Physiological Integrity

1960 soru

Soru 1801Soru →

A client with a history of early-stage Alzheimer's disease is transferred to the medical unit immediately following a diagnostic lumbar puncture. The client appears highly restless, repeatedly attempts to sit up in bed, and reports generalized back discomfort. Which nursing intervention should be prioritized to promote client safety and comfort?

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Cevap: Maintain the client in a flat, supine position while minimizing environmental noise and providing a warm blanket.

Cevap

Maintain the client in a flat, supine position while minimizing environmental noise and providing a warm blanket.
Following a lumbar puncture, the standard of care requires the client to remain in a flat, supine position for several hours to minimize the risk of cerebrospinal fluid leakage and a subsequent spinal headache. Providing a warm blanket and reducing environmental noise are appropriate non-pharmacological comfort measures that can help decrease the client's restlessness safely without resorting to restraints or contraindicated positioning.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation and recent procedure.
The client recently underwent a lumbar puncture and is experiencing restlessness with back discomfort.
Identifying the specific procedure dictates the required post-operative positioning and helps anticipate potential complications.
2
Evaluate the proposed positioning and comfort interventions.
Supine positioning is required to prevent cerebrospinal fluid leakage; elevating the head of the bed increases the risk of a spinal headache and is contraindicated.
Post-procedure comfort measures must not compromise the physiological safety of the puncture site.
3
Assess the appropriateness of delegation and safety enforcement.
Assessments cannot be delegated to unlicensed assistive personnel, and restraints are inappropriate as a first-line intervention for restlessness.
Nursing actions must strictly adhere to the scope of practice and established least-restrictive restraint protocols.

Anahtar Kavram

Post-Lumbar Puncture Basic Care and Safety
Soru 1802Soru →

A 72-year-old client with a history of severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is evaluated in the emergency department for a suspected respiratory infection. The client appears increasingly restless. Current vital signs are: blood pressure 104/82 mm Hg104/82\text{ mm Hg}, heart rate 116 beats/min116\text{ beats/min}, respiratory rate 28 breaths/min28\text{ breaths/min}, temperature 101.8∘F101.8^\circ\text{F} (38.8∘C38.8^\circ\text{C}), and oxygen saturation 86%86\% on room air. To reduce the risk of further physiological decompensation, which of the following actions should the nurse include in the immediate plan of care? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

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Cevap: Administer a prescribed intravenous bolus of 0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride to restore vascular volume.; Administer prescribed intravenous broad-spectrum antibiotics immediately after obtaining blood cultures.; Apply supplemental oxygen using a Venturi mask to target an oxygen saturation of 88%88\% to 92%92\%.

Cevap

The correct actions are administering a prescribed intravenous fluid bolus, administering antibiotics after obtaining blood cultures, and applying precise oxygen via a Venturi mask.
The correct answers prioritize immediate stabilization of the client's airway, breathing, and circulation. Applying a Venturi mask targets safe oxygenation for a client with COPD. Isotonic fluid resuscitation and prompt antibiotic administration following blood cultures are critical early interventions to halt the progression of septic shock, which is indicated by the client's restlessness, tachycardia, and narrowing pulse pressure.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation and vital signs.
The client exhibits severe hypoxemia (SpO2SpO_2 86%86\%), tachypnea, tachycardia, and a narrowing pulse pressure (104/82 mm Hg104/82\text{ mm Hg}).
Identifying abnormal findings is necessary to determine the imminent risk of physiological decompensation.
2
Identify the underlying physiological risks.
The assessment data indicates acute respiratory failure complicated by early compensatory septic shock.
Accurate recognition of life-threatening conditions dictates the priority of nursing interventions.
3
Select interventions that safely address both respiratory failure and early shock.
Appropriate actions include administering controlled oxygen via a Venturi mask, initiating IV fluid resuscitation, and giving antibiotics after obtaining blood cultures.
These combined actions stabilize the cardiopulmonary system and treat the underlying infection without causing harm.

Anahtar Kavram

Early recognition and intervention for septic shock and severe hypoxemia in clients with chronic pulmonary conditions.
Tahmini Süre:2m 30s
Soru 1803Soru →

During morning rounds on a pulmonary step-down unit, a registered nurse reviews the latest laboratory results for a client with a long-standing history of severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The client is resting quietly in bed, oriented to person, place, and time, and breathing without the use of accessory muscles. The arterial blood gas (ABG) results on room air are as follows:

* pH: 7.36
* PaCO2: 58 mm Hg
* HCO3: 32 mEq/L
* PaO2: 63 mm Hg

Which of the following is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take based on these clinical findings?

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Cevap: Continue to closely monitor the client's vital signs and respiratory status.

Cevap

The most appropriate action is to continue to closely monitor the client's vital signs and respiratory status, as the assessment and laboratory findings indicate a stable, chronic baseline.
The client's ABG results demonstrate fully compensated respiratory acidosis, which is an expected baseline finding in severe COPD. The pH is within normal limits (7.35-7.45), while the elevated PaCO2 reflects chronic CO2 retention and the elevated HCO3 reflects the kidneys' metabolic compensation. Combined with a reassuring physical assessment (resting quietly, oriented, absent accessory muscle use), these findings do not indicate an acute deterioration. Therefore, maintaining current interventions and continuing to monitor the client is the safest and most appropriate action.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the arterial blood gas (ABG) pH value.
The pH is 7.36, which falls within the normal physiological range of 7.35 to 7.45.
Determining if the overall acid-base balance is normal, acidotic, or alkalotic is the first step in ABG interpretation.
2
Evaluate the PaCO2 and HCO3 values to determine the primary abnormality and any physiological compensation.
The PaCO2 is elevated at 58 mm Hg (normal 35-45 mm Hg), indicating respiratory acidosis. The HCO3 is correspondingly elevated at 32 mEq/L (normal 22-26 mEq/L), indicating renal compensation. Because the pH remains normal, this constitutes fully compensated respiratory acidosis.
Comparing CO2 and HCO3 to the pH identifies both the source of the acid-base imbalance and the body's compensatory mechanisms.
3
Assess the PaO2 value in the context of the client's medical history.
The PaO2 is 63 mm Hg. In severe COPD, a mildly to moderately low PaO2 is a common baseline finding due to chronic hypoxemia.
Understanding the client's chronic disease state is essential for determining if a physiological value represents an acute threat or a chronic adaptation.
4
Correlate the ABG results with the clinical presentation to formulate a nursing priority action.
The client is resting quietly, fully oriented, and breathing without accessory muscle use. The ABG values reflect a stable, fully compensated state.
Treating the client based on their clinical presentation in conjunction with laboratory data prevents unnecessary and potentially harmful overtreatment.

Anahtar Kavram

Fully Compensated Respiratory Acidosis in COPD
Soru 1804Soru →

During a shift assessment, a nurse is evaluating a hemodynamically unstable client who is receiving a continuous peripheral intravenous (IV) infusion of norepinephrine for septic shock. The client's current mean arterial pressure (MAP) is 6868 mm Hg. A stat order for IV push pantoprazole is received from the healthcare provider. The nurse consults a drug compatibility resource and notes that pantoprazole will precipitate if mixed with norepinephrine. The client currently has only one working IV access site. What is the most appropriate action by the nurse?

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Cevap: Establish a second peripheral IV access site to administer the pantoprazole independently.

Cevap

The correct action is to establish a second peripheral IV access site to administer the pantoprazole independently.
Norepinephrine is a critical, life-sustaining vasopressor used to maintain adequate perfusion in clients with shock. Pausing this continuous infusion, even briefly, can result in a precipitous and life-threatening drop in blood pressure. Because pantoprazole is physically incompatible with norepinephrine, they cannot be administered through the same intravenous line using a flush method. Therefore, the safest and most appropriate nursing action is to establish a second peripheral IV site to administer the stat medication without interrupting cardiovascular support.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the critical nature of the continuous infusion.
Norepinephrine is a life-sustaining vasopressor required to maintain the client's blood pressure and organ perfusion.
Interrupting a vasopressor in a client with septic shock can cause profound and immediate hypotension, violating basic airway, breathing, and circulation (ABC) priorities.
2
Evaluate the compatibility of the prescribed medications.
Pantoprazole and norepinephrine are physically incompatible.
Mixing physically incompatible medications in the same IV line can cause precipitation, leading to catheter occlusion or an embolus.
3
Determine the safest nursing intervention.
The nurse must establish a second IV access site.
This intervention allows the continuous life-sustaining infusion to remain uninterrupted while simultaneously safely administering the incompatible stat medication.

Anahtar Kavram

Safe administration of incompatible intravenous medications in hemodynamically unstable clients
Soru 1805Soru →

A nurse is caring for a client who underwent a coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery 6 hours ago. During the last 30 minutes, the nurse notes that the client's mediastinal chest tube drainage has abruptly decreased from 100 mL/hr to 5 mL/hr. The client's heart rate has increased from 90 to 128 beats/min, and blood pressure has changed from 120/78 mm Hg to 92/76 mm Hg. The nurse also observes distended neck veins while the head of the bed is elevated at 45 degrees. Which of the following physiological mechanisms is primarily responsible for this client's clinical presentation?

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Cevap: Accumulation of fluid in the pericardial space that restricts ventricular expansion during diastole, significantly reducing stroke volume.

Cevap

The client is experiencing cardiac tamponade, caused by the accumulation of fluid in the pericardial space that restricts ventricular expansion during diastole, significantly reducing stroke volume.
The client is exhibiting classic signs of cardiac tamponade (a form of obstructive shock) due to a clotted mediastinal chest tube. The abrupt cessation of drainage causes blood to accumulate in the non-yielding pericardial space. This external pressure compresses the heart chambers, severely restricting ventricular filling during diastole. Consequently, stroke volume drops, the sympathetic nervous system triggers tachycardia to compensate, and blood backing up into the venous system causes jugular venous distention. The narrowed pulse pressure (from 42 mm Hg to 16 mm Hg) is a hallmark physiological sign of this restricted cardiac output.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the change in the client's vital signs and physical assessment findings.
The client has developed tachycardia, hypotension, a very narrow pulse pressure (16 mm Hg), and jugular venous distention (JVD).
Identifying these classic hemodynamic indicators (Beck's triad) is the first step in differentiating the type of shock state.
2
Correlate the physical findings with the change in the medical equipment output.
The mediastinal chest tube abruptly stopped draining, strongly suggesting a clot blocking the tube.
Connecting the cessation of drainage with the rapid onset of shock symptoms confirms that blood is trapped inside the chest cavity rather than exiting the body.
3
Synthesize the data to identify the underlying physiological mechanism.
The trapped blood is accumulating in the pericardial sac, causing cardiac tamponade (obstructive shock).
The external pressure from the trapped blood physically prevents the heart ventricles from filling properly during diastole, causing blood to back up into the venous system (JVD) and cardiac output to plummet (narrowed pulse pressure).

Anahtar Kavram

Cardiac Tamponade (Obstructive Shock Pathophysiology)
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 1806Soru →

A client is receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of unfractionated heparin for the treatment of a pulmonary embolism. The client reports a new onset of dull, constant lower back pain. Assessment reveals a blood pressure of 106/72 mmHg (decreased from a baseline of 138/84 mmHg) and a heart rate of 114 beats/minute. Which action should the nurse take first?

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Cevap: Stop the continuous intravenous infusion of unfractionated heparin immediately.

Cevap

Stop the continuous intravenous infusion of unfractionated heparin immediately.
The client is demonstrating signs of a retroperitoneal hemorrhage, a potentially fatal complication of heparin therapy. The new onset of lower back pain, combined with a significant drop in blood pressure and the presence of tachycardia, are hallmark indicators of internal bleeding. The nurse's first and most critical action is to stop the heparin infusion to prevent further blood loss before notifying the provider, drawing labs, or preparing an antidote.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation.
The client has a new onset of lower back pain, tachycardia, and a significant drop in blood pressure from baseline while receiving a high-risk anticoagulant.
Identifying changes in condition is the first step in clinical judgment.
2
Correlate the symptoms with potential adverse effects of the medication.
Lower back pain combined with signs of early hypovolemic shock (tachycardia, decreasing blood pressure) strongly indicates retroperitoneal bleeding, a severe complication of heparin therapy.
Understanding life-threatening adverse reactions directs the prioritization of care.
3
Determine the highest priority nursing action.
The immediate action must address the active cause of the hemorrhage by stopping the heparin infusion.
Removing the offending pharmacological agent is the most critical intervention to stabilize the client and prevent further deterioration.

Anahtar Kavram

Recognition and immediate management of severe hemorrhagic complications (retroperitoneal bleeding) associated with continuous intravenous anticoagulant therapy.
Soru 1807Soru →

A nurse is preparing to administer an intermittent bolus enteral feeding via a nasogastric (NG) tube to a client. Arrange the following procedural steps in the correct chronological order from first to last.

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Cevap

The correct sequence for administering an intermittent bolus enteral feeding is to first elevate the head of the bed, followed by verifying tube placement and checking the gastric residual volume. Next, the nurse flushes the tube with water to confirm patency, administers the feeding formula by gravity, and concludes by flushing the tube again to prevent occlusion.
Safe administration of enteral feedings follows a strict sequential protocol. The client must first be positioned upright (30-45 degrees) to prevent aspiration. Once safely positioned, the nurse must confirm the tube is in the stomach and check residual volume to ensure tolerance. A pre-flush verifies patency. After patency is confirmed, the feeding is administered. Finally, a post-flush clears the tube to maintain future patency.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Position the client with the head of the bed elevated at least 30 to 45 degrees.
The client is in a semi-Fowler's or high-Fowler's position.
This utilizes gravity to keep gastric contents in the stomach and significantly reduces the risk of pulmonary aspiration.
2
Verify correct tube placement and assess gastric residual volume (GRV).
Tube location in the stomach is confirmed and feeding tolerance is established.
It is a critical safety measure to ensure the formula will not be delivered into the respiratory tract and to verify the client is digesting previous feedings.
3
Flush the tube with 30 mL of sterile water.
The tube's patency is confirmed.
This clears the tube and prepares it for the thicker feeding formula, ensuring there are no blockages.
4
Administer the enteral feeding formula by gravity.
The prescribed nutritional support is delivered.
Gravity allows the formula to flow at a safe, tolerated rate into the stomach.
5
Flush the tube with another 30 mL of sterile water.
The tube is cleared of any residual formula.
Formula left in the tube can coagulate, leading to blockages and bacterial proliferation.

Anahtar Kavram

Safe Enteral Nutrition Administration
Soru 1808Soru →

During morning rounds, the nurse assesses a client recovering from an anterior wall myocardial infarction sustained two days prior. The client suddenly expresses intense anxiety and a feeling of suffocation. Auscultation reveals bilateral basilar crackles, and the client's skin is cool and diaphoretic.

The most recent clinical parameters are as follows:

ParameterValue
Blood Pressure94/7894/78 mm Hg
Heart Rate118118 beats/min
Respiratory Rate2828 breaths/min
pH7.507.50
PaCO2PaCO_22828 mm Hg
PaO2PaO_25959 mm Hg
HCO3−HCO_3^-2222 mEq/L

Which of the following is the highest priority nursing intervention?

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Cevap: Elevate the head of the bed and apply supplemental oxygen.

Cevap

The correct response is to elevate the head of the bed and apply supplemental oxygen.
The client is experiencing acute pulmonary edema and early cardiogenic shock, as evidenced by the anterior myocardial infarction history, basilar crackles, narrow pulse pressure, and severe hypoxemia. The immediate priority is to support the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation). Elevating the head of the bed decreases venous return (preload) to the failing heart and maximizes lung expansion, while supplemental oxygen directly treats the life-threatening hypoxemia.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the clinical presentation and vital signs.
The client has crackles, cold/diaphoretic skin, tachycardia, and a narrow pulse pressure of 16 mm Hg following an anterior myocardial infarction.
To identify the underlying complication, which is cardiogenic shock and acute pulmonary edema.
2
Interpret the arterial blood gas values.
The ABG indicates uncompensated respiratory alkalosis secondary to severe hypoxemia, as evidenced by a PaO2 of 59 mm Hg.
To determine the client's respiratory status and recognize that the hyperventilation is driven by an urgent need for tissue oxygenation.
3
Prioritize nursing interventions using the ABC (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) framework.
Positioning the client upright and providing oxygen directly address the compromised breathing and profound hypoxemia.
Immediate stabilization of gas exchange is the highest life-saving priority before performing diagnostic tests or addressing other secondary symptoms.

Anahtar Kavram

Prioritization of care in cardiogenic shock and acute pulmonary edema requires immediate stabilization of airway and breathing through upright positioning and supplemental oxygen.
Soru 1809Soru →

A nurse is preparing to administer a prescribed intravenous (IV) push medication through a client's peripheral intermittent IV access device (saline lock). Arrange the following steps in the correct order from first to last.

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Cevap

The correct sequence is: perform hand hygiene, clean the injection port, aspirate and flush with saline to assess patency, administer the medication, and perform the final saline flush at the same rate as the medication administration.
The SAS (Saline-Administer-Saline) method is the standard protocol for administering an IV push medication through an intermittent saline lock. First, standard precautions (hand hygiene and gloves) are implemented. Next, the injection port is disinfected to prevent bloodstream infections. The nurse then checks patency by aspirating for blood and flushing with saline to ensure the line has not infiltrated. After verifying patency, the medication is administered at the prescribed rate. Finally, a second saline flush clears the medication from the tubing; crucially, this flush must be administered at the same rate as the medication to prevent rapidly bolusing the residual drug left in the extension tubing.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Perform hand hygiene and don clean gloves.
A barrier is created to prevent the transmission of microorganisms.
Standard precautions must be established before any patient contact or invasive vascular procedure.
2
Clean the injection port with an antimicrobial swab.
The surface of the injection port is disinfected.
Scrubbing the hub prevents the introduction of skin flora and pathogens into the bloodstream during vascular access.
3
Aspirate for blood return and flush the catheter with 0.9% sodium chloride.
The nurse verifies the line is patent and positioned correctly within the vein.
Administering medications into an infiltrated line can cause severe tissue damage, especially if the drug is a vesicant.
4
Administer the prescribed medication at the recommended rate.
The client receives the therapeutic dose of the medication safely.
Pushing medications too quickly can result in drug toxicity, speed shock, or profound adverse cardiovascular reactions.
5
Flush the IV catheter with 0.9% sodium chloride at the same rate as the medication.
The residual medication in the device is delivered to the client, and the catheter is cleared.
Flushing at the same rate prevents the remaining medication in the extension tubing from being pushed into the circulation as a rapid bolus.

Anahtar Kavram

Administration of an IV push medication through a peripheral intermittent lock requires the SAS (Saline-Administer-Saline) sequence to verify patency, deliver the medication safely, and maintain catheter function.
Soru 1810Soru →

A nurse is preparing to administer a large-volume cleansing enema to a client who is experiencing severe constipation following abdominal surgery. In what order should the nurse perform the following actions? Arrange the steps in the correct chronological sequence.

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Cevap

The correct sequence begins with positioning the client appropriately in the left lateral Sims position to utilize gravity, followed by lubricating the tubing tip. Next, the nurse carefully inserts the tubing directing it toward the umbilicus, then initiates the fluid flow by raising the container to the appropriate height. Finally, the nurse monitors the client's tolerance, clamping the tubing temporarily if cramping occurs.
This chronological sequence adheres to anatomical principles and safety guidelines for enema administration. Placing the client in the left lateral Sims position properly aligns the sigmoid colon. Lubricating the tubing prevents trauma, and directing it toward the umbilicus follows the bowel's natural contour. Raising the container only after safe insertion allows controlled fluid flow, and maintaining vigilance to clamp the tubing upon cramping prevents severe spasms.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Assist the client into the left lateral Sims position.
The client's anatomy is optimally aligned for the procedure.
This position takes advantage of gravity, directing fluid into the sigmoid and descending colon.
2
Lubricate the tip of the enema tubing.
The tubing is prepared for atraumatic insertion.
Water-soluble lubricant reduces friction and protects delicate rectal tissues.
3
Insert the tubing 3 to 4 inches into the rectum, aiming toward the umbilicus.
The tubing safely enters the bowel.
Aiming toward the umbilicus respects the natural anatomical curve of the rectum.
4
Raise the enema container and open the clamp.
The enema solution begins to infuse into the colon.
Elevating the bag 12 to 18 inches establishes a safe gravity-driven flow rate.
5
Clamp the tubing if cramping occurs.
The infusion pauses, allowing the client's colon to relax.
Temporary clamping prevents excessive bowel spasms, discomfort, and premature expulsion of the fluid.

Anahtar Kavram

Safe administration of a large-volume enema requires appropriate anatomical positioning, atraumatic insertion, and flow control to promote bowel evacuation while minimizing client discomfort.
Soru 1811Soru →

A 28-year-old client is being monitored on the medical-surgical unit 4 hours after an open splenectomy following a motor vehicle collision. The nurse compares the current assessment findings with the baseline taken one hour ago:

Baseline (1 hour ago): Blood pressure 126/78 mm Hg, heart rate 88 bpm, respiratory rate 16 breaths/min.
Current: Blood pressure 114/82 mm Hg, heart rate 106 bpm, respiratory rate 22 breaths/min.

The client's urine output for the past hour was 25 mL. Based on these findings, which action should the nurse take first?

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Cevap: Assess the abdominal dressing and incision site for evidence of active bleeding.

Cevap

The nurse should first assess the abdominal dressing and incision site for evidence of active bleeding.
The client is exhibiting subtle but classic early signs of hypovolemic (hemorrhagic) shock: a narrowing pulse pressure (48 mm Hg down to 32 mm Hg), mild tachycardia, tachypnea, and decreased urine output. Because the client had major abdominal surgery involving a highly vascular organ, internal or external hemorrhage is a significant risk. Using the nursing process, the nurse must first assess the surgical site and abdomen for signs of bleeding to provide accurate clinical data to the healthcare provider for immediate intervention.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the vital sign trends to identify physiological status.
The client has a narrowing pulse pressure (from 48 to 32 mm Hg), tachycardia, tachypnea, and oliguria (less than 30 mL/hr).
Comparing baseline to current data is essential to detect early physiological decompensation.
2
Correlate the findings with the client's surgical history.
The client is at high risk for hemorrhage following an open splenectomy.
Highly vascular organs like the spleen present a significant risk for postoperative bleeding.
3
Determine the priority nursing action based on the nursing process.
The nurse must gather more specific assessment data about the surgical site before calling the provider or initiating new treatments.
Assessment is the first step of the nursing process; identifying the potential source of bleeding directs subsequent medical and nursing interventions.

Anahtar Kavram

Early recognition of hypovolemic shock and prioritization of nursing assessments
Soru 1812Soru →

An emergency department nurse receives a client who sustained a C5 spinal cord injury from a diving accident earlier in the day. The healthcare team is monitoring for the development of neurogenic shock. Which assessment findings should the nurse recognize as indicating the onset of this specific complication? Select all that apply.

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

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Cevap: Apical heart rate of 48 beats/min; Blood pressure of 82/44 mm Hg; Flushed, warm skin below the level of injury

Cevap

The assessment findings indicating neurogenic shock are an apical heart rate of 48 beats/min, a blood pressure of 82/44 mm Hg, and flushed, warm skin below the level of injury.
Neurogenic shock occurs when a spinal cord injury above T6 disrupts the sympathetic nervous system. This loss of sympathetic tone causes massive peripheral vasodilation (resulting in severe hypotension and warm, flushed skin) and leaves the parasympathetic nervous system unopposed (resulting in bradycardia). Therefore, a low heart rate, low blood pressure, and warm skin below the level of injury are the classic indicators.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's history and current risk factors.
The client has a C5 spinal cord injury, which places them at high risk for neurogenic shock due to the potential disruption of sympathetic nervous system pathways.
Understanding the mechanism of injury helps anticipate specific physiological complications.
2
Differentiate the pathophysiology of neurogenic shock from other types of shock.
Neurogenic shock is a distributive shock characterized by a loss of sympathetic tone, leading to massive vasodilation and unopposed parasympathetic response (bradycardia), unlike hypovolemic shock which involves compensatory vasoconstriction and tachycardia.
Accurate identification relies on recognizing the unique hemodynamic profile of neurogenic shock.
3
Evaluate each assessment finding against the expected manifestations of neurogenic shock.
Bradycardia, hypotension, and initially warm/flushed skin match the vasodilation and parasympathetic dominance of neurogenic shock. Tachycardia, cool/clammy skin, and narrowing pulse pressure are signs of compensatory sympathetic activity seen in other shock states.
This confirms which clinical signs indicate the onset of this specific complication.

Anahtar Kavram

Neurogenic shock uniquely presents with hypotension, bradycardia, and initially warm/dry skin due to the loss of sympathetic tone and resulting massive vasodilation.
Soru 1813Soru →

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving an infusion of packed red blood cells (PRBCs). Fifteen minutes after the transfusion is initiated, the client develops sudden chills, lower back pain, and a heart rate of 118 beats/min. Place the following nursing interventions in the correct order to reduce the risk of further physiological deterioration. (Arrange the steps from first action to last action)

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Cevap

The correct sequence is to first stop the transfusion, replace the tubing to infuse normal saline, assess the client, notify the provider and blood bank, and finally return the blood product and equipment.
When an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction is suspected (indicated by lower back pain, chills, and tachycardia), the overriding priority to reduce risk is to stop the offending agent. Immediately stopping the transfusion limits the amount of incompatible blood received. The nurse must then maintain IV access for emergency drugs, but must do so by disconnecting the blood tubing at the hub and attaching new tubing primed with normal saline to avoid pushing residual blood into the client. Assessing the client's vital signs and respiratory status follows to determine the extent of physiological decompensation. The healthcare provider and blood bank are then notified so orders can be received and the facility's reaction protocol can be initiated. Finally, the blood bag and tubing are sent to the blood bank for crossmatch re-testing.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Stop the transfusion
Halts the infusion of the incompatible blood product.
Reduces the total volume of reactive blood cells entering the circulation, mitigating the severity of the reaction.
2
Replace tubing and infuse normal saline
Maintains intravenous access without infusing residual blood.
Ensures a patent line for emergency medications while preventing the incompatible blood in the original tubing from entering the client.
3
Assess the client
Establishes current physiological status.
Provides critical clinical data to report to the provider and determines the immediate need for airway support or hemodynamic interventions.
4
Notify provider and blood bank
Mobilizes the medical team and initiates laboratory investigation.
Allows for the prescription of emergency medications and alerts the lab to a potential systemic typing error.
5
Return equipment to blood bank
Provides materials for analysis.
Enables the laboratory to determine the exact cause of the reaction (e.g., clerical error, unexpected antibody) by re-testing the original product.

Anahtar Kavram

Management of acute hemolytic transfusion reactions
Soru 1814Soru →

A client is admitted to the intensive care unit with severe diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). The initial blood glucose level is 680 mg/dL, and the client exhibits Kussmaul respirations. The nurse prepares to implement the standard DKA treatment protocol. Arrange the following nursing actions in the correct chronological sequence from first to last.

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Cevap

The correct sequence is: 1) Establish IV access and infuse normal saline, 2) Verify serum potassium, 3) Initiate IV regular insulin, 4) Add 5% dextrose to fluids.
The standard protocol for diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) prioritizes life-threatening deficits in a specific order: volume, electrolytes, and then glucose/acidosis correction. Fluid resuscitation is the absolute first priority to reverse hypovolemia. Next, potassium must be checked because insulin therapy will push potassium intracellularly, risking fatal hypokalemia. Only after verifying potassium can insulin be safely administered. Finally, dextrose is added when glucose reaches 250 mg/dL to prevent hypoglycemia and cerebral edema.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Address hypovolemia
Infuse 0.9% sodium chloride bolus
Osmotic diuresis in DKA causes severe fluid depletion; restoring intravascular volume and perfusion is the absolute first step.
2
Evaluate electrolyte status
Verify serum potassium level
Insulin therapy lowers serum potassium by shifting it intracellularly. Administering insulin to a hypokalemic client can cause fatal arrhythmias, so potassium must be checked first.
3
Correct hyperglycemia and acidosis
Initiate continuous IV regular insulin
Once perfusion is stabilizing and potassium is safe, continuous insulin is required to stop lipolysis, halt ketone production, and normalize blood glucose.
4
Prevent complications of rapid glucose drop
Add 5% dextrose to IV fluids
When blood glucose drops to 250 mg/dL, dextrose is added to prevent sudden hypoglycemia and shifts in osmolality that can cause cerebral edema.

Anahtar Kavram

The primary management sequence for Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA) prioritizes volume expansion first, followed by electrolyte evaluation, insulin administration, and finally glucose stabilization to prevent cerebral edema.
Soru 1815Soru →

A nurse is providing care for an older adult client who has just returned to the medical-surgical unit following a percutaneous liver biopsy. The client reports mild abdominal discomfort. During the initial interaction, the nurse observes that the client has developed sudden, new-onset confusion. Which nursing action is most appropriate?

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Cevap: Position the client on their right side with a small pillow under the costal margin and immediately obtain a full set of vital signs.

Cevap

Position the client on their right side with a small pillow under the costal margin and immediately obtain a full set of vital signs.
Positioning the client on the right side applies direct pressure to the liver capsule, promoting hemostasis and preventing hemorrhage. Additionally, sudden confusion is a potential early indicator of hemorrhagic shock or hypoxia, making immediate vital sign assessment critical.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the procedure performed and its specific post-procedure positioning requirements.
The client had a percutaneous liver biopsy. The liver is highly vascular and located on the right side.
Direct pressure is required to prevent hemorrhage. The right side-lying (lateral decubitus) position uses the client's body weight to apply this pressure against the liver capsule.
2
Evaluate the clinical significance of the new-onset confusion.
Sudden confusion is an abnormal finding that suggests altered cerebral perfusion.
In the context of a highly vascular procedure, confusion is an early sign of hemorrhagic shock and requires immediate vital sign assessment by the registered nurse.
3
Synthesize the appropriate interventions into a prioritized nursing action.
The nurse must safely position the client to prevent further bleeding while simultaneously assessing physiological stability.
Combining proper positioning with immediate assessment addresses both basic care and acute safety needs.

Anahtar Kavram

Post-procedure care and positioning following a liver biopsy, along with the recognition of early signs of hemorrhage.
Soru 1816Soru →

A client with end-stage renal disease is recovering in the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU) 22 hours after the surgical creation of a left upper extremity arteriovenous (AV) fistula. The client suddenly reports profound weakness. The nurse notes deep, rapid respirations at 3232 breaths/minute. STAT laboratory results reveal a serum potassium of 6.86.8 mEq/L and an arterial blood gas (ABG) showing pH 7.207.20, PaCO 2_2 2929 mm Hg, and HCO 3−_3^- 1010 mEq/L. Which of the following actions should the nurse prioritize to mitigate the highest risk of mortality for this client?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Initiate continuous electrocardiographic monitoring and prepare to administer intravenous calcium gluconate.

Cevap

The nurse must prioritize stabilizing the myocardial cell membrane to prevent fatal arrhythmias caused by critical hyperkalemia, which is achieved through continuous cardiac monitoring and the administration of intravenous calcium gluconate.
The client's serum potassium level of 6.8 mEq/L constitutes a medical emergency due to the high risk of fatal cardiac arrhythmias. The absolute priority is to stabilize the myocardial cell membrane with intravenous calcium gluconate while initiating continuous cardiac monitoring. The ABG results and Kussmaul respirations reflect a partially compensated metabolic acidosis typical of end-stage renal disease, which is secondary in acute lethality to the severe hyperkalemia.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the laboratory results to identify the most life-threatening abnormality.
The serum potassium level of 6.8 mEq/L indicates severe, life-threatening hyperkalemia.
Hyperkalemia at this critical level poses an immediate risk for fatal cardiac arrhythmias, such as ventricular fibrillation or asystole.
2
Analyze the arterial blood gas (ABG) results and respiratory pattern.
The ABG shows a primary metabolic acidosis (low pH, low HCO3-) with partial respiratory compensation (low PaCO2), evidenced by the client's Kussmaul respirations.
The deep, rapid breathing is a necessary compensatory mechanism to expel carbon dioxide and should not be suppressed.
3
Determine the priority nursing intervention based on the identified risks.
The priority action is to address the severe hyperkalemia by initiating electrocardiographic monitoring and administering calcium gluconate.
While metabolic acidosis is present, the immediate threat to life is cardiac arrest from hyperkalemia. Calcium gluconate acts rapidly to stabilize the resting membrane potential of the myocardium.

Anahtar Kavram

Prioritization of care in severe hyperkalemia and interpretation of compensatory Kussmaul respirations in metabolic acidosis.
Soru 1817Soru →

A nurse in the emergency department is caring for a client admitted with a severe asthma exacerbation. The client exhibits audible wheezing, intercostal retractions, and an oxygen saturation of 88% on room air. Arrange the following nursing actions in the correct order of priority from first to last.

Öğeleri doğru sıraya koymak için sürükleyin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

The correct sequence is to first position the client upright, apply supplemental oxygen, administer nebulized albuterol, establish IV access, and finally administer intravenous methylprednisolone.
The correct sequence adheres to the ABC prioritization framework and the principle of least invasive to most invasive interventions. Positioning immediately addresses airway mechanics (Airway). Oxygen administration directly treats life-threatening hypoxia (Breathing). Nebulized albuterol resolves the acute bronchospasm causing the distress (Breathing). IV access secures a route for circulation-level interventions (Circulation), allowing the administration of systemic corticosteroids, which take hours to act and are therefore the lowest immediate priority.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Elevate the head of the bed to a high Fowler's position.
The diaphragm drops and lung expansion is physically maximized.
This is the fastest, least invasive action to immediately support airway mechanics without requiring any equipment.
2
Administer supplemental oxygen.
Life-threatening hypoxemia is corrected.
An oxygen saturation of 88% indicates severe hypoxia that takes precedence over pharmacological interventions according to the ABCs.
3
Administer nebulized short-acting bronchodilators.
Bronchospasm is rapidly reversed.
Airway smooth muscle relaxation is required immediately after securing oxygenation to allow gas exchange at the alveolar level.
4
Establish peripheral IV access.
A route for systemic medications is secured.
IV access is necessary for further systemic treatment but is an invasive procedure that should not delay immediate airway and breathing support.
5
Administer IV corticosteroids.
Systemic inflammation is targeted.
Steroids have a delayed onset of action (hours) and are therefore prioritized last among these acute, emergent interventions.

Anahtar Kavram

In acute respiratory distress, nursing prioritization follows the ABC (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) framework, initiating the fastest and most direct non-pharmacological interventions before progressing to pharmacological and systemic treatments.
Soru 1818Soru →

An emergency department nurse receives a client with end-stage renal disease who has missed three consecutive hemodialysis sessions. The client is profoundly lethargic and reports severe, generalized muscle weakness. Assessment reveals a blood pressure of 110/60 mm Hg, heart rate of 48 bpm, and respiratory rate of 24 bpm. Telemetry monitoring shows sinus bradycardia with tall, peaked T waves and significantly widened QRS complexes. Arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis indicates a pH of 7.26, PaCO2 of 31 mm Hg, PaO2 of 94 mm Hg, and HCO3 of 15 mEq/L. Which prescribed intervention should the nurse implement FIRST?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Administer intravenous calcium gluconate.

Cevap

The correct intervention is to administer intravenous calcium gluconate to immediately stabilize the myocardial resting membrane potential.
Intravenous calcium gluconate is the absolute priority intervention for a client with severe hyperkalemia manifesting with significant electrocardiogram (ECG) changes, such as widened QRS complexes or a sine wave pattern. Calcium does not lower the serum potassium level; instead, it immediately raises the threshold potential of cardiac myocytes. This stabilizes the resting membrane potential and antagonizes the cardiotoxic effects of hyperkalemia, thereby preventing lethal arrhythmias like ventricular fibrillation or asystole. Once the myocardium is protected, the nurse can subsequently administer potassium-shifting agents (like insulin and dextrose) and prepare for potassium-removing therapies (like hemodialysis).

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation and laboratory data.
The client exhibits signs of severe hyperkalemia (missed dialysis, muscle weakness, bradycardia, peaked T waves, and widened QRS complexes) alongside a partially compensated metabolic acidosis.
Recognizing the underlying physiological disturbances is essential for prioritizing care in an emergency.
2
Identify the most immediate life-threatening condition.
The significantly widened QRS complexes indicate that the hyperkalemia has progressed to a state of severe myocardial instability, risking imminent ventricular fibrillation or asystole.
According to prioritization principles, imminent threats to circulation and cardiac function must be addressed before correcting other physiological imbalances.
3
Determine the primary mechanism and onset of action for the available interventions.
Calcium gluconate acts immediately to stabilize the cardiac membrane, whereas insulin/dextrose and sodium bicarbonate shift potassium intracellularly over a longer period, and hemodialysis requires significant preparation time.
Pharmacological intervention must match the extreme urgency of the physiological threat.
4
Select the priority intervention.
Intravenous calcium gluconate is administered first to protect the heart.
Myocardial stabilization is a strict prerequisite to allow time for subsequent potassium-lowering therapies to take effect.

Anahtar Kavram

Prioritization of care in severe hyperkalemia: Immediate myocardial stabilization with calcium gluconate precedes potassium-lowering therapies when severe electrocardiogram changes are present.
Soru 1819Soru →

A nurse is preparing to administer a prescribed intermittent intravenous (IV) infusion of amphotericin B deoxycholate. The medication is provided by the pharmacy in a 250 mL bag of 5% dextrose in water (D5W). The client currently has a single peripheral IV line with a continuous infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride (normal saline). Which of the following actions is most appropriate for the nurse to take?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Pause the normal saline infusion, flush the IV line with D5W, infuse the amphotericin B, and flush the line again with D5W before restarting the normal saline.

Cevap

The nurse must pause the normal saline, flush the IV line with D5W, infuse the amphotericin B, and then flush again with D5W before restarting the normal saline.
Amphotericin B is highly incompatible with any solution containing sodium chloride. Contact between amphotericin B and normal saline will cause the medication to precipitate (crystallize), which can lead to catheter occlusion or an embolic event if the precipitate enters the bloodstream. Because the client has a continuous normal saline infusion running through a single IV access line, the nurse must completely clear the tubing of saline before the medication reaches it. This is safely achieved by pausing the saline, flushing the line with a chemically compatible solution (5% dextrose in water, or D5W), administering the medication, and then flushing again with D5W to ensure the line is entirely clear of the drug before restarting the normal saline.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Verify IV fluid compatibility between the prescribed intermittent medication and the primary continuous IV fluids.
The nurse identifies that amphotericin B deoxycholate is strictly incompatible with 0.9% sodium chloride (normal saline).
Mixing incompatible fluids in the same IV tubing can cause precipitation, which can occlude the catheter or cause a life-threatening embolism.
2
Determine the appropriate flush solution and sequential administration protocol.
The nurse selects 5% dextrose in water (D5W) as the compatible flush solution because amphotericin B is chemically stable in dextrose.
Unlike most medications that use normal saline as a universal flush, amphotericin B requires D5W to prevent crystallization.
3
Execute the administration sequence.
The nurse pauses the normal saline, flushes with D5W, administers the medication, flushes again with D5W, and finally restarts the saline.
This specific sequence creates a 'barrier' of D5W that ensures the medication never physically contacts the incompatible normal saline in the tubing.

Anahtar Kavram

Amphotericin B is strictly incompatible with saline solutions and must be diluted, infused, and flushed exclusively with 5% dextrose in water (D5W).
Soru 1820Soru →

A postoperative client on the surgical unit suddenly develops acute shortness of breath and pleuritic chest discomfort 36 hours after bariatric surgery. Clinical assessment reveals tachypnea at 32 breaths per minute, tachycardia at 115 beats per minute, and an oxygen saturation of 87%87\% on room air. Arterial blood gas analysis displays a pH of 7.547.54, a PaCO2PaCO_2 of 29 mm Hg29\text{ mm Hg}, a PaO2PaO_2 of 55 mm Hg55\text{ mm Hg}, and an HCO3−HCO_3^- of 22 mEq/L22\text{ mEq/L}. Based on these findings, what is the priority nursing intervention to mitigate the risk of further physiological decline?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Initiate supplemental oxygen therapy and immediately activate the rapid response team

Cevap

Initiate supplemental oxygen therapy and immediately activate the rapid response team.
The client's clinical presentation and arterial blood gas results indicate severe hypoxemia causing compensatory hyperventilation (respiratory alkalosis). This constellation of findings in a postoperative client is highly suspicious for a pulmonary embolism. Applying the Airway-Breathing-Circulation prioritization framework, the immediate priority is to correct the life-threatening oxygen deficit and escalate care to prevent cardiopulmonary collapse.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's vital signs and clinical presentation.
The client presents with sudden dyspnea, pleuritic chest pain, tachycardia, and significant hypoxia, which are highly suspicious for an acute pulmonary embolism.
Identifying the underlying clinical emergency dictates the immediate priority of nursing care.
2
Interpret the arterial blood gas (ABG) values.
The ABG reveals uncompensated respiratory alkalosis (pH 7.54, PaCO2 29 mm Hg) driven by severe hypoxemia (PaO2 55 mm Hg).
Understanding the primary cause of the acid-base imbalance ensures interventions target the root physiological problem rather than just secondary symptoms.
3
Determine the priority intervention based on the Airway-Breathing-Circulation (ABC) framework.
Providing immediate supplemental oxygen and escalating care via the rapid response team is required.
Severe hypoxemia is the most immediate threat to the client's life and must be addressed prior to managing secondary issues like pain or anxiety.

Anahtar Kavram

Reduction of Risk Potential via early recognition of critical diagnostic data and immediate intervention for suspected pulmonary embolism.
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Physiological Integrity Alıştırma Soruları — NCLEX-RN — Sayfa 91 | Examkin