Physiological Integrity

1960 soru

Soru 1681Soru →

Following a percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) via the right femoral artery, a client is transferred to the cardiac step-down unit. Two hours later, the client reports new-onset, severe right flank pain. Baseline vital signs upon arrival were a blood pressure of 132/76 mm Hg and a heart rate of 74 bpm. Current vital signs reveal a blood pressure of 96/52 mm Hg and a heart rate of 118 bpm. Assessment of the femoral access site shows a dry, intact dressing with no visible hematoma, and pedal pulses remain palpable bilaterally. Based on these findings, which of the following is the priority action?

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Cevap: Notify the healthcare provider and anticipate administering rapid intravenous fluids.

Cevap

The correct action is to notify the healthcare provider and anticipate administering rapid intravenous fluids.
The client is exhibiting classic signs of a retroperitoneal hemorrhage, a critical complication of a femoral percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). Blood pooling in the retroperitoneal space causes severe flank or lower back pain, while the significant drop in blood pressure and compensatory tachycardia are clear indicators of hemorrhagic shock. Because this bleeding tracks internally into the retroperitoneal cavity, the superficial skin dressing will often remain completely dry and intact. The priority action is to immediately notify the healthcare provider or rapid response team and prepare for fluid resuscitation to restore intravascular volume.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's symptoms and vital sign trends.
The client has new-onset flank pain, a significant drop in blood pressure (from 132/76 to 96/52 mm Hg), and an increased heart rate (from 74 to 118 bpm).
Recognizing deviations from baseline vital signs is crucial for early detection of complications.
2
Correlate the findings with the recent femoral artery procedure.
The combination of flank pain and signs of hypovolemic shock, despite a dry superficial dressing, strongly indicates a retroperitoneal hemorrhage.
Blood leaking from the arterial puncture site can track backward into the retroperitoneal space, remaining invisible on the surface while causing severe pain and shock.
3
Determine the priority nursing intervention.
The immediate priority is to notify the healthcare provider and prepare to restore intravascular volume with intravenous fluids.
Hemorrhagic shock is a life-threatening emergency that requires prompt medical escalation and volume replacement.

Anahtar Kavram

Recognizing and managing retroperitoneal hemorrhage as a complication of femoral artery procedures.
Soru 1682Soru →

A 28-year-old client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of regular insulin for diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). After 4 hours of treatment, the client's capillary blood glucose has decreased from 550 mg/dL (30.5 mmol/L) to 220 mg/dL (12.2 mmol/L). The most recent laboratory results show a serum potassium of 3.2 mEq/L (3.2 mmol/L), serum bicarbonate of 14 mEq/L (14 mmol/L), and an arterial pH of 7.25. Which of the following nursing actions are appropriate to reduce the risk of physiological complications? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

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Cevap: Initiate a prescribed intravenous fluid infusion containing 5% dextrose.; Prepare to administer a prescribed intravenous potassium chloride replacement.; Initiate continuous electrocardiogram (ECG) monitoring.

Cevap

The correct actions are initiating a prescribed intravenous fluid infusion containing 5% dextrose, preparing to administer a prescribed intravenous potassium chloride replacement, and initiating continuous electrocardiogram (ECG) monitoring.
Initiating a fluid containing 5% dextrose prevents hypoglycemia while allowing the continuation of the insulin infusion necessary to correct the underlying metabolic acidosis. Preparing to administer intravenous potassium chloride is essential because insulin therapy causes an intracellular shift of potassium, worsening the client's current hypokalemia (3.2 mEq/L). Initiating continuous ECG monitoring is critical because hypokalemia significantly increases the risk of life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's current clinical data and laboratory results.
Blood glucose is 220 mg/dL, potassium is low at 3.2 mEq/L, and metabolic acidosis is still present (pH 7.25, bicarbonate 14 mEq/L).
Identifying unresolved acidosis and electrolyte imbalances is critical for prioritizing interventions.
2
Determine the appropriate interventions for the current blood glucose level.
Dextrose should be added to the IV fluids.
When blood glucose falls below 250 mg/dL during DKA treatment, dextrose must be added to prevent hypoglycemia while insulin continues to close the anion gap.
3
Evaluate the potassium level and determine the necessary cardiac precautions.
Potassium replacement and continuous ECG monitoring are required.
Insulin shifts potassium into cells, exacerbating hypokalemia. This creates a high risk for life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias, necessitating continuous monitoring and potassium repletion.

Anahtar Kavram

Effective management of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) requires careful monitoring and response to changes in blood glucose, electrolytes (specifically potassium), and acid-base balance to prevent life-threatening complications such as hypoglycemia and fatal dysrhythmias.
Soru 1683Soru →

A nurse is caring for a client who was admitted to the emergency department with a severe asthma exacerbation. Upon admission, the client was anxious, had a respiratory rate of 34 breaths/minute, and exhibited loud, bilateral expiratory wheezing. Reassessment two hours later reveals the client is lethargic, has a respiratory rate of 12 breaths/minute, and lung sounds are significantly diminished. Which of the following arterial blood gas (ABG) results is most consistent with the client's current presentation?

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Cevap: pH 7.26, PaCO2 65 mm Hg, PaO2 58 mm Hg, HCO3- 25 mEq/L

Cevap

The correct answer is the ABG result showing pH 7.26, PaCO2 65 mm Hg, PaO2 58 mm Hg, and HCO3- 25 mEq/L.
The client's progression from tachypnea and loud wheezing to lethargy, a decreased respiratory rate, and diminished lung sounds indicates respiratory muscle fatigue and impending respiratory failure (often termed a 'silent chest'). As the client loses the ability to effectively ventilate, carbon dioxide is retained, leading to uncompensated respiratory acidosis and worsening hypoxemia. The result showing a low pH (7.26), elevated PaCO2 (65 mm Hg), and low PaO2 (58 mm Hg) with a normal HCO3- accurately reflects this acute physiological decompensation.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's initial presentation versus the current presentation.
The client progressed from anxious and tachypneic with loud wheezing to lethargic and bradypneic with diminished lung sounds.
Comparing baseline to current findings identifies the clinical trajectory of the client's respiratory status.
2
Interpret the clinical significance of the current findings.
Lethargy, a decreased respiratory rate of 12 breaths/minute, and diminished lung sounds (a 'silent chest') indicate severe respiratory muscle fatigue and impending respiratory failure.
When a client with severe asthma becomes exhausted, they can no longer maintain the work of breathing necessary to move air through highly constricted airways.
3
Correlate the clinical status with the expected arterial blood gas (ABG) changes.
Ineffective ventilation leads to carbon dioxide retention (PaCO2 > 45 mm Hg), resulting in respiratory acidosis (pH < 7.35) and worsening hypoxemia (PaO2 < 80 mm Hg).
A high PaCO2 and low pH perfectly reflect the physiological decompensation of a failing respiratory system in acute asthma.

Anahtar Kavram

Impending respiratory failure in severe asthma presents clinically as lethargy, decreased respiratory rate, and 'silent chest', and physiologically as respiratory acidosis with hypercapnia.
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 1684Soru →

A young adult arrives at the urgent care clinic complaining of relentless vomiting for the past 24 hours after consuming undercooked seafood. The provider orders a comprehensive metabolic panel and arterial blood gas analysis. The results demonstrate a pH of 7.49, a PaCO2 of 40 mm Hg, and an HCO3- of 30 mEq/L. Which clinical condition do these values represent?

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Cevap: Metabolic alkalosis

Cevap

Metabolic alkalosis
The client's laboratory results show an elevated pH (7.49), indicating alkalosis, combined with an elevated HCO3- (30 mEq/L), indicating a metabolic origin. The normal PaCO2 (40 mm Hg) rules out a primary respiratory disturbance. Furthermore, the clinical history of severe vomiting supports this finding, as the expulsion of gastric acid naturally leads to metabolic alkalosis.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Evaluate the client's pH value to determine the primary state of the blood.
The pH is 7.49, which is greater than the normal range of 7.35 to 7.45. This indicates a state of alkalosis.
Identifying whether the blood is acidic or alkaline is the first necessary step in interpreting an arterial blood gas result.
2
Analyze the PaCO2 value to assess the respiratory component.
The PaCO2 is 40 mm Hg, which is perfectly centered within the normal range of 35 to 45 mm Hg.
A normal PaCO2 indicates that the respiratory system is neither the cause of the alkalosis nor has it begun to compensate for it yet.
3
Analyze the HCO3- value to assess the metabolic component.
The HCO3- is 30 mEq/L, which is elevated above the normal range of 22 to 26 mEq/L.
An elevated bicarbonate level corresponds with the alkaline pH, confirming that the origin of the imbalance is metabolic.
4
Correlate the laboratory values with the clinical scenario.
The diagnosis of metabolic alkalosis aligns perfectly with the history of relentless vomiting.
Vomiting causes a profound loss of hydrochloric acid from the stomach, which leaves an excess of bicarbonate in the bloodstream.

Anahtar Kavram

Interpretation of Arterial Blood Gases (ABGs) and the physiological effects of upper gastrointestinal fluid loss.
Tahmini Süre:1m 0s
Soru 1685Soru →

A nurse is monitoring a client who has experienced profuse fluid loss from severe acute gastroenteritis. Which of the following vital sign trends provides the earliest clinical evidence that the client is entering the compensatory stage of hypovolemic shock?

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Cevap: A blood pressure reading that shifts from 126/74 mm Hg to 116/90 mm Hg

Cevap

A blood pressure reading that shifts from 126/74 mm Hg to 116/90 mm Hg
In the compensatory stage of hypovolemic shock, the sympathetic nervous system triggers peripheral vasoconstriction to maintain cardiac output and tissue perfusion. This physiological adaptation raises the diastolic blood pressure. Simultaneously, a declining stroke volume causes the systolic pressure to drop or remain stable. The result is a narrowed pulse pressure (the difference between systolic and diastolic values), which is one of the earliest and most reliable indicators of developing shock.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the client's primary risk factor based on the scenario.
The client has experienced profuse fluid loss, placing them at high risk for hypovolemic shock.
Recognizing the mechanism of injury or illness helps anticipate the body's physiological response.
2
Recall the physiological mechanisms of the compensatory stage of shock.
The sympathetic nervous system releases epinephrine and norepinephrine, causing peripheral vasoconstriction to maintain organ perfusion.
Understanding the hormonal and vascular changes is necessary to interpret vital sign trends accurately.
3
Evaluate how sympathetic compensation affects specific blood pressure parameters.
Vasoconstriction increases systemic vascular resistance, which raises diastolic blood pressure. Meanwhile, decreased stroke volume lowers systolic blood pressure, resulting in a narrowed pulse pressure.
Narrowing pulse pressure is one of the earliest measurable hemodynamic changes before profound hypotension occurs.
4
Analyze the provided options against the physiological expectation.
The shift from 126/74 (pulse pressure of 52) to 116/90 (pulse pressure of 26) represents a significantly narrowed pulse pressure, indicating early compensation.
Overt hypotension or a decreasing heart rate do not reflect the earliest compensatory mechanisms of hypovolemic shock.

Anahtar Kavram

Narrowing pulse pressure as an early indicator of compensatory shock
Tahmini Süre:1m 15s
Soru 1686Soru →

A nurse is caring for an older adult client who has right-sided hemiparesis and dysphagia following a recent cerebrovascular accident. The speech-language pathologist has cleared the client to begin a pureed diet. Which nursing action is most appropriate to ensure the client's safety and comfort during meals?

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Cevap: Position the client upright at a 90-degree angle and encourage a slight chin tuck when swallowing.

Cevap

The correct answer emphasizes placing the client in an upright, 90-degree position and utilizing a chin-tuck maneuver during swallowing.
The correct answer emphasizes placing the client in an upright, 90-degree position (high-Fowler's) and utilizing a chin-tuck maneuver. This optimal positioning uses gravity to facilitate gastric emptying while the chin tuck physically narrows the airway opening, significantly reducing the risk of aspiration in clients with neurological swallowing deficits.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation.
The client has right-sided hemiparesis and dysphagia (difficulty swallowing) post-stroke.
These deficits place the client at a high risk for aspiration during oral intake.
2
Identify the priority for basic care and comfort during feeding.
The primary goal is to provide nutrition safely by preventing food or liquid from entering the airway (trachea).
Aspiration can lead to life-threatening complications such as aspiration pneumonia.
3
Evaluate positioning and anatomical techniques.
Positioning the client in high-Fowler's (90 degrees) enlists gravity to move food into the stomach. The 'chin-tuck' maneuver narrows the airway opening.
This specific body and head positioning directs food safely down the esophagus and away from the trachea.
4
Select the safest nursing action.
Positioning the client upright with a chin tuck is the most appropriate, evidence-based intervention.
It directly addresses the physiological deficit while promoting safe nutritional intake.

Anahtar Kavram

Dysphagia feeding precautions and positioning to prevent aspiration.
Soru 1687Soru →

A 62-year-old client with a history of cirrhosis returns to the medical-surgical unit following a percutaneous liver biopsy. The client's pre-procedure vital signs were a blood pressure of 138/82 mmHg, a heart rate of 74 beats per minute, and a respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute. Thirty minutes later, the nurse conducts a post-procedure assessment. Which of the following assessment findings requires the nurse's immediate intervention?

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Cevap: A blood pressure of 114/86 mmHg and a heart rate of 104 beats per minute.

Cevap

The correct answer is the finding of a blood pressure of 114/86 mmHg and a heart rate of 104 beats per minute.
The liver is a highly vascular organ, making severe internal hemorrhage a primary life-threatening complication of a liver biopsy. The client's vital signs demonstrate a shift from baseline to tachycardia (104 bpm) and a narrowing pulse pressure (dropping from 56 mmHg to 28 mmHg). These are classic, early compensatory mechanisms of hypovolemic shock due to blood loss. The nurse must immediately intervene by notifying the healthcare provider and preparing for fluid or blood resuscitation.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's risk profile based on the invasive procedure.
The client underwent a percutaneous liver biopsy, which carries a severe risk of internal hemorrhage due to the liver's dense vascularity and the impaired coagulation commonly seen in cirrhosis.
Identifying the primary physiological risk focuses the assessment on identifying early signs of bleeding.
2
Compare the current vital signs to the baseline values.
The heart rate increased from 74 to 104 beats per minute. The pulse pressure narrowed significantly from 56 mmHg (138-82) to 28 mmHg (114-86).
Tachycardia and a narrowing pulse pressure are subtle but critical early compensatory signs of hypovolemic (hemorrhagic) shock before a precipitous drop in systolic pressure occurs.
3
Evaluate the other assessment findings to determine if they are expected or require intervention.
The right lateral position is therapeutic to prevent bleeding, mild pain is expected after a puncture, and the ABG values are strictly within normal limits.
Ruling out expected findings confirms that the hemodynamic changes are the sole priority requiring immediate life-saving intervention.

Anahtar Kavram

Early recognition of hemorrhagic shock following highly vascular invasive procedures.
Soru 1688Soru →

A client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) through a single-lumen peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC). The healthcare provider prescribes a scheduled dose of intravenous (IV) ciprofloxacin to treat a systemic infection. Which of the following actions is the most appropriate for the nurse to take?

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Cevap: Insert a new peripheral venous catheter to administer the prescribed antibiotic.

Cevap

The most appropriate action is to establish a separate, new peripheral venous access device to administer the antibiotic, as the single-lumen PICC must remain dedicated solely to the total parenteral nutrition.
Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) solutions are complex formulations with a very high risk for physical and chemical incompatibilities when combined with other drugs. Additionally, because of its high dextrose and lipid content, accessing the line frequently heavily increases the risk of a central line-associated bloodstream infection. Therefore, evidence-based best practice dictates that a single-lumen catheter used for TPN must remain exclusively dedicated to the nutrition infusion. The nurse must establish a separate peripheral venous access site to administer the intravenous antibiotic safely.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the client's current intravenous access and continuous infusions.
The client has a single-lumen PICC that is currently infusing TPN.
Determines the available resources for safe medication administration.
2
Analyze the principles of safe total parenteral nutrition (TPN) administration.
TPN requires a strictly dedicated line due to high incompatibility risks, infection risks, and the need for an uninterrupted flow to maintain glycemic stability.
Guides the clinical decision on whether the existing central line can be safely utilized.
3
Determine the necessary nursing intervention to administer the new medication safely.
A new, separate vascular access (such as a peripheral IV) must be initiated.
Ensures the prescribed antibiotic is administered on time without compromising the safety and efficacy of the parenteral nutrition therapy.

Anahtar Kavram

Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN) Administration Safety and Dedicated Vascular Access
Soru 1689Soru →

An unresponsive older adult client requires comprehensive oral care during the morning hygiene routine following a massive cerebral infarction. Which action should the nurse select to ensure safe and effective care?

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Cevap: Place the client in a lateral position with the head turned to the side to allow secretions to drain out of the mouth.

Cevap

The nurse should place the client in a lateral position with the head turned to the side to allow secretions to drain out of the mouth.
For an unresponsive client, the greatest risk during oral care is the aspiration of fluids into the lungs, which can lead to severe pneumonia. Placing the client in a lateral (side-lying) position with the head turned to the side allows gravity to pull cleaning fluids and oral secretions out of the mouth and safely away from the airway.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's neurological status and risk factors.
The client is unresponsive following a severe stroke, indicating an absence of protective airway mechanisms such as the swallow and gag reflexes.
Understanding the client's physiological deficits is the first step in recognizing the high risk for aspiration during oral hygiene.
2
Determine the optimal physical position for the intervention.
A lateral (side-lying) position with the head turned outward is selected over a supine or high-Fowler's position.
This specific alignment prevents fluids from pooling in the back of the throat and allows gravity to safely drain liquids out of the mouth.
3
Ensure appropriate delegation and clinical assessment of the oral cavity.
The RN personally assesses the gag reflex and recognizes that any bleeding gums are signs of periodontal disease, not normal aging.
Safety assessments cannot be delegated to UAP, and age-related assumptions must not delay treatment for pathological conditions.

Anahtar Kavram

Aspiration Precautions and Safe Positioning for Unresponsive Clients
Soru 1690Soru →

During a shift assessment, the nurse notes that a client with a severe intestinal infection has produced copious, watery stools for three consecutive days. The healthcare team suspects an acid-base derangement and draws an arterial blood gas (ABG) sample. Which of the following ABG parameters would confirm a diagnosis of uncompensated metabolic acidosis? Select all that apply.

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Cevap: pH of 7.29; PaCO2PaCO_2 of 39 mm Hg; HCO3−HCO_3^- of 16 mEq/L

Cevap

The expected parameters are a pH of 7.29, a PaCO2PaCO_2 of 39 mm Hg, and an HCO3−HCO_3^- of 16 mEq/L.
Severe diarrhea results in the loss of alkaline intestinal secretions (bicarbonate), leading to metabolic acidosis. This is indicated by a pH less than 7.35 and a primary decrease in HCO3−HCO_3^- to less than 22 mEq/L. Because the condition is uncompensated, the respiratory system has not yet altered the ventilation rate to normalize the pH; therefore, the PaCO2PaCO_2 remains within the normal range of 35-45 mm Hg.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the primary disturbance caused by the clinical scenario.
Severe diarrhea causes an excessive loss of bicarbonate from the lower gastrointestinal tract, leading to a state of metabolic acidosis.
Understanding the physiological effect of the fluid loss is necessary to determine the expected primary acid-base imbalance.
2
Determine the expected ABG parameters for the primary disturbance.
Metabolic acidosis is characterized by an acidic pH (less than 7.35) and a low bicarbonate level (less than 22 mEq/L).
This establishes the core laboratory findings required to diagnose the primary condition.
3
Evaluate the state of compensation.
The scenario specifies an 'uncompensated' state, meaning the compensatory mechanism (respiratory PaCO2PaCO_2) remains within the normal range of 35-45 mm Hg.
An abnormal PaCO2PaCO_2 would indicate that partial or full compensation had begun.

Anahtar Kavram

Uncompensated Metabolic Acidosis
Soru 1691Soru →

A registered nurse is preparing to administer an intermittent bolus enteral feeding via a nasogastric (NG) tube to a client with dysphagia. Place the following steps in the correct chronological sequence from first to last.

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Cevap

The correct sequence is to first elevate the head of the bed, then verify tube placement, check the gastric residual volume, administer the feeding, and finally flush the tube.
Safe administration of enteral feedings requires a strict sequence to prevent life-threatening complications. Positioning the client upright is the foundational step. Next, the nurse must verify the tube is actually in the stomach by checking the pH of aspirated contents. Once confirmed, the nurse assesses gastric residual volume to ensure the stomach is emptying properly, returning the aspirate to maintain electrolyte balance. The feeding formula is then administered, and finally, the tube is flushed to clear the formula and maintain patency.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Elevate the head of the bed to 30 to 45 degrees.
The client is in a semi-Fowler's position.
Reduces the risk of aspiration by utilizing gravity to keep stomach contents from refluxing.
2
Verify correct tube placement by aspirating and checking the pH of gastric contents.
The tube's location in the stomach is confirmed.
Ensures fluids will be instilled into the gastrointestinal tract, not the lungs.
3
Assess the gastric residual volume (GRV) and return the aspirate to the client.
Feeding tolerance is established and gastric contents are replaced.
High residual volumes indicate poor digestion and risk for aspiration. Returning the aspirate prevents electrolyte imbalances.
4
Administer the prescribed enteral feeding formula by gravity.
The client receives the required nutrition.
Provides caloric and nutritional intake as prescribed.
5
Flush the nasogastric tube with 30 mL of water.
The tube is cleared of formula.
Prevents tube occlusion and bacterial growth within the lumen.

Anahtar Kavram

Enteral Nutrition Administration and Aspiration Prevention
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 1692Soru →

A client experiencing continuous generalized tonic-clonic motor activity requires emergent administration of intravenous phenytoin. The client currently has a single 18-gauge peripheral venous catheter with a primary infusion of 5% dextrose in half-normal saline (D5 0.45% NaCl) running at 75 mL/hr. To ensure safe delivery of the anticonvulsant, which action must the nurse execute?

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Cevap: Temporarily halt the primary fluid, irrigate the venous catheter with normal saline, inject the anticonvulsant, and irrigate again with normal saline.

Cevap

Temporarily halt the primary fluid, irrigate the venous catheter with normal saline, inject the anticonvulsant, and irrigate again with normal saline.
The correct action safely addresses the chemical incompatibility between phenytoin and the dextrose-containing primary fluid while prioritizing emergent treatment. By temporarily stopping the infusion and thoroughly flushing the line with normal saline before and after the phenytoin injection, the nurse prevents drug precipitation and ensures the rapid delivery of a life-saving anticonvulsant without the dangerous delay of starting a new IV.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's clinical priority.
The client is in status epilepticus (continuous seizures), which is a medical emergency requiring immediate administration of an anticonvulsant to prevent brain damage.
Establishing the urgency dictates whether the nurse has time to start new IV lines or must use the existing access safely.
2
Evaluate the compatibility of the prescribed medication with the continuous infusion.
Phenytoin is highly incompatible with all dextrose-containing solutions, including the client's current D5 0.45% NaCl infusion.
Mixing phenytoin with dextrose causes the medication to precipitate, which can lead to emboli and loss of IV access.
3
Determine the safest and most efficient administration method.
The nurse must stop the incompatible primary fluid, flush the line thoroughly with 0.9% sodium chloride (normal saline), administer the phenytoin, and flush again with normal saline before restarting the primary fluid.
This 'flush-administer-flush' technique safely utilizes the existing IV line, prevents precipitation, and ensures the life-saving medication is delivered without delay.

Anahtar Kavram

Phenytoin must only be administered with 0.9% sodium chloride (normal saline) due to severe incompatibility and precipitation with dextrose solutions. In emergent situations, incompatible primary fluids must be stopped and the line flushed with normal saline before and after administration.
Soru 1693Soru →

A nurse is caring for a client with a spinal cord injury at the T4 level. The client suddenly reports a severe, throbbing headache. The nurse notes facial flushing, diaphoresis above the level of injury, and a blood pressure of 210/110 mm Hg. To reduce the risk of a severe complication, arrange the following nursing interventions in the correct sequential order.

Öğeleri doğru sıraya koymak için sürükleyin

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Cevap

The correct sequence is: 1) Elevate the head of the bed, 2) loosen constrictive clothing, 3) assess the urinary system, 4) examine the rectum for impaction, and finally 5) administer a prescribed antihypertensive medication.
The sequence follows the standard pathophysiological management of autonomic dysreflexia: immediate mechanical reduction of blood pressure via positioning, followed by the systematic identification and removal of noxious stimuli (clothing, bladder, bowel), and finally utilizing pharmacological intervention if conservative measures fail.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Elevate the head of the bed to a sitting or high-Fowler's position.
Induces orthostatic hypotension.
This utilizes gravity to provide an immediate, passive reduction in the critically high blood pressure, mitigating the risk of intracranial hemorrhage.
2
Loosen any constrictive clothing, tight bands, or braces.
Removes external physical stimuli.
Even mild external pressure below the level of injury can trigger or exacerbate the exaggerated sympathetic response.
3
Assess the urinary system for bladder distention or catheter obstruction.
Identifies the most frequent internal trigger.
A distended bladder is the leading cause of autonomic dysreflexia; draining the bladder often resolves the hypertensive crisis entirely.
4
Examine the rectum for fecal impaction if no urinary issues are found.
Evaluates the second most common internal trigger.
If the bladder is empty, bowel distention must be ruled out. An anesthetic ointment must be used prior to digital examination to prevent worsening the sympathetic surge.
5
Administer a prescribed short-acting antihypertensive medication if hypertension persists.
Lowers blood pressure pharmacologically.
Medications are reserved for situations where non-pharmacological interventions fail to lower the blood pressure or if the noxious stimulus cannot be immediately identified.

Anahtar Kavram

Prioritization in the management of autonomic dysreflexia
Soru 1694Soru →

An adult client who recently experienced status epilepticus is prescribed intravenous phenytoin. When administering this medication, which of the following safety interventions must the nurse implement? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

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Cevap: Ensure the administration rate does not exceed 50 mg/min.; Flush the intravenous line with 0.9% sodium chloride before and after the dose.; Assess the client's blood pressure and electrocardiogram continuously during the infusion.; Observe the intravenous insertion site closely for signs of infiltration or tissue necrosis.

Cevap

The nurse must ensure the administration rate does not exceed 50 mg/min, flush the IV line with 0.9% sodium chloride before and after the dose, continuously assess the client's blood pressure and ECG, and closely observe the IV insertion site for infiltration.
Intravenous phenytoin requires strict safety protocols due to its alkaline nature and cardiovascular effects. It must be administered at a maximum rate of 50 mg/min and flushed or mixed exclusively with 0.9% sodium chloride to prevent precipitation. Continuous ECG and blood pressure monitoring are essential to detect arrhythmias and hypotension. Additionally, because it is a vesicant, the IV site must be monitored for extravasation to prevent severe tissue necrosis.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Evaluate the compatibility requirements for intravenous phenytoin administration.
Identify that phenytoin is only compatible with 0.9% sodium chloride and will precipitate in dextrose solutions.
Preventing crystallization in the IV tubing is critical for patient safety and drug efficacy.
2
Determine the safe administration rate and required physiological monitoring.
Recognize that the infusion rate must not exceed 50 mg/min and requires continuous ECG and blood pressure monitoring.
Rapid administration of phenytoin can lead to cardiovascular collapse, severe hypotension, and life-threatening arrhythmias.
3
Assess the delegation and local site monitoring requirements.
Identify that RN-level assessment cannot be delegated to UAP and that the IV site must be closely monitored for extravasation.
Phenytoin is highly alkaline and can cause severe tissue necrosis if it leaks into surrounding tissues.

Anahtar Kavram

Intravenous Phenytoin Administration Safety
Soru 1695Soru →

Following a severe panic attack, a client in the emergency department exhibits rapid breathing and reports numbness in the fingers. An arterial blood gas analysis yields a pH of 7.54, a PaCO2 of 26 mm Hg, and an HCO3- of 24 mEq/L. Which primary acid-base disturbance do these results indicate?

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Cevap: Respiratory alkalosis

Cevap

Respiratory alkalosis
The arterial blood gas results demonstrate a pH greater than 7.45, establishing an alkalotic state. The PaCO2 is less than 35 mm Hg, which correlates with the elevated pH and identifies the respiratory system as the primary source of the imbalance (due to hyperventilation blowing off excessive CO2). The normal HCO3- confirms it is an uncompensated respiratory issue.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Evaluate the pH level.
The pH is 7.54.
A pH above 7.45 indicates an alkalemic state.
2
Evaluate the PaCO2 level.
The PaCO2 is 26 mm Hg.
A PaCO2 below 35 mm Hg indicates excessive elimination of carbon dioxide, pointing to a respiratory origin.
3
Evaluate the HCO3- level.
The HCO3- is 24 mEq/L.
A value between 22 and 26 mEq/L is normal, confirming there is no primary metabolic component or compensation yet.

Anahtar Kavram

Basic Arterial Blood Gas (ABG) Interpretation
Tahmini Süre:45s
Soru 1696Soru →

A nurse is caring for a client with hypokalemia who has a 20-gauge peripheral intravenous (IV) catheter in the right forearm. The healthcare provider prescribes an intravenous infusion of 40 mEq40\text{ mEq} of potassium chloride over 4 hours. The pharmacy delivers a pre-mixed bag containing 40 mEq40\text{ mEq} of potassium chloride in 100 mL100\text{ mL} of 0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride. Which of the following is the priority nursing action?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Contact the pharmacy to request the potassium chloride be diluted in a larger volume of fluid.

Cevap

The correct action is to contact the pharmacy to request the potassium chloride be diluted in a larger volume of fluid.
Intravenous potassium chloride is a high-alert medication that is extremely irritating to the veins. For safe administration through a peripheral intravenous catheter, the maximum recommended concentration is typically 10 mEq10\text{ mEq} per 100 mL100\text{ mL}. A concentration of 40 mEq40\text{ mEq} in 100 mL100\text{ mL} is dangerously high and will cause severe pain, chemical phlebitis, and potential tissue necrosis. The priority action is to hold the infusion and contact the pharmacy to have the medication diluted in a larger volume (e.g., 400 mL400\text{ mL} to 1000 mL1000\text{ mL}) or to request a central venous catheter order if fluid restriction is required.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the prescribed medication and the administration route.
The client is to receive 40 mEq40\text{ mEq} of potassium chloride via a peripheral IV catheter.
Identifying the route is essential for evaluating the safety parameters of parenteral medications.
2
Evaluate the concentration of the delivered medication.
The pharmacy provided 40 mEq40\text{ mEq} in 100 mL100\text{ mL}, which is a concentration of 40 mEq40\text{ mEq} per 100 mL100\text{ mL}.
Potassium chloride is a high-alert medication that is highly irritating to tissues and veins.
3
Compare the supplied concentration against safe peripheral administration guidelines.
The maximum safe concentration for a peripheral IV is typically 10 mEq10\text{ mEq} per 100 mL100\text{ mL}. The supplied bag is far too concentrated.
Infusing a highly concentrated potassium solution peripherally will cause severe pain and chemical phlebitis.
4
Determine the priority nursing intervention.
The nurse must hold the medication and contact the pharmacy for a properly diluted bag (e.g., 40 mEq40\text{ mEq} in 400 mL400\text{ mL} or more).
This prevents direct harm to the client from an unsafe pharmacological preparation.

Anahtar Kavram

The maximum safe concentration of intravenous potassium chloride for peripheral administration is generally 10 mEq10\text{ mEq} per 100 mL100\text{ mL} to prevent severe chemical phlebitis and tissue damage.
Soru 1697Soru →

A 45-year-old client is receiving mechanical ventilation in the intensive care unit following severe chest trauma. The morning arterial blood gas (ABG) results reveal a pHpH of 7.297.29, PaCO2PaCO_2 of 5555 mm Hg, HCO3−HCO_3^- of 2525 mEq/L, and PaO2PaO_2 of 6565 mm Hg. The client is becoming increasingly restless, and the ventilator's high-pressure alarm is sounding continuously. Which action should the nurse take first to reduce the client's risk of further physiological decompensation?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Suction the endotracheal tube to clear potential airway secretions

Cevap

Suction the endotracheal tube to clear potential airway secretions.
The client's ABG results indicate acute, uncompensated respiratory acidosis paired with hypoxemia. A high-pressure ventilator alarm, especially when accompanied by sudden restlessness, strongly suggests an acute airway obstruction. This is frequently caused by accumulated secretions or the client biting the endotracheal tube. Suctioning directly addresses the most imminent threat to the client's physiological integrity by clearing the airway, reducing resistance, and restoring adequate ventilation.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the arterial blood gas (ABG) results.
The pHpH is 7.297.29 (acidosis), PaCO2PaCO_2 is 5555 mm Hg (respiratory origin), and HCO3−HCO_3^- is 2525 mEq/L (normal), indicating uncompensated respiratory acidosis with hypoxemia.
Identifying the specific acid-base imbalance establishes the client's acute respiratory failure status.
2
Interpret the clinical signs alongside the ventilator alarm.
A high-pressure alarm combined with restlessness and hypoxia indicates increased airway resistance, most commonly caused by mucous plugs, secretions, or the client biting the tube.
Ventilator alarms require rapid bedside investigation to determine the physiological cause of the resistance.
3
Prioritize nursing interventions based on the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation).
Clearing the airway via suctioning is the most immediate life-saving action to restore ventilation.
Maintaining airway patency always supersedes administering medications for agitation or adjusting documentation.

Anahtar Kavram

Airway management and interpretation of mechanical ventilator alarms to prevent respiratory failure.
Soru 1698Soru →

A nurse is assessing a client who sustained a cervical spinal cord injury earlier in the day. The nurse should recognize which of the following assessment findings as physiological manifestations of neurogenic shock? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Heart rate of 54 beats per minute; Blood pressure of 84/48 mm Hg; Warm, flushed skin

Cevap

The correct findings are a heart rate of 54 beats per minute, a blood pressure of 84/48 mm Hg, and warm, flushed skin.
Neurogenic shock occurs when a spinal cord injury above T6 disrupts the sympathetic nervous system. The resulting loss of sympathetic tone causes massive peripheral vasodilation and an unopposed parasympathetic response. This unique physiological adaptation presents classically with hypotension, bradycardia, and warm, flushed skin.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's clinical condition and the nature of the injury.
The client has a cervical spinal cord injury, which places them at high risk for neurogenic shock.
Spinal cord injuries above T6 can disrupt the sympathetic nervous system pathways.
2
Identify the physiological mechanisms of neurogenic shock.
Loss of sympathetic tone leads to unopposed parasympathetic activity, causing massive vasodilation, pooling of blood, and decreased cardiac output.
Understanding the pathophysiology is necessary to anticipate the expected clinical signs.
3
Correlate the pathophysiology with vital sign changes and physical findings.
Vasodilation causes hypotension and warm skin, while unopposed parasympathetic tone causes bradycardia.
This differentiates neurogenic shock from hypovolemic shock, which typically presents with tachycardia and cool, clammy skin.

Anahtar Kavram

Neurogenic shock is a distributive shock caused by the loss of sympathetic nervous system tone following a high spinal cord injury, classically presenting with hypotension, bradycardia, and warm, flushed skin.
Tahmini Süre:1m 0s
Soru 1699Soru →

An adult client with a mechanical small bowel obstruction has been receiving continuous nasogastric (NG) decompression for the past 48 hours. The nurse evaluates the client's morning laboratory and arterial blood gas (ABG) results:

Potassium: 2.6 mEq/L (2.6 mmol/L)
pH: 7.53
PaCO2: 49 mm Hg
HCO3-: 35 mEq/L
PaO2: 88 mm Hg

The client is lethargic with a respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute and shallow chest excursion. To prevent immediate physiological decompensation, which intervention should the nurse prioritize?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Initiate continuous cardiac monitoring and request a prescription for intravenous potassium replacement.

Cevap

Initiate continuous cardiac monitoring and request a prescription for intravenous potassium replacement.
The client is experiencing metabolic alkalosis with compensatory respiratory acidosis (hypoventilation) and severe hypokalemia due to prolonged gastric suctioning. Hypokalemia (2.6 mEq/L) places the client at imminent risk for life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias. Initiating cardiac monitoring and replacing potassium addresses the most critical physiological threat, thereby reducing the risk of a fatal complication.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the ABG results.
pH is alkalotic (7.53), HCO3- is high (35 mEq/L), indicating metabolic alkalosis. PaCO2 is high (49 mm Hg), indicating partial respiratory compensation.
Understanding the acid-base imbalance directs the nurse to the physiological cause rather than misinterpreting the abnormal respiratory rate as primary lung failure.
2
Analyze the laboratory values in the context of the client's treatment.
Potassium is critically low at 2.6 mEq/L. Prolonged NG suction removes hydrochloric acid and potassium from the stomach, causing both the metabolic alkalosis and the hypokalemia.
Identifying the severe hypokalemia reveals the most imminent risk to the client's life.
3
Evaluate the respiratory assessment (lethargy, RR 10).
The hypoventilation is a deliberate compensatory mechanism by the body to retain acid (CO2) and balance the high blood pH.
Differentiating between compensatory hypoventilation and true respiratory failure prevents the nurse from implementing harmful interventions like forcing deep breaths.
4
Determine the priority intervention.
Cardiac monitoring and potassium replacement take absolute precedence to prevent fatal dysrhythmias.
Risk reduction requires addressing the most immediately lethal threat first, which in this scenario is the profound hypokalemia.

Anahtar Kavram

Complications of Gastric Decompression and Hypokalemia
Tahmini Süre:2m 0s
Soru 1700Soru →

A client in septic shock is receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of norepinephrine at 15 mcg/min15 \text{ mcg/min} through a single-lumen central venous catheter. The client's current mean arterial pressure (MAP) is 68 mmHg68 \text{ mmHg}. The healthcare provider prescribes an intermittent intravenous infusion of pantoprazole to be administered over 15 minutes15 \text{ minutes}. The nurse consults a drug reference and identifies that norepinephrine and pantoprazole are incompatible at the Y-site. Which action is the most appropriate for the nurse to take?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Establish a new peripheral intravenous access site to administer the pantoprazole.

Cevap

The most appropriate action is to establish a new peripheral intravenous access site to administer the pantoprazole.
Norepinephrine is a critical, life-sustaining vasopressor with a very short half-life of 1 to 2 minutes. When administering incompatible medications, the standard practice for a single-lumen catheter is to pause the primary fluid, flush the line, administer the new medication, and flush again. However, pausing a norepinephrine infusion for 15 minutes to infuse pantoprazole would cause a rapid, life-threatening drop in the client's blood pressure. Therefore, the safest and highest priority action is to establish a separate peripheral intravenous line.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's current clinical status and the medications involved.
The client is in septic shock, relying on a continuous norepinephrine infusion to maintain a viable MAP of 68 mmHg68 \text{ mmHg}.
Understanding the critical nature of the current therapy is essential for safe medication administration.
2
Evaluate the pharmacological properties of norepinephrine.
Norepinephrine is a vasopressor with an extremely short half-life (approximately 1 to 2 minutes).
The half-life dictates how the client's body will react if the infusion is interrupted.
3
Determine the safety of standard incompatibility protocols.
The standard 'flush-infuse-flush' method would require pausing the norepinephrine for over 15 minutes, which is contraindicated as it would cause profound hypotension.
Life-sustaining continuous infusions cannot be paused for intermittent medication delivery.
4
Select the safest alternative intervention.
Initiating a secondary peripheral IV access allows for the timely administration of pantoprazole without compromising the critical vasopressor infusion.
Provides a safe, dedicated route for incompatible medications.

Anahtar Kavram

Management of Incompatible IV Medications with Life-Sustaining Infusions
ÖncekiSayfa 85 / 98Sonraki
Physiological Integrity Alıştırma Soruları — NCLEX-RN — Sayfa 85 | Examkin