Physiological Integrity

1960 soru

Soru 1781Soru →

A nurse is assessing a client with a severe traumatic brain injury and notes a sudden, profound decline in the level of consciousness. The client's vital signs are heart rate 44 beats/min, blood pressure 196/60 mm Hg, and irregular, shallow respirations. The nurse immediately calls out for emergency assistance. Arrange the following subsequent nursing actions in the priority order they should be performed.

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Cevap

The correct sequence is: Assess airway/oxygenation, elevate the head of the bed, notify the healthcare provider, administer an osmotic diuretic, and finally prepare for a CT scan.
In any acute neurological crisis involving Cushing's triad (bradycardia, widened pulse pressure/hypertension, and irregular respirations), the client is at imminent risk of brainstem herniation. The nurse must follow the ABCs, prioritizing airway and oxygenation to prevent hypercapnia-induced vasodilation. Next, the nurse performs the immediate independent intervention of elevating the head of the bed and maintaining neutral neck alignment to promote venous drainage. After stabilizing the client with these immediate actions, the nurse notifies the healthcare provider to obtain stat orders. Dependent interventions, such as administering osmotic diuretics (mannitol), are then implemented based on these orders. Finally, once initial medical stabilization is achieved, the client is transported for diagnostic imaging (CT scan) to determine the need for surgical decompression.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Assess airway patency and administer high-flow supplemental oxygen.
Hypoxia and hypercapnia are prevented or corrected.
Airway and breathing are the absolute highest priorities. Hypercapnia causes cerebral vasodilation, which exponentially increases intracranial pressure.
2
Elevate the head of the bed to 30 degrees and ensure neutral neck alignment.
Cerebral venous outflow is optimized.
This is a rapid, independent nursing action that facilitates jugular venous drainage, thereby directly lowering intracranial pressure.
3
Notify the neurosurgical healthcare provider of the vital sign changes.
The medical provider is informed of the emergent clinical deterioration.
Cushing's triad indicates imminent brainstem herniation. After securing the ABCs and optimal positioning, the nurse must obtain stat medical orders for further intervention.
4
Ensure intravenous access and administer a prescribed osmotic diuretic.
Fluid is drawn from the cerebral tissue into the vascular space.
Osmotic diuretics like mannitol are dependent interventions that require a provider order to aggressively reduce cerebral edema.
5
Prepare and accompany the client for an emergent computed tomography (CT) scan.
Diagnostic imaging is obtained to identify the cause of the elevated ICP.
Once the client is medically stabilized, identifying the structural cause (e.g., hemorrhage expansion) is required to determine if surgical decompression is necessary.

Anahtar Kavram

Prioritization in the management of increased intracranial pressure (Cushing's Triad)
Tahmini Süre:2m 0s
Soru 1782Soru →

A 28-year-old client is receiving a continuous intravenous (IV) infusion of regular insulin for the treatment of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). The most recent laboratory results reveal a serum glucose of 240 mg/dL240\text{ mg/dL} (13.3 mmol/L13.3\text{ mmol/L}), serum potassium of 3.2 mEq/L3.2\text{ mEq/L} (3.2 mmol/L3.2\text{ mmol/L}), and an arterial blood gas (ABG) pH of 7.287.28. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to reduce the client's risk for physiological complications? Select all that apply.

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Cevap: Initiate a prescribed intravenous fluid containing 5% dextrose.; Contact the healthcare provider to add potassium to the maintenance intravenous fluids.; Monitor the client's continuous electrocardiogram (ECG) for the development of prominent U waves.

Cevap

The nurse should initiate an intravenous fluid with 5% dextrose, request potassium to be added to the maintenance fluids, and monitor the continuous ECG for prominent U waves.
Appropriate risk reduction in DKA involves anticipating the physiological shifts caused by insulin therapy. Adding 5% dextrose prevents hypoglycemia as blood glucose approaches 250 mg/dL250\text{ mg/dL}. Identifying hypokalemia (3.2 mEq/L3.2\text{ mEq/L}) requires immediate potassium supplementation and vigilant continuous ECG monitoring for classical signs of hypokalemia, such as prominent U waves.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the serum glucose level.
The glucose has reached 240 mg/dL240\text{ mg/dL} (13.3 mmol/L13.3\text{ mmol/L}).
When blood glucose drops below 250 mg/dL250\text{ mg/dL} in DKA, dextrose must be added to IV fluids to prevent hypoglycemia during continued insulin administration.
2
Analyze the serum potassium level and continuous insulin infusion.
The potassium is low at 3.2 mEq/L3.2\text{ mEq/L}.
Insulin shifts potassium into the cells. Because the level is already low, potassium replacement is required to prevent fatal arrhythmias like ventricular tachycardia.
3
Analyze the ABG pH and evaluate the need for bicarbonate or pausing insulin.
The pH is 7.287.28, indicating ongoing metabolic acidosis.
Because the client is still acidotic, the insulin drip must not be stopped. Furthermore, a pH of 7.287.28 is not low enough to warrant sodium bicarbonate, which is typically reserved for pH less than 6.96.9.

Anahtar Kavram

In diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), when serum glucose reaches approximately 250 mg/dL, intravenous dextrose is added to prevent hypoglycemia while insulin continues to resolve the acidosis. Concurrent potassium replacement and continuous cardiac monitoring are critical due to insulin-induced intracellular potassium shifts.
Soru 1783Soru →

A nurse is preparing to discontinue a client's non-tunneled central venous catheter (CVC) located in the right subclavian vein. To minimize the risk of a potential air embolism, arrange the following nursing actions in the correct physiological sequence. (Place the first action at the top and the final action at the bottom.)

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1. Position the client flat in bed (supine) or in a slight Trendelenburg position.
2. Instruct the client to take a deep breath and bear down (Valsalva maneuver).
3. Withdraw the catheter smoothly and continuously while the client bears down.
4. Apply immediate, firm pressure to the insertion site using sterile gauze.
5. Apply a sterile, occlusive dressing over the site.
Removing a central venous catheter carries a high risk of an air embolism, which can be fatal. The nurse must systematically manipulate pressure gradients to keep air out of the venous system. First, placing the client supine or in Trendelenburg increases central venous pressure at the site. Second, instructing the client to bear down (the Valsalva maneuver) creates positive intrathoracic pressure. Third, actually removing the catheter during this positive pressure phase ensures air cannot enter the exposed tract. Fourth, applying immediate manual pressure physically seals the tract and achieves hemostasis. Finally, securing an occlusive (air-tight) dressing provides a long-term barrier against air entry while the skin and venous tract heal over the subsequent days.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Ensure the client is in a supine or slight Trendelenburg position.
The insertion site is positioned below or at the level of the heart.
This increases central venous pressure and reduces the immediate risk of an air embolism.
2
Ask the client to perform the Valsalva maneuver.
Intrathoracic pressure momentarily spikes.
This creates positive pressure inside the vessel, preventing outside air from being sucked in when the catheter is removed.
3
Remove the central venous catheter.
The catheter is fully withdrawn from the subclavian vein.
This is performed during the Valsalva maneuver to ensure continuous positive intrathoracic pressure during the vulnerable moment of removal.
4
Apply immediate pressure with sterile gauze.
Bleeding is controlled and the tract is physically sealed.
Immediate pressure prevents air from entering the open tract before a permanent dressing is applied.
5
Secure a sterile, occlusive dressing.
The site is sealed airtight.
An occlusive dressing blocks air from entering the healing tract over the next 24 to 72 hours.

Anahtar Kavram

Central Venous Catheter Removal and Air Embolism Prevention
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 1784Soru →

A nurse is caring for a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) who is orally intubated and receiving mechanical ventilation. The ventilator is set with a fraction of inspired oxygen (FiO2FiO_2) of 0.60 and a positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) of 12 cm H2OH_2O. The most recent arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis indicates a pHpH of 7.28, PaCO2PaCO_2 of 58 mm Hg, HCO3−HCO_3^- of 26 mEq/L, and PaO2PaO_2 of 52 mm Hg. Suddenly, the client becomes severely agitated, begins "bucking" the ventilator, and the high-peak pressure alarm sounds continuously. To reduce the immediate risk of barotrauma and physiological decompensation, which of the following actions should the nurse perform first?

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Cevap: Administer the prescribed intravenous sedative to promote ventilator synchrony and reduce oxygen demand.

Cevap

The priority action is to administer a prescribed intravenous sedative to promote ventilator synchrony and reduce oxygen demand.
The client is experiencing ventilator asynchrony ('bucking'), which dramatically increases intrathoracic pressure and the risk of barotrauma, especially with a high PEEP of 12 cm H2OH_2O. The ABG reveals uncompensated respiratory acidosis with severe hypoxemia. The immediate priority is to administer a prescribed sedative to calm the client, synchronize their breathing with the ventilator, and decrease systemic oxygen consumption, thereby mitigating the risk of pneumothorax and further physiological decline.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the clinical presentation and ventilator data.
The client is 'bucking' the ventilator with a high PEEP (12 cm H2OH_2O), creating dangerously high intrathoracic pressure that triggers the high-peak pressure alarm.
Identifying the immediate mechanical threat is necessary to prevent severe barotrauma such as a tension pneumothorax.
2
Interpret the arterial blood gas (ABG) values.
The pHpH is 7.28 (acidosis), PaCO2PaCO_2 is 58 mm Hg (respiratory acidosis), and HCO3−HCO_3^- is 26 mEq/L (normal). This indicates uncompensated respiratory acidosis with severe hypoxemia (PaO2PaO_2 52 mm Hg).
Accurate ABG interpretation rules out metabolic causes and confirms the respiratory failure is worsening due to inadequate ventilation.
3
Select the priority intervention that mitigates the highest risk.
Administering a sedative will calm the client, stop the 'bucking', allow the ventilator to deliver the prescribed tidal volumes, and decrease systemic oxygen consumption.
In the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation), restoring effective mechanical ventilation (Breathing) is the immediate life-saving priority over routine assessments or contraindicated positioning.

Anahtar Kavram

In mechanically ventilated clients with ARDS and high PEEP, sudden agitation and ventilator asynchrony ('bucking') pose an immediate risk for life-threatening barotrauma. Priority risk reduction involves securing synchrony, typically via sedation, rather than delaying care for sequential assessments or misinterpreting ABG data.
Soru 1785Soru →

An unresponsive client with a known history of severe hypothyroidism is brought to the emergency department by paramedics. Initial assessment reveals a core body temperature of 94.2°F (34.6°C), a heart rate of 46/min, a blood pressure of 80/48 mm Hg, and shallow respirations at 8/min. Arterial blood gas analysis demonstrates a pH of 7.24, PaCO2 of 58 mm Hg, HCO3 of 24 mEq/L, and PaO2 of 62 mm Hg. Which of the following is the priority nursing action?

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Cevap: Prepare the client for immediate endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation

Cevap

Prepare the client for immediate endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation
The correct action is to prepare the client for immediate endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation. The client is experiencing myxedema coma characterized by severe respiratory depression (respiratory rate of 8/min). The ABG reveals uncompensated respiratory acidosis (pH 7.24, PaCO2 58 mm Hg) and hypoxemia. Following the ABCs of nursing prioritization, securing the airway and restoring adequate ventilation is the absolute highest priority to prevent cardiopulmonary arrest.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Interpret the physical assessment findings and vital signs.
The client exhibits profound bradycardia, hypotension, hypothermia, and hypoventilation, indicative of a life-threatening myxedema coma.
Recognizing the systemic decompensation directs the urgency of the clinical response.
2
Analyze the arterial blood gas (ABG) results.
The ABG shows a pH of 7.24 (acidosis), PaCO2 of 58 mm Hg (respiratory origin), and normal HCO3 (uncompensated), diagnosing acute respiratory failure.
Correct interpretation of ABGs determines whether the primary crisis is metabolic or respiratory, dictating the specific intervention.
3
Apply the airway, breathing, and circulation (ABC) prioritization framework.
Airway and breathing compromise (RR of 8/min, PaCO2 of 58 mm Hg) present the most immediate threat to the client's life.
Airway management and mechanical ventilation must be established before correcting the underlying endocrine deficit or addressing temperature.

Anahtar Kavram

Prioritization and Stabilization in Endocrine Emergencies (Myxedema Coma)
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 1786Soru →

A client is receiving a continuous intravenous regular insulin infusion and 0.9% sodium chloride for the treatment of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Over the past four hours, the client's blood glucose level has decreased from 580 mg/dL to 240 mg/dL. The client suddenly reports profound muscle weakness and a fluttering sensation in the chest. The cardiac monitor displays a new onset of frequent premature ventricular contractions (PVCs). The most recent arterial blood gas analysis reveals a pH of 7.31, PaCO2 of 36 mm Hg, and HCO3 of 16 mEq/L. Which action should the nurse take immediately?

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Cevap: Obtain a stat serum potassium level and prepare to administer an intravenous potassium supplement

Cevap

Obtain a stat serum potassium level and prepare to administer an intravenous potassium supplement
Insulin therapy rapidly shifts potassium from the extracellular space into the intracellular space, frequently leading to severe hypokalemia. The client's new-onset muscle weakness and cardiac dysrhythmias (PVCs) are classic signs of hypokalemia, which is a life-threatening complication requiring immediate assessment and replacement.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's physical symptoms and cardiac rhythm in the context of DKA treatment.
The client is experiencing new-onset muscle weakness and premature ventricular contractions (PVCs) after receiving a continuous insulin infusion.
Identifying new clinical changes during treatment helps pinpoint emerging, treatment-induced complications.
2
Correlate the pathophysiological effects of insulin therapy with the assessment findings.
Insulin actively drives potassium into the cells, lowering serum potassium levels. This rapid shift manifests clinically as muscle weakness and ventricular irritability (PVCs).
Understanding the cellular mechanism of action of insulin ensures accurate interpretation of the presenting symptoms.
3
Evaluate the current ABG values and blood glucose trends.
The blood glucose is 240 mg/dL and the pH is 7.31, indicating the ketoacidosis is resolving but is not yet fully corrected.
This confirms that insulin therapy must continue (with added dextrose) to clear the ketones, ruling out the discontinuation of insulin or the administration of bicarbonate.
4
Determine the highest priority nursing intervention based on life-threatening risks.
Hypokalemia can rapidly progress to fatal cardiac arrhythmias, making immediate potassium assessment and replacement the highest priority.
Electrolyte imbalances directly affecting cardiac rhythm and stability take precedence over routine fluid adjustments.

Anahtar Kavram

Hypokalemia as a life-threatening complication of insulin therapy in Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA)
Soru 1787Soru →

A nurse is monitoring a client who was admitted with severe acute pyelonephritis. Which of the following assessment findings would indicate that the client is entering the early, hyperdynamic phase of septic shock? Select all that apply.

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Cevap: Bounding peripheral pulses; Apical pulse of 124 beats/min; Skin that is warm and flushed

Cevap

The assessment findings that indicate the early, hyperdynamic phase of septic shock include bounding peripheral pulses, an apical pulse of 124 beats/min, and skin that is warm and flushed.
In the early (hyperdynamic or 'warm') phase of septic shock, the systemic inflammatory response to infection causes profound peripheral vasodilation. To compensate for this sudden drop in systemic vascular resistance and maintain adequate tissue perfusion, the heart rate and stroke volume increase significantly. This combination of massive vasodilation and increased cardiac output produces the classic signs of early septic shock: warm and flushed skin, bounding peripheral pulses, tachycardia, and a widened pulse pressure.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's current diagnosis and risk factors.
The client has severe acute pyelonephritis, a significant systemic infection that places them at high risk for developing systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) and progressing to septic shock.
Identifying the underlying infectious risk is the first step in anticipating potential life-threatening hemodynamic complications.
2
Differentiate between the distinct pathophysiological phases of septic shock.
Septic shock initially presents in an early (hyperdynamic or 'warm') phase, characterized by massive vasodilation and increased cardiac output, before progressing to a late (hypodynamic or 'cold') phase characterized by intense vasoconstriction and organ failure.
Understanding the unique biphasic nature of septic shock is required to correctly identify the expected clinical manifestations during the initial deterioration.
3
Evaluate each assessment finding against the pathophysiology of the early (hyperdynamic) phase.
Profound vasodilation leads directly to warm, flushed skin and a widened pulse pressure. The compensatory increase in cardiac output required to maintain perfusion leads to tachycardia (apical pulse of 124 beats/min) and bounding peripheral pulses.
Connecting the underlying physiological adaptation to the specific clinical signs ensures accurate recognition of the client's current shock state.

Anahtar Kavram

Early septic shock (the hyperdynamic phase) is uniquely characterized by massive systemic vasodilation, which manifests clinically as warm and flushed skin, tachycardia, bounding peripheral pulses, and a widened pulse pressure.
Soru 1788Soru →

A 56-year-old client with a mechanical small bowel obstruction has been receiving continuous high wall nasogastric (NG) suction for the past 3 days. The client is currently lethargic, reports severe generalized muscle weakness, and has a respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min. An arterial blood gas (ABG) panel reveals a pH of 7.54, PaCO2PaCO_2 of 48 mmHg, and HCO3−HCO_3^- of 34 mEq/L. The client is currently resting in a flat, supine position. Which immediate action should the nurse take to reduce the client's risk for further physiological decompensation?

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Cevap: Elevate the head of the bed to at least 30 degrees, temporarily pause the nasogastric suction, and notify the healthcare provider.

Cevap

The correct action is to elevate the head of the bed to at least 30 degrees, temporarily pause the nasogastric suction, and notify the healthcare provider.
The client is experiencing partially compensated metabolic alkalosis caused by the prolonged depletion of gastric acid and potassium via the NG tube. The hypoventilation (respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min) is a compensatory mechanism to retain CO2CO_2 and lower the blood pH. Furthermore, a lethargic client lying flat with an active NG tube is at imminent risk for aspiration. The correct action addresses both immediate threats: elevating the head of the bed protects the airway, while temporarily pausing the suction stops the ongoing acid and electrolyte loss pending provider orders.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the arterial blood gas (ABG) and clinical findings to determine the primary physiological imbalance.
The ABG shows a pH of 7.54 (alkalosis) and HCO3−HCO_3^- of 34 mEq/L (alkalosis), indicating metabolic alkalosis. The PaCO2PaCO_2 of 48 mmHg and low respiratory rate (10 breaths/min) represent partial respiratory compensation.
Accurate ABG interpretation is required to identify that the continuous removal of gastric acid (hydrochloric acid) has caused severe metabolic alkalosis.
2
Evaluate the physical assessment data and the client's current positioning.
The client is lethargic and lying flat with an active NG tube, creating a severe aspiration risk. The muscle weakness indicates hypokalemia, a common complication of excessive gastric suctioning.
Identifying immediate physical safety risks allows the nurse to prioritize airway protection.
3
Determine the priority nursing interventions to reduce risk.
The nurse must elevate the head of the bed to protect the airway, pause the offending therapy (NG suction), and collaborate with the provider for fluid and electrolyte replacement.
Independent nursing actions must prioritize airway safety and stopping active harm before receiving further medical orders.

Anahtar Kavram

Mitigating complications of continuous nasogastric suction, including metabolic alkalosis, hypokalemia, and aspiration risk.
Soru 1789Soru →

A nurse is evaluating a client who underwent a right-sided pneumonectomy 24 hours ago for bronchogenic carcinoma. The client suddenly exhibits extreme restlessness, a heart rate of 122 bpm, and a respiratory rate of 30 breaths/min. The pulse oximeter reads 87% on supplemental oxygen. Arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis indicates a pH of 7.287.28, PaCO2PaCO_2 of 6262 mm Hg, and PaO2PaO_2 of 5454 mm Hg. Upon entering the room, the nurse observes the client lying in a left lateral decubitus position. Which immediate action should the nurse implement to minimize the risk of impending cardiopulmonary collapse?

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Cevap: Assist the client into a right lateral or supine position.

Cevap

The priority action is to immediately reposition the client to the right lateral or supine position to relieve mechanical compression of the remaining functioning lung.
Following a pneumonectomy, the client must be positioned on their operative side (in this scenario, the right side) or supine. Positioning the client on the unoperated side (the left side) is strictly contraindicated. Gravity causes the mediastinal structures and any fluid accumulating in the empty surgical space to shift downward, compressing the solitary functional lung. This compression severely impairs ventilation, directly causing the acute respiratory acidosis and hypoxemia seen in the ABG results. Repositioning the client immediately relieves this mechanical compression.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Interpret the arterial blood gas (ABG) and vital sign data.
The ABGs show acute, uncompensated respiratory acidosis (low pH, high PaCO2PaCO_2) with severe hypoxemia, indicating failure of ventilation.
Identifying the physiological state dictates whether the issue is metabolic, oxygenation-based, or ventilation-based.
2
Correlate the client's surgical history with their current physical positioning.
The client had a right pneumonectomy but is lying on their left side (the unoperated side with the only remaining functional lung).
Understanding postoperative anatomical changes is crucial. Lying on the good lung allows gravity and post-surgical fluid to compress it, causing the ventilation failure.
3
Determine the intervention that directly resolves the root cause of the decompensation.
Repositioning the client to the operative side (right) or supine allows the left lung to expand fully.
Airway and mechanical breathing interventions must take precedence over supplemental oxygen or medications when an anatomical obstruction is present.

Anahtar Kavram

Post-pneumonectomy positioning and respiratory failure prevention
Soru 1790Soru →

During the night shift, an older adult client who underwent a right total hip arthroplasty (posterior approach) 24 hours ago becomes acutely agitated. The client attempts to climb over the side rails and repeatedly insists on walking to the bathroom to have a bowel movement. Which action represents the most appropriate nursing intervention?

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Cevap: Provide a fracture pan for elimination while keeping the right leg in an abducted, neutral position.

Cevap

Provide a fracture pan for elimination while keeping the right leg in an abducted, neutral position.
Providing a fracture pan with the leg abducted safely addresses the client's urgent physiological need to eliminate, which is the root cause of the agitation. The fracture pan minimizes the need for lifting or rolling, and maintaining abduction prevents adduction and internal rotation, protecting the newly constructed hip joint from dislocation.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the underlying cause of the client's acute agitation.
The client is communicating an urgent need to have a bowel movement.
Addressing basic physiological needs is the first step in managing acute confusion and agitation in older adults.
2
Determine the physical limitations and contraindications based on the client's surgical history.
A posterior approach total hip arthroplasty requires strict avoidance of hip flexion greater than 90 degrees, adduction (crossing the midline), and internal rotation.
Violating these precautions can cause posterior dislocation of the newly placed prosthetic joint.
3
Evaluate the proposed nursing interventions against safety guidelines.
Using a standard commode risks excessive hip flexion. Delegating assessment is out of UAP scope. Applying restraints ignores the physiological need and violates restraint protocols.
Evidence-based practice requires utilizing the least restrictive, safest method to meet client needs.
4
Select the intervention that meets the elimination need while maintaining surgical safety.
Using a fracture pan (which requires minimal lifting) and maintaining leg abduction ensures safe elimination.
This action directly resolves the cause of agitation without compromising the integrity of the surgical site.

Anahtar Kavram

Post-operative positioning precautions and safe elimination practices following a total hip arthroplasty.
Soru 1791Soru →

An intubated client with a severe exacerbation of asthma is receiving volume-controlled mechanical ventilation in the intensive care unit. The ventilator's high peak inspiratory pressure (PIP) alarm begins sounding continuously. Upon rapid assessment, the nurse notes absent breath sounds over the right lung field, prominent tracheal deviation to the left, and subcutaneous emphysema over the right anterior chest. Hemodynamic monitoring indicates a precipitous drop in blood pressure from 124/76 mm Hg to 78/38 mm Hg and a heart rate increase to 142 beats/min. A recent arterial blood gas (ABG) report shows a pH of 7.29, PaCO2 of 62 mm Hg, and HCO3 of 26 mEq/L. Which of the following is the nurse's immediate priority action?

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Cevap: Activate the rapid response team and prepare a large-bore angiocatheter for emergency chest decompression.

Cevap

The priority action is to activate the rapid response team and prepare a large-bore angiocatheter for emergency chest decompression.
The client is exhibiting the classic triad of a tension pneumothorax: absent breath sounds, tracheal deviation, and severe hypotension. The positive pressure from the mechanical ventilator forced air into the pleural space through a ruptured alveolus (barotrauma). This trapped air creates massive intrathoracic pressure, pushing the mediastinum to the opposite side (tracheal deviation) and compressing the vena cava. This compression halts venous return, causing obstructive shock. The only life-saving treatment is immediate decompression of the pleural space using a large-bore needle (needle thoracostomy) followed by a chest tube.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the ventilator alarms and respiratory assessment findings.
The high PIP alarm, unilateral absent breath sounds, and tracheal deviation indicate a massive accumulation of air in the right pleural space (tension pneumothorax) due to barotrauma.
Identifying the structural respiratory failure is necessary to understand the cause of the sudden decompensation.
2
Evaluate the hemodynamic changes (vital signs).
The severe hypotension (78/38 mm Hg) and tachycardia (142 beats/min) indicate the client has entered obstructive shock.
The trapped air under high pressure causes a mediastinal shift, compressing the superior and inferior vena cava. This drastically reduces venous return (preload) and cardiac output.
3
Determine the highest priority life-saving intervention.
The nurse must prepare for immediate release of the trapped air (needle thoracostomy) while notifying the emergency response team.
Without immediate decompression, obstructive shock will rapidly progress to cardiac arrest. Routine troubleshooting (suctioning) or addressing secondary findings (ABGs) will result in death.

Anahtar Kavram

Recognition and immediate management of tension pneumothorax and subsequent obstructive shock in mechanically ventilated clients.
Soru 1792Soru →

During a shift assessment of a client recovering from an exploratory laparotomy 48 hours ago, the client coughs violently. The nurse witnesses the surgical incision suddenly separate, revealing protruding loops of intestine. Arrange the following interventions in the correct chronological sequence to prioritize client safety.

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Cevap

The correct priority sequence is: remain with the client and call for help, position the client in low Fowler's with flexed knees, cover the protruding organs with sterile saline-moistened dressings, obtain vital signs to monitor for shock, and prepare the client for emergency surgery.
Wound evisceration is a critical surgical emergency. The nurse's first absolute priority is safety, which means staying with the client and calling for immediate assistance. Second, while waiting for supplies to be brought into the room, the nurse places the client in a low Fowler's position with the knees bent to immediately reduce abdominal muscle tension and prevent further organ protrusion. Third, once supplies are available, the nurse applies sterile, saline-moistened dressings over the exposed intestine to prevent necrosis and infection. Fourth, the nurse assesses vital signs to ensure the client is not entering physiological shock. Finally, the nurse prepares the client for immediate transport to the operating room for definitive surgical management.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Remain with the client and activate the unit emergency call system for assistance.
Assistance is summoned without abandoning the clinically unstable client.
Immediate help is required to obtain sterile supplies and contact the surgical team.
2
Place the client in a low Fowler's position with the knees flexed.
Tension across the abdominal wall is minimized.
This specific position relaxes the rectus abdominis muscles, preventing additional bowel loops from eviscerating.
3
Cover the eviscerated tissue with sterile dressings moistened in normal saline.
The internal organs are shielded from environmental contaminants and desiccation.
Exposed bowel can quickly become ischemic and necrotic if allowed to dry out.
4
Obtain a full set of vital signs to monitor for physiological shock.
The client's hemodynamic stability is evaluated.
Rapid fluid shifts and systemic stress from the evisceration strongly predispose the client to hypovolemic or neurogenic shock.
5
Prepare the client for immediate transport to the surgical suite.
The client is readied for definitive operative repair.
An evisceration is a surgical emergency that requires immediate operative closure.

Anahtar Kavram

Emergency Management of Wound Evisceration
Tahmini Süre:1m 0s
Soru 1793Soru →

A nurse is caring for a client who is 4 days postoperative following an exploratory laparotomy. The client experiences a severe coughing episode and reports a sudden "tearing" sensation in the abdomen. Upon inspection, the nurse observes a portion of the small intestine protruding through the surgical incision. Place the following nursing actions in the correct chronological order to minimize the risk of tissue ischemia and further complications.

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Cevap

The correct sequence is: Call for assistance, position the client in low Fowler's with flexed knees, cover the organs with sterile saline dressings, assess vital signs, and prepare for emergency surgery.
Managing a wound evisceration requires rapid, prioritized intervention to preserve tissue viability and prevent systemic shock. The absolute priority is safety; the nurse must stay with the client while calling for help to obtain necessary supplies. Immediately following this, positioning the client with a slightly elevated head and flexed knees mechanically reduces intra-abdominal pressure, halting further evisceration. Once sterile supplies are brought to the bedside, covering the exposed bowel with moistened sterile dressings is critical to prevent drying, ischemia, and infection. With the immediate local threat managed, the nurse then assesses systemic stability by monitoring vital signs for shock. Finally, the client is prepared for emergency surgical repair, which is the definitive treatment.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Call for immediate assistance and request emergency sterile supplies.
Help is initiated without the nurse having to abandon the client.
The nurse must not leave the client alone during a critical evisceration. Another staff member is needed to gather sterile supplies and notify the healthcare provider.
2
Place the client in a low Fowler's position with the hips and knees flexed.
Intra-abdominal pressure is rapidly reduced.
This specific position minimizes tension on the abdominal muscles and the compromised suture line, acting as an immediate mechanical intervention to prevent further bowel protrusion.
3
Apply sterile, saline-soaked dressings over the protruding abdominal organs.
The exposed bowel is protected from environmental drying and contaminants.
Once the requested supplies arrive, the exposed tissue must be kept moist with sterile normal saline to maintain viability, prevent ischemia, and reduce the risk of severe infection.
4
Assess vital signs and monitor the client for indications of hypovolemic shock.
The client's systemic hemodynamic stability is evaluated.
With the immediate local threat to the tissue managed, the nurse must assess for signs of shock (e.g., tachycardia, hypotension) resulting from fluid shifts or potential internal bleeding.
5
Prepare the client for emergency surgical intervention.
The client is readied for definitive operative treatment.
An evisceration cannot be managed conservatively; it requires immediate surgical repair to return the organs to the abdominal cavity and close the fascia.

Anahtar Kavram

Prioritization of emergency interventions for surgical evisceration to prevent tissue necrosis and shock.
Soru 1794Soru →

A client is recovering on the surgical unit 12 hours after a total abdominal hysterectomy. The nurse evaluates the client's vital sign trends over the past four hours. The heart rate has steadily risen from 82 to 118 beats per minute. The blood pressure has changed from 126/78 mm Hg to 112/90 mm Hg. The client is awake but appears restless and complains of intense thirst. Which action should the nurse implement first?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Position the client flat in bed with the lower extremities elevated.

Cevap

Position the client flat in bed with the lower extremities elevated.
The client's assessment findings—tachycardia, a narrowing pulse pressure, restlessness, and intense thirst—are classic indicators of the compensatory stage of hypovolemic shock. As intravascular volume decreases, the sympathetic nervous system triggers peripheral vasoconstriction, which raises the diastolic blood pressure and narrows the pulse pressure (in this case, from 48 mm Hg to 22 mm Hg). Positioning the client flat with the lower extremities elevated (modified Trendelenburg) promotes venous return from the legs to the core circulation, temporarily increasing cardiac output and brain perfusion while intravenous fluid resuscitation is prepared.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the vital sign trends and client symptoms.
The heart rate is increasing, pulse pressure is narrowing (from 48 to 22 mm Hg), and the client is restless and thirsty.
These are classic systemic signs of the compensatory stage of hypovolemic shock, likely due to internal hemorrhage.
2
Determine the physiological priority.
The client requires immediate interventions to improve venous return, cardiac output, and core tissue perfusion.
Without rapid intervention, compensatory shock will quickly progress to uncompensated shock and multisystem organ failure.
3
Select the most appropriate initial, independent nursing action.
Positioning the client flat with elevated legs (modified Trendelenburg) is the correct immediate action.
This position uses gravity to shunt blood from the lower extremities back to the central circulation, temporarily improving cardiac output while intravenous fluid and blood resuscitation are prepared.

Anahtar Kavram

Early identification and positional management of compensatory hypovolemic shock
Soru 1795Soru →

A nurse is preparing a prescribed intramuscular dose of a medication that is supplied as a dry powder in a sterile vial. The medication requires reconstitution with bacteriostatic water before administration. In what chronological sequence should the nurse perform the following actions to safely prepare the medication?

Öğeleri doğru sıraya koymak için sürükleyin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

The correct sequence begins with maintaining asepsis by performing hand hygiene and swabbing the stoppers. Next, air is injected into the diluent vial to equalize pressure, allowing the fluid to be withdrawn. The diluent is then injected into the powder, and the vial is gently rolled to dissolve the medication without creating bubbles. Finally, the stopper is cleansed again to safely withdraw the prescribed dose.
The standard procedure for reconstituting medication requires strict aseptic technique and pressure equalization. Cleansing stoppers first prevents contamination. Injecting air into the diluent vial allows for smooth fluid withdrawal. The diluent is then added to the powder, and the vial is rolled gently to mix without creating bubbles. Finally, the reconstituted medication is withdrawn for administration using continued aseptic practices.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Maintain asepsis by cleansing vials
Sterile entry points are prepared
To prevent the introduction of microorganisms into the medication
2
Inject air into the diluent vial
Positive pressure is created in the vial
To prevent a vacuum and allow for the easy withdrawal of the liquid diluent
3
Transfer diluent to the powder
Diluent and powder are combined
To initiate the dissolving process for the medication
4
Gently roll the vial between palms
Medication is thoroughly dissolved without bubbling
To prevent frothing or air bubbles which can cause inaccurate dosing
5
Cleanse stopper, inject air, and withdraw dose
Final medication dose is ready in the syringe
To safely extract the exact volume needed for administration

Anahtar Kavram

Safe Preparation and Reconstitution of Parenteral Medications
Soru 1796Soru →

A client admitted with decompensated heart failure weighing 198 lb198\text{ lb} is prescribed a continuous intravenous infusion of milrinone at 0.5 \mug/kg/min0.5\text{ \mu g/kg/min}. The pharmacy dispenses a premixed bag containing 20 mg20\text{ mg} of milrinone in 100 mL100\text{ mL} of 0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride. The nurse should set the infusion pump to deliver how many mL/hr\text{mL/hr}? (Round the answer to the nearest tenth.)

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: 13.5

Cevap

13.5
To determine the correct infusion rate, a multi-step calculation is required. First, the client's weight is converted to kilograms (198÷2.2=90 kg198 \div 2.2 = 90\text{ kg}). Second, the hourly dose is calculated by multiplying the weight-based dose by the client's weight and then by 6060 minutes (0.5×90×60=2,700 \mug/hr0.5 \times 90 \times 60 = 2,700\text{ \mu g/hr}). Third, the concentration of the IV bag is converted to matching units (20 mg=20,000 \mug20\text{ mg} = 20,000\text{ \mu g}; 20,000÷100 mL=200 \mug/mL20,000 \div 100\text{ mL} = 200\text{ \mu g/mL}). Finally, the hourly dose is divided by the concentration (2,700÷2002,700 \div 200) to yield the correct pump setting of 13.5 mL/hr13.5\text{ mL/hr}.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Convert the client's weight from lb to kg.
198 lb÷2.2 lb/kg=90 kg198\text{ lb} \div 2.2\text{ lb/kg} = 90\text{ kg}
The medication dosage is prescribed based on the client's weight in kilograms.
2
Calculate the prescribed dose per minute.
0.5 \mug/kg/min×90 kg=45 \mug/min0.5\text{ \mu g/kg/min} \times 90\text{ kg} = 45\text{ \mu g/min}
This determines the exact amount of milrinone the client needs every minute.
3
Convert the dose per minute to the dose per hour.
45 \mug/min×60 min/hr=2,700 \mug/hr45\text{ \mu g/min} \times 60\text{ min/hr} = 2,700\text{ \mu g/hr}
Intravenous pumps are typically programmed in milliliters per hour (mL/hr), so the hourly dose is required.
4
Determine the concentration of the supplied milrinone solution in \mug/mL\text{\mu g/mL}.
20 mg×1,000 \mug/mg=20,000 \mug20\text{ mg} \times 1,000\text{ \mu g/mg} = 20,000\text{ \mu g}. Then, 20,000 \mug÷100 mL=200 \mug/mL20,000\text{ \mu g} \div 100\text{ mL} = 200\text{ \mu g/mL}
To calculate the volume needed, the medication dose units (micrograms) must match the concentration units.
5
Calculate the infusion rate in mL/hr\text{mL/hr}.
2,700 \mug/hr÷200 \mug/mL=13.5 mL/hr2,700\text{ \mu g/hr} \div 200\text{ \mu g/mL} = 13.5\text{ mL/hr}
Dividing the hourly dose by the concentration yields the fluid volume that needs to be delivered per hour.

Anahtar Kavram

Weight-based continuous intravenous infusion rate calculation requiring multiple unit conversions
Tahmini Süre:3m 0s
Soru 1797Soru →

A hospitalized client with an acute exacerbation of congestive heart failure experiences significant respiratory distress and exhaustion when attempting to consume lunch. Which intervention should the nurse implement to best support the client's comfort and ability to eat?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Elevate the head of the bed to a high-Fowler's position and provide an overbed table to support the client's arms.

Cevap

The nurse should elevate the head of the bed to a high-Fowler's position and provide an overbed table to support the client's arms.
The correct action maximizes thoracic expansion and decreases the overall work of breathing. The high-Fowler's position combined with arm support (orthopneic positioning) allows the accessory muscles of respiration to function more effectively, thereby reducing dyspnea and enabling the client to eat with less exertion.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Assess the client's respiratory status and tolerance for oral intake.
The nurse identifies that the client is experiencing acute dyspnea and fatigue related to a heart failure exacerbation.
Determines the need for immediate comfort measures and physical support before the client attempts to continue the meal.
2
Adjust the client's physical positioning in the bed.
The client is placed in a high-Fowler's position with the arms supported on a bedside table.
This specific orthopneic positioning drops the diaphragm and allows accessory respiratory muscles to work optimally, significantly decreasing dyspnea.
3
Monitor the client during the meal for improved breathing and safety.
The client can consume the meal with reduced respiratory effort and a lowered risk of aspiration.
Ensures the non-pharmacological intervention is effective and that the unstable client remains safe while eating.

Anahtar Kavram

Basic Care and Comfort: Positioning for Cardiopulmonary Compromise
Soru 1798Soru →

A client is admitted to the progressive care unit with suspected bowel perforation and peritonitis. The nurse assesses the client and notes a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 12, cool and mottled extremities, and a capillary refill time of 5 seconds. Vital signs include a heart rate of 132 beats/min, a respiratory rate of 28 breaths/min, and a blood pressure of 82/40 mm Hg. Arterial blood gas (ABG) results reveal a pH of 7.26, PaCO2 of 30 mm Hg, PaO2 of 74 mm Hg, and HCO3 of 14 mEq/L. Based on these physiological findings, which intervention should the nurse prioritize?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Initiate a rapid intravenous bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride.

Cevap

The priority intervention is to initiate a rapid intravenous bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride.
The client is exhibiting classical signs of septic shock with profound tissue hypoperfusion (hypotension, mottled skin, delayed capillary refill). This lack of oxygenated blood flow forces cells into anaerobic metabolism, producing lactic acid and causing the metabolic acidosis seen on the ABG. The immediate physiological priority is to rapidly expand the intravascular volume with isotonic crystalloids. This increases cardiac output, restores tissue perfusion, allows cells to return to aerobic metabolism, and helps clear the accumulated lactate.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the client's vital signs and physical assessment findings.
Hypotension, tachycardia, tachypnea, altered mental status, and mottled extremities indicate profound hypoperfusion and late-stage shock.
Recognizing the signs of shock is essential for determining the underlying physiological crisis.
2
Interpret the arterial blood gas (ABG) values.
The ABG shows a primary metabolic acidosis (pH 7.26, HCO3 14 mEq/L) with partial respiratory compensation (PaCO2 30 mm Hg).
Understanding the acid-base imbalance helps identify the systemic impact of the client's condition.
3
Synthesize the assessment and ABG findings to identify the root cause.
The metabolic acidosis is lactic acidosis driven by anaerobic metabolism due to severe tissue hypoxia and hypoperfusion.
Connecting the shock state to the metabolic acidosis dictates the required treatment approach.
4
Select the intervention that addresses the root physiological cause.
Rapid administration of isotonic crystalloids (0.9% sodium chloride) expands intravascular volume, increasing cardiac output and tissue perfusion.
Restoring perfusion is the definitive treatment for lactic acidosis in a shock state; other measures are secondary or contraindicated.

Anahtar Kavram

Management of Septic Shock and Lactic Acidosis
Soru 1799Soru →

The nurse is changing the intravenous tubing on a client's central venous catheter. During the procedure, the client suddenly gasps for air, grasps their chest, and becomes cyanotic. Arrange the following nursing actions in the correct priority sequence.

Öğeleri doğru sıraya koymak için sürükleyin

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

The correct sequence is to first clamp the central venous catheter, then place the client in the left lateral Trendelenburg position, administer 100% oxygen via a non-rebreather mask, notify the rapid response team and healthcare provider, and finally monitor vital signs and respiratory status continuously.
In the event of a suspected air embolism from a central venous catheter, the immediate priority is to stop further air entry by clamping the line. The next critical action is positioning the client in the left lateral Trendelenburg position, which traps the air in the apex of the right ventricle and prevents it from occluding the pulmonary circulation. Once the embolus is isolated, administering 100% oxygen helps treat hypoxia and promotes the resorption of the nitrogen gas bubble. After these immediate life-saving parameters are secured, the nurse must notify the rapid response team and healthcare provider, followed by continuous monitoring of the client's hemodynamic status.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the sudden onset of respiratory distress, chest pain, and cyanosis during a central line procedure as a classic presentation of an air embolism.
The nurse recognizes an immediate, life-threatening physiological emergency.
Rapid clinical judgment is required to prioritize actions that stop further harm.
2
Clamp the central venous catheter immediately.
The pathway for air to enter the vascular system is closed.
Stopping the source of air entry is the most critical first step to prevent the embolus from enlarging.
3
Reposition the client to a left lateral Trendelenburg position.
The air bubble rises and becomes trapped in the apex of the right ventricle.
This specific positioning prevents the air from migrating into the pulmonary circulation, which would otherwise cause cardiovascular collapse.
4
Apply high-flow oxygen.
The client receives maximal oxygenation, and nitrogen gradient changes.
Oxygen treats the immediate hypoxia and helps shrink the air embolus by encouraging nitrogen resorption.
5
Call for emergency assistance and initiate continuous monitoring.
Advanced life support providers are alerted, and baseline post-event hemodynamics are established.
While calling for help is essential, it must follow the immediate independent nursing interventions that stabilize the client's physiological state.

Anahtar Kavram

Prioritization of care for a client experiencing an air embolism requires immediate mechanical interventions (clamping and positioning) before pharmacological or supportive measures.
Soru 1800Soru →

A client with severe Crohn's disease is receiving a continuous infusion of total parenteral nutrition (TPN) through a single-lumen peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC). The healthcare provider prescribes intermittent intravenous (IV) ceftriaxone 1 g1\text{ g} every 12 hours12\text{ hours}. Which action represents the safest practice for administering this antibiotic?

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Initiate a separate peripheral IV access site to administer the antibiotic.

Cevap

The nurse should initiate a separate peripheral IV access site to administer the antibiotic.
Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) contains a complex mixture of amino acids, dextrose, lipids, vitamins, and minerals. Because of its hypertonicity and high glucose content, TPN must run through a dedicated central line to prevent severe complications such as drug-drug incompatibilities, microvascular precipitates, and central line-associated bloodstream infections (CLABSI). The safest and most appropriate nursing action is to start a new, separate peripheral IV line exclusively for the administration of the prescribed antibiotic.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the primary therapy currently being administered to the client.
The client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via a single-lumen PICC.
Understanding the current infusion is critical for determining compatibility and line access requirements.
2
Recall the standard safety principles for administering TPN.
TPN must always be administered through a dedicated line. Other medications or fluids should not be mixed or Y-sited with TPN.
TPN solutions are complex mixtures with a high risk of precipitation when mixed with other drugs, and the high glucose content increases the risk of central line infections if the system is frequently accessed.
3
Determine the most appropriate method to administer the newly prescribed IV antibiotic.
Since the only current access is a single-lumen dedicated TPN line, a new separate peripheral IV access must be established.
This ensures the client receives the necessary antibiotic safely without compromising the TPN infusion or risking incompatibility.

Anahtar Kavram

Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN) Administration and Line Safety
Tahmini Süre:1m 0s
ÖncekiSayfa 90 / 98Sonraki
Physiological Integrity Alıştırma Soruları — NCLEX-RN — Sayfa 90 | Examkin