back into a supine position so their weight is supported evenly on the board. Finally, using a coordinated pull on the draw sheet, the nursing team slides the client smoothly across the low-friction board onto the stretcher.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Align and prepare the transfer surfaces.
The bed is flat, locked, and slightly higher than the locked stretcher.
Reduces lifting effort by using gravity and prevents the surfaces from separating during the transfer.
2
Position the client for board placement.
The client is turned laterally away from the stretcher.
Exposes the dependent side of the client's body so the board can be inserted securely underneath.
3
Insert the slide board.
The slide board bridges the bed and stretcher underneath the client's draw sheet.
Provides a smooth, continuous bridge. Placing it under the draw sheet prevents shear injuries to the client's skin.
4
Reposition the client onto the board.
The client is resting supine, centered on the slide board.
Ensures the client's weight is fully supported by the board before any lateral movement begins.
5
Perform the lateral transfer.
The client is successfully moved onto the stretcher.
Using the draw sheet minimizes friction and protects both the client's skin and the nurses' backs.

Anahtar Kavram

Safe client transfer techniques using assistive devices
Soru 1713Soru →

Following a complicated vaginal delivery, a client develops an acute postpartum hemorrhage. The healthcare provider prescribes an immediate transfusion of packed red blood cells (PRBCs). The client has one functioning 18-gauge intravenous (IV) catheter in the right forearm, which is currently delivering a continuous infusion of lactated Ringer's solution mixed with 30 units of oxytocin. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

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Cevap: Insert a second peripheral intravenous catheter to transfuse the packed red blood cells.

Cevap

Insert a second peripheral intravenous catheter to transfuse the packed red blood cells.
The correct action is to insert a second peripheral intravenous catheter. Packed red blood cells (PRBCs) are incompatible with Lactated Ringer's solution because the calcium in the fluid can cause the blood to clot within the IV tubing. Furthermore, the client requires the continuous oxytocin infusion to manage the postpartum hemorrhage. Pausing the oxytocin would cause the uterus to relax and worsen the bleeding. Therefore, a separate, dedicated line is required to safely administer the PRBCs concurrently with the oxytocin.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Evaluate the compatibility of the prescribed blood product with the currently infusing intravenous fluid.
Lactated Ringer's solution contains calcium, which is strictly incompatible with packed red blood cells because it causes the blood to coagulate in the tubing.
Ensuring fluid compatibility prevents life-threatening complications such as thromboembolism and blocked IV access.
2
Determine if the primary infusion (oxytocin) can be safely interrupted.
The client is experiencing a postpartum hemorrhage, requiring continuous oxytocin to maintain uterine tone and control bleeding; the infusion cannot be stopped.
Interrupting a critical vasoactive or uterotonic medication compromises patient stability and exacerbates the emergency.
3
Identify the safest alternative for medication delivery.
A second large-bore intravenous line must be initiated to allow for the independent, simultaneous administration of the blood product with 0.9% sodium chloride.
This approach ensures both the treatment for uterine atony (oxytocin) and the treatment for acute anemia (PRBCs) are safely and continuously delivered.

Anahtar Kavram

Blood Transfusion Compatibility and Priority of Care in Hemorrhage
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 1714Soru →

While assessing a client who is being treated for severe hypotension, the nurse examines the peripheral intravenous access site where dopamine is infusing. The area is markedly pale, edematous, and cold to the touch, and the client complains of an intense burning sensation. The nurse immediately halts the infusion pump. Which action is the most appropriate next step for the nurse to take?

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Cevap: Leave the catheter in place to aspirate residual medication from the hub and prepare to administer prescribed phentolamine into the affected tissue.

Cevap

Leave the catheter in place to aspirate residual medication from the hub and prepare to administer prescribed phentolamine into the affected tissue.
Dopamine is a potent alpha-adrenergic agonist and a known vesicant. Extravasation into the subcutaneous tissues causes profound localized vasoconstriction, leading to rapid ischemia and severe tissue necrosis. The evidence-based standard of care for dopamine extravasation is to stop the infusion immediately, leave the catheter in place to aspirate any remaining medication from the hub (minimizing further exposure), and then administer phentolamine (an alpha-adrenergic antagonist) subcutaneously into the affected tissue. Phentolamine blocks the alpha receptors, inducing local vasodilation, restoring blood flow, and preventing tissue death.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the complication occurring at the peripheral intravenous site.
The clinical signs of marked blanching, coolness, edema, and intense burning indicate extravasation of dopamine, which is a potent vesicant.
Accurate assessment of the adverse reaction dictates the specific emergency protocol required to prevent severe injury.
2
Determine the immediate physiological priority.
The infusion has been correctly halted by the nurse, preventing further vesicant medication from entering the extravascular tissue.
Stopping the source of tissue injury is always the first definitive action during extravasation.
3
Select the appropriate secondary interventions to minimize tissue damage.
The catheter must remain in place temporarily to allow the nurse to aspirate residual drug from the hub before administration of the antidote.
Prematurely removing the catheter eliminates the route for aspiration, while flushing would forcefully push more vesicant into the fragile tissue.
4
Identify the correct pharmacological antidote for dopamine extravasation.
Phentolamine, an alpha-adrenergic blocker, is the required antidote and is administered into the affected surrounding tissues.
Phentolamine induces local vasodilation to counteract the severe, localized vasoconstriction and ischemia caused by the dopamine.

Anahtar Kavram

Management of Vesicant Extravasation
Soru 1715Soru →

A nurse is evaluating a client who returned to the nursing unit 22 hours ago following a cardiac catheterization via the right radial artery approach. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse identify as the highest priority to report to the healthcare provider?

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Cevap: Right fingers that appear pale and feel cooler to the touch compared to the left fingers.

Cevap

Right fingers that appear pale and feel cooler to the touch compared to the left fingers.
Following a radial artery cardiac catheterization, the most significant risk is compromised perfusion to the hand due to arterial spasm, thrombosis, or hematoma. Pallor and coolness in the extremity distal to the puncture site are classic, early indicators of arterial occlusion. This is a limb-threatening medical emergency that requires immediate notification of the healthcare provider to restore perfusion.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the anatomical approach and specific risks of the procedure.
The procedure utilized a right radial artery approach. A major physiological risk is arterial occlusion or hematoma at the wrist, which can compromise arterial perfusion to the hand.
Understanding the specific access site directs the nurse to perform a focused neurovascular assessment on the correct extremity.
2
Evaluate the clinical significance of each assessment finding presented.
Mild wrist pain is expected. Sitting at a 4545-degree angle is safe for a radial approach. The ABG results are completely normal. However, pale and cool fingers indicate impaired blood flow.
Discriminating between expected post-operative findings, normal diagnostic results, and pathological changes prevents delayed emergency care.
3
Determine the priority finding that requires immediate provider intervention.
The signs of arterial occlusion (pallor, coolness) take immediate priority to prevent permanent tissue damage or limb loss.
Life- or limb-threatening complications must always be prioritized over stable, expected, or easily manageable assessment data.

Anahtar Kavram

Following a radial artery cardiac catheterization, the nurse must prioritize frequent neurovascular assessments (color, temperature, pulse, capillary refill) of the affected extremity to rapidly identify and intervene for arterial occlusion.
Soru 1716Soru →

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of alteplase for an acute ischemic stroke. During the infusion, the client suddenly reports a severe, bursting headache, exhibits extreme restlessness, and the blood pressure increases to 198/112 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse take first to reduce the client's risk for life-threatening complications?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Discontinue the alteplase infusion immediately and prepare the client for an emergency noncontrast head CT scan.

Cevap

The correct action is to immediately discontinue the alteplase infusion and prepare the client for an emergency CT scan.
The client is exhibiting classic signs of hemorrhagic conversion (intracranial bleeding), which is the most severe and life-threatening complication of thrombolytic therapy. A sudden, severe headache, decreased level of consciousness or restlessness, and acute severe hypertension represent an acute neurological emergency. The absolute highest priority to reduce the risk of death or permanent disability is to immediately stop the infusion of the fibrinolytic agent.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's sudden onset of a severe headache, extreme restlessness, and severe hypertension (198/112 mm Hg) during alteplase therapy.
Recognize these findings as classic clinical indicators of hemorrhagic conversion (intracranial bleeding).
Alteplase is a potent thrombolytic that carries a high risk of bleeding; acute neurological deterioration mandates immediate suspicion of hemorrhage.
2
Determine the highest priority nursing intervention to mitigate physiological risk.
Identify that the thrombolytic infusion must be stopped immediately.
Continuing the alteplase infusion will exacerbate active intracranial bleeding, potentially leading to fatal brain herniation.
3
Anticipate the immediate subsequent medical requirement.
Prepare the client for a stat noncontrast head CT scan.
A CT scan is the definitive diagnostic tool to confirm intracranial hemorrhage and guide subsequent reversal therapies.

Anahtar Kavram

Thrombolytic Therapy Complications and Hemorrhagic Conversion
Soru 1717Soru →

A nurse is preparing to administer a continuous intravenous (IV) infusion of heparin for a client diagnosed with a pulmonary embolism. The healthcare provider's prescription is for 18 units/kg/hr18 \text{ units/kg/hr}. The client's admission weight is 198 lb198 \text{ lb}. The available IV fluid is heparin 25,000 units25,000 \text{ units} in 250 mL250 \text{ mL} of 0.45%0.45\% sodium chloride.

At what rate in mL/hr\text{mL/hr} should the nurse set the IV infusion pump? (Record your answer using one decimal place.)

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: 16.2

Cevap

16.2
To determine the correct IV pump rate, first convert the client's weight to kilograms (198 lb÷2.2=90 kg198 \text{ lb} \div 2.2 = 90 \text{ kg}). Next, calculate the hourly heparin dose by multiplying the weight by the prescribed rate (90 kg×18 units/kg/hr=1,620 units/hr90 \text{ kg} \times 18 \text{ units/kg/hr} = 1,620 \text{ units/hr}). Finally, divide the hourly dose by the concentration of the IV solution (25,000 units÷250 mL=100 units/mL25,000 \text{ units} \div 250 \text{ mL} = 100 \text{ units/mL}). The final rate is 1,620 units/hr÷100 units/mL=16.2 mL/hr1,620 \text{ units/hr} \div 100 \text{ units/mL} = 16.2 \text{ mL/hr}.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Convert the client's weight from pounds (lb) to kilograms (kg).
198 lb÷2.2=90 kg198 \text{ lb} \div 2.2 = 90 \text{ kg}
The medication is prescribed based on the client's weight in kilograms, so a conversion is necessary before calculating the dose.
2
Calculate the hourly dose of heparin required in units.
90 kg×18 units/kg/hr=1,620 units/hr90 \text{ kg} \times 18 \text{ units/kg/hr} = 1,620 \text{ units/hr}
Multiplying the weight by the weight-based prescription provides the total amount of medication needed per hour.
3
Determine the concentration of the supplied IV heparin solution.
25,000 units÷250 mL=100 units/mL25,000 \text{ units} \div 250 \text{ mL} = 100 \text{ units/mL}
Finding the concentration per milliliter is required to convert the hourly dose from units into a volume (mL).
4
Calculate the infusion pump rate in mL/hr.
1,620 units/hr÷100 units/mL=16.2 mL/hr1,620 \text{ units/hr} \div 100 \text{ units/mL} = 16.2 \text{ mL/hr}
Dividing the required hourly dose by the concentration provides the volume to be infused over one hour.

Anahtar Kavram

Weight-based intravenous continuous infusion calculation
Soru 1718Soru →

A clinical nurse is preparing to discontinue a non-tunneled central venous access device (CVAD) located in the right internal jugular vein of an adult client. To minimize the risk of a venous air embolism and promote physiological integrity, in what order should the nurse execute these interventions? Arrange the steps in the correct chronological sequence.

Öğeleri doğru sıraya koymak için sürükleyin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

The correct sequence for CVAD removal minimizes the risk of air embolism by manipulating intrathoracic pressure and securing the site: position supine, initiate Valsalva maneuver, withdraw the catheter, apply firm pressure, and finally secure an occlusive dressing.
Central venous access device removal carries a high risk for venous air embolism due to the potential for negative intrathoracic pressure to draw air into the open vein. The correct sequence systematically eliminates this risk: supine positioning raises central venous pressure; the Valsalva maneuver creates a positive pressure gradient; withdrawing the catheter during this positive pressure ensures air is repelled; applying immediate manual pressure achieves hemostasis; and sealing the site with a petroleum-based occlusive dressing prevents air entry through the unhealed tissue tract.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Position the client flat in a supine position.
Increases central venous pressure.
Keeps the insertion site at or below heart level, mitigating negative pressure gradients that draw air inward.
2
Instruct the client to perform the Valsalva maneuver.
Elevates intrathoracic pressure.
Creates a positive pressure state inside the central veins that repels atmospheric air from entering the open tract.
3
Withdraw the catheter smoothly and continuously.
Removes the device safely.
Catheter removal must coincide exactly with peak intrathoracic pressure to ensure no air is aspirated.
4
Apply firm, continuous manual pressure.
Achieves hemostasis.
Direct pressure prevents hematoma formation and bleeding from the large vessel puncture site.
5
Secure an airtight occlusive dressing.
Seals the insertion tract.
Prevents delayed air entry over the next 24 to 48 hours while the subcutaneous tissue tract fully closes.

Anahtar Kavram

Prevention of venous air embolism during central venous access device (CVAD) removal
Soru 1719Soru →

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving an intravenous infusion of ceftriaxone for a severe infection. Ten minutes into the infusion, the client suddenly reports throat tightness, severe dizziness, and develops visible facial swelling. Arrange the following nursing actions in the correct order of priority.

Öğeleri doğru sıraya koymak için sürükleyin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

Stop the infusion, assess the airway and apply oxygen, administer intramuscular epinephrine, initiate an IV fluid bolus, and finally administer intravenous diphenhydramine.
The correct sequence relies on the core principles of emergency management: removing the offending agent, stabilizing the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation), and administering therapies in order of life-saving necessity. Stopping the antibiotic halts further antigen exposure. Immediately assessing the airway and oxygenating the client addresses the highest immediate risk (asphyxiation). Epinephrine is the definitive primary treatment for anaphylaxis to reverse respiratory and hemodynamic compromise. IV fluids then support circulation to correct distributive shock. Finally, adjunctive medications like diphenhydramine are given to manage non-life-threatening symptoms.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Remove the triggering stimulus.
The intravenous ceftriaxone infusion is immediately discontinued.
Continuing the infusion will worsen the anaphylactic reaction and accelerate cardiovascular and respiratory collapse.
2
Prioritize Airway and Breathing.
Airway patency is assessed and high-flow oxygen is administered.
Anaphylaxis commonly causes laryngeal edema and bronchospasm, making airway protection the most critical physiological priority after removing the trigger.
3
Administer life-saving pharmacology.
Intramuscular epinephrine is injected.
Epinephrine provides rapid alpha- and beta-adrenergic stimulation to relieve airway obstruction and elevate blood pressure.
4
Support Circulation.
A rapid bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride is initiated.
Massive vasodilation leads to distributive shock and severe hypotension, requiring immediate intravascular volume expansion.
5
Provide adjunctive symptom management.
Intravenous diphenhydramine is administered.
H1 receptor antagonists alleviate peripheral symptoms like pruritus and urticaria, but they do not treat the primary life-threatening manifestations of anaphylaxis.

Anahtar Kavram

Prioritization of emergency interventions during acute anaphylactic shock.
Soru 1720Soru →

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a continuous infusion of total parenteral nutrition (TPN) through a single-lumen peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC). The client reports severe nausea, and the healthcare provider prescribes ondansetron 4 mg IV push once immediately. Which of the following is the priority nursing action?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Establish a new peripheral intravenous catheter and administer the ondansetron through the new access site.

Cevap

The correct action is to establish a new peripheral intravenous catheter and administer the ondansetron through the new access site.
Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is a complex hypertonic solution containing dextrose, amino acids, trace elements, and electrolytes. It carries a high risk of chemical incompatibility and infection. Evidence-based practice strictly dictates that TPN must be infused through a dedicated central intravenous line. Because the client has a single-lumen catheter currently in use, the nurse cannot safely interrupt the infusion or inject medications into that line via a Y-site. Therefore, starting a new peripheral intravenous catheter is the only safe and appropriate action to provide timely relief for the client's severe nausea without compromising the safety of the TPN therapy.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's current intravenous access and ongoing therapy.
The client has a single-lumen PICC line currently being used for a continuous TPN infusion.
Understanding the existing vascular access dictates how safely new medications can be administered.
2
Recall evidence-based guidelines for total parenteral nutrition (TPN) administration.
TPN requires a strictly dedicated intravenous line due to its high osmolarity, complex chemical makeup, and high risk for bacterial growth.
Mixing medications with TPN or interrupting its flow can cause dangerous chemical precipitates, systemic infection, or rebound hypoglycemia.
3
Evaluate the options based on TPN safety guidelines and the client's acute need for symptom relief.
Using the existing TPN line via Y-site or by pausing the infusion is contraindicated. Delaying the medication is inappropriate given the acute nausea.
The only safe and effective way to deliver the prescribed IV push medication is to gain separate venous access.
4
Select the safest nursing intervention.
The nurse must insert a new peripheral IV catheter to administer the ondansetron.
This action provides timely symptom relief while maintaining the integrity and safety of the continuous TPN infusion.

Anahtar Kavram

Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN) Administration Safety and Dedicated IV Lines
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Physiological Integrity Alıştırma Soruları — NCLEX-RN — Sayfa 86 | Examkin