General Science and Technology

222 soru

Tüm türler222 Çoktan seçmeli117 Çoklu seçim40 Doğru / Yanlış8 Eşleştirme44 Sıralama13

Match the Cyber Security Threat Vectors in List-I with their corresponding Operational Descriptions in List-II:

Soldaki öğeye tıklayın, sonra eşleşen sağdaki öğeye tıklayın

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Cevap

Spear Phishing corresponds to targeted fraudulent communication using personalized details. Man-in-the-Middle attack corresponds to secretly intercepting communications between two connected systems. Drive-by Download corresponds to unintentional malware installation when accessing a compromised web page. Zero-Day Exploit corresponds to attacking software vulnerabilities that lack an available vendor patch.

Each cyber security threat vector is accurately paired with its operational definition: Spear Phishing uses tailored social engineering for specific targets; Man-in-the-Middle attacks intercept active channel communications; Drive-by Downloads install payload scripts automatically upon page load; and Zero-Day Exploits target undisclosed software flaws lacking patches.

Adım Adım Çözüm

Identify the characteristic features of Spear Phishing

Spear Phishing relies on tailored, personalized intelligence to target specific victims, distinguishing it from mass phishing.

Personalized context is used to trick high-value targets.

Analyze the mechanism of Man-in-the-Middle (MitM) attacks

MitM attack secretly intercepts and potentially alters communication between two endpoints without their awareness.

The attacker positions themselves between sender and receiver.

Distinguish between Drive-by Download and Zero-Day Exploit mechanisms

Drive-by download occurs automatically upon visiting infected web pages, while zero-day exploits specifically leverage unpatched software flaws.

Drive-by downloads exploit browser/plugin scripts, whereas zero-day exploits relate to vendor vulnerability timelines.

Anahtar Kavram

Classification and Mechanics of Cyber Threats

Tahmini Süre:1m 30s

Soru 182Soru →

Match the advanced biotechnology and nanotechnology tools/materials in List I with their primary structural features or biomedical applications in List II:

Soldaki öğeye tıklayın, sonra eşleşen sağdaki öğeye tıklayın

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Cevap

Fullerenes correspond to spheroidal carbon cage structures with high electron affinity; Quantum Dots correspond to size-tunable semiconductor nanocrystals for fluorescent imaging; Liposomes correspond to spherical phospholipid bilayer vesicles encapsulating both hydrophilic and hydrophobic drugs; and Zinc Finger Nucleases correspond to engineered chimeric restriction proteins combining zinc-finger domains with FokI cleavage domains.

Each technology matches strictly with its defined mechanism: Fullerenes are closed carbon cages; Quantum Dots are fluorescence-tunable semiconductor nanocrystals; Liposomes are lipid bilayer vesicles for dual drug encapsulation; and Zinc Finger Nucleases are chimeric proteins combining zinc-finger DNA-binding motifs with FokI catalytic domains.

Adım Adım Çözüm

Identify the structural nature of Fullerenes

Recognize Fullerenes as hollow carbon allotrope cages (e.g., C60) with antioxidant and carrier properties.

Fullerenes feature unique cage geometries capable of trapping species or acting as free radical scavengers.

Analyze Quantum Dots properties

Associate Quantum Dots with semiconductor nanocrystals whose narrow fluorescence emission varies with nanoparticle size.

Quantum confinement alters the energy bandgap as size changes, giving tunable optical properties for bio-labeling.

Examine Liposome architecture

Match Liposomes with self-assembled phospholipid bilayer spheres.

Their amphiphilic nature permits simultaneous transport of hydrophilic therapeutics in the interior and lipophilic therapeutics inside the lipid membrane.

Analyze Zinc Finger Nucleases structure

Link ZFNs to chimeric gene-editing tools formed by linking zinc-finger binding proteins with FokI cleavage domains.

ZFNs achieve site-specific double-strand DNA breaks via protein-DNA domain recognition paired with catalytic cleavage.

Anahtar Kavram

Classification and operating mechanisms of advanced bio-nanotechnology materials and genomic engineering tools

Soru 183Soru →

Rear-view mirrors installed in motor vehicles provide drivers with a significantly wider field of view compared to standard flat plane mirrors. Which of the following fundamental optical properties best explains why convex mirrors are used for this everyday application?

They consistently form erect, virtual, and diminished images, allowing a larger field of view to be compressed into a small mirror surface.

They form real and inverted images that magnify distant objects, making approaching vehicles appear closer and clearer.

They utilize total internal reflection to amplify the brightness of light rays reflected from behind the vehicle.

They refract incoming parallel light rays inward so that they converge precisely onto a single focal plane.

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: They consistently form erect, virtual, and diminished images, allowing a larger field of view to be compressed into a small mirror surface.

Cevap

Convex mirrors are used as rear-view mirrors because they consistently form erect, virtual, and diminished images, providing a significantly wider field of view.

The choice stating that convex mirrors form erect, virtual, and diminished images is correct. Because the light rays diverge after hitting the outer curved surface, the image is formed behind the mirror (virtual) and stays right-side up (erect). Since the image is reduced in size (diminished), it allows a much larger area of the road behind the driver to be visible in a compact mirror, creating a wide field of view.

Adım Adım Çözüm

Analyze the optical behavior of a convex spherical mirror

Light rays striking a convex mirror diverge upon reflection. Tracing these reflected rays backward shows that they intersect behind the mirror surface.

Understanding ray tracing for curved surfaces determines the nature of the image formed.

Evaluate the image characteristics produced by a convex mirror

For any real object placed in front of a convex mirror, the image formed is always virtual, upright (erect), and smaller than the object (diminished).

Image nature (virtual/real, erect/inverted, magnified/diminished) dictates practical utility.

Relate image characteristics to the driver's field of view requirement

Because the image is diminished and upright, a wider angular region behind the vehicle can fit onto the driver's mirror screen compared to a plane mirror of identical size.

Connecting image formation rules to everyday automotive safety applications provides the complete scientific reasoning.

Anahtar Kavram

Convex Mirrors and Image Formation in Everyday Applications

Soru 184Soru →

Lymphatic filariasis, commonly known as elephantiasis, leads to chronic inflammation and severe swelling of the lower limbs and lymphatic tissue. Which type of biological pathogen is the direct causative agent of this infectious disease in humans?

Filarial nematode (helminth)

Protozoan parasite

Arbovirus

Spirochete bacterium

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Filarial nematode (helminth)

Cevap

Filarial nematode (helminth)

Lymphatic filariasis is an infection caused by parasitic roundworms of the family Filarioidea. The adult worms lodge in the lymphatic system, obstructing lymph flow and causing lymphedema and elephantiasis.

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Identify the biological nature of the causative organism for lymphatic filariasis.

Lymphatic filariasis is caused by infection with microscopic, thread-like parasitic roundworms (filarial nematodes).

Wuchereria bancrofti accounts for roughly 90% of all cases worldwide, alongside Brugia malayi and Brugia timori.

Distinguish between the vector and the causative agent.

Mosquitoes (such as Culex, Anopheles, and Aedes) serve as vector hosts that transfer infective larvae, but the worm itself is the pathogen.

Understanding the pathogen category is essential for target-specific anti-helminthic treatments like diethylcarbamazine (DEC) and albendazole.

Anahtar Kavram

Pathogen Etiology of Lymphatic Filariasis

Tahmini Süre:1m 0s

Soru 185Soru →

In orbital dynamics and satellite navigation, Sun-Synchronous Orbits (SSO) and Geostationary Earth Orbits (GEO) are engineered for distinct observational and communication missions. Which of the following statements accurately describes the orbital mechanics or operational characteristics of these orbits?

A satellite in a Sun-Synchronous Orbit maintains a nearly constant angle between its orbital plane and the Sun-Earth line, providing consistent surface illumination for imaging.

A satellite in a Geostationary Earth Orbit completes one orbit in approximately 12 hours at an inclination angle of 90 degrees relative to the equator.

Sun-Synchronous Orbits are located at an altitude of approximately 35,786 km, enabling satellites to hover continuously over a fixed geographical coordinate.

Geostationary Earth Orbits rely on gravitational nodal precession caused by Earth's equatorial bulge to remain synchronized with Earth's rotation.

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: A satellite in a Sun-Synchronous Orbit maintains a nearly constant angle between its orbital plane and the Sun-Earth line, providing consistent surface illumination for imaging.

Cevap

A satellite in a Sun-Synchronous Orbit maintains a nearly constant angle between its orbital plane and the Sun-Earth line, providing consistent surface illumination for imaging.

The statement explaining that a Sun-Synchronous Orbit maintains a nearly constant angle between its orbital plane and the Sun-Earth line is correct. Due to torque exerted by Earth's equatorial bulge (J2 effect), an SSO precesses at approximately 0.9856 degrees per day (360 degrees per year), matching Earth's revolutionary motion around the Sun and yielding uniform lighting conditions suitable for Earth observation.

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Analyze Sun-Synchronous Orbit (SSO) properties

SSO is a quasi-polar orbit positioned at Low Earth Orbit (LEO) altitudes (around 600-800 km). By taking advantage of Earth's non-spherical shape (equatorial bulge), the orbit precesses eastwards by about 0.986° per day.

Matching this precession rate to Earth's orbital period around the Sun ensures that the satellite crosses the equator at the same local solar time on every pass.

Analyze Geostationary Earth Orbit (GEO) properties

GEO requires a circular orbit directly above Earth's equator (0° inclination) at an altitude of 35,786 km.

At this specific altitude, the orbital period equals Earth's sidereal rotation period (23 hours, 56 minutes, 4 seconds), causing the satellite to appear stationary relative to Earth's surface.

Evaluate option claims against fundamental orbital mechanics

Claims confusing orbital altitudes (35,786 km for SSO), periods (12 hours for GEO), or mechanisms (nodal precession for GEO) misattribute fundamental orbital properties.

Selecting the option detailing consistent Sun-Earth angle maintenance correctly identifies the physical principle of SSO.

Anahtar Kavram

Orbital Mechanics of Sun-Synchronous and Geostationary Orbits

Soru 186Soru →

In geothermal power generation, binary cycle plants are preferred for low-to-medium temperature geothermal reservoirs (typically between $100^\circ\text{C}$ and $180^\circ\text{C}$ ). Which of the following technical principles correctly describes the working mechanism of a binary cycle geothermal power plant?

Geothermal fluid is directly depressurized in a flash tank to generate high-pressure steam that drives a conventional steam turbine.

Geothermal fluid passes through a heat exchanger to vaporize a secondary organic fluid with a low boiling point, which expands through a turbine in a closed loop.

High-enthalpy geothermal brine undergoes in-situ electrolysis within the reservoir to generate compressed hydrogen gas for fuel cells.

Thermal energy from geothermal brine is converted directly into electricity via solid-state piezoelectric transducers located inside the borehole.

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Geothermal fluid passes through a heat exchanger to vaporize a secondary organic fluid with a low boiling point, which expands through a turbine in a closed loop.

Cevap

In a binary cycle geothermal power plant, geothermal water transfers its heat via a heat exchanger to a secondary working fluid (such as isobutane or pentane) that has a much lower boiling point than water. The secondary fluid vaporizes, drives a closed-loop turbine, and is condensed back into liquid to repeat the cycle, while the cooled geothermal brine is injected back into the reservoir.

The binary cycle geothermal plant operates by circulating warm-to-hot geothermal brine through a heat exchanger. The heat vaporizes a secondary fluid (an organic compound like pentane or isobutane) having a low boiling point. The resulting vapor expands through a turbine generator, turns back into liquid via a condenser, and recycles continuously in a closed system.

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Identify the defining characteristic of binary cycle power generation

Binary cycle technology utilizes two separate fluid loops (primary geothermal fluid and secondary organic working fluid).

The primary geothermal brine from low-to-medium temperature reservoirs (

100^\circ\text{C}

180^\circ\text{C}

) lacks sufficient enthalpy to flash into high-pressure steam directly.

Analyze the thermodynamic loop interaction

The primary fluid transfers heat to a secondary working fluid with a lower boiling point via a heat exchanger.

Lower boiling point fluids (Organic Rankine Cycle) vaporize efficiently at lower temperatures, producing vapor to drive the turbine.

Evaluate environmental and mechanical isolation benefits

Geothermal fluid remains fully contained and is reinjected into the ground without directly contacting the turbine blades.

Prevents turbine corrosion and eliminates atmospheric emissions of dissolved gases.

Anahtar Kavram

Binary Cycle Geothermal Energy and Organic Rankine Cycle (ORC)

Tahmini Süre:2m 0s

Soru 187Soru →

With reference to cybersecurity frameworks and statutory provisions in India under the Information Technology (IT) Act, 2000, consider the following statements:

1. The Indian Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT-In) serves as the national nodal agency for handling cybersecurity incidents under Section 70B.
2. Cyber Appellate Tribunals were established to directly adjudicate criminal offenses under the IT Act carrying life imprisonment penalties.
3. The National Critical Information Infrastructure Protection Centre (NCIIPC) is designated as the nodal agency for protecting critical information infrastructure under Section 70A.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 3 only

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: 1 and 3 only

Cevap

Statements 1 and 3 only are correct.

The statement specifying '1 and 3 only' is correct. CERT-In is statutory designated under Section 70B of the IT Act, 2000 to manage cyber threat responses, while NCIIPC is designated under Section 70A to protect critical information infrastructure. Statement 2 is false because tribunal jurisdiction applies to civil appeals arising from orders of Adjudicating Officers, whereas serious criminal offenses are prosecuted in criminal courts.

Adım Adım Çözüm

Evaluate Statement 1 regarding CERT-In.

Statement 1 is correct. Section 70B of the Information Technology (IT) Act, 2000 explicitly designates CERT-In as the national nodal agency for collecting, analyzing, and responding to computer security incidents.

CERT-In functions under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) to issue cyber threat alerts and handle emergency responses.

Evaluate Statement 2 regarding Cyber Appellate Tribunals.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Cyber Appellate Tribunals (whose functions were subsequently merged with TDSAT) hear appeals against orders passed by Adjudicating Officers regarding civil compensations and penalties. Criminal offenses punishable with imprisonment under the IT Act are tried by regular criminal courts (Magistrate or Sessions Courts), not tribunals.

Tribunals hold adjudicatory power over civil disputes and monetary penalties, whereas criminal jurisdiction remains strictly with the judicial court system.

Evaluate Statement 3 regarding NCIIPC.

Statement 3 is correct. Section 70A of the IT Act, 2000 empowered the Central Government to designate NCIIPC (operating under the National Technical Research Organisation) as the national nodal agency for Critical Information Infrastructure Protection.

NCIIPC safeguards computer systems whose destruction would severely impact national security, economy, or public health.

Anahtar Kavram

Statutory Cybersecurity Agencies and Provisions under the IT Act, 2000

Tahmini Süre:1m 30s

Soru 188Soru →

In the context of human health, epidemiology, and disease etiology, which of the following statements regarding human diseases and their causative pathogens are correct?

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

Japanese Encephalitis is a viral infection affecting the central nervous system, primarily transmitted to humans through the bite of infected Culex mosquitoes.

Typhoid fever is a acute gastrointestinal infection caused by a protozoan parasite transmitted through fecal-oral contamination.

Hepatitis B is a viral infection targeting hepatocytes in the liver, capable of causing both acute hepatitis and long-term chronic liver damage.

Tuberculosis is a contagious infectious disease primarily affecting lungs, caused by an opportunistic fungal pathogen.

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Japanese Encephalitis is a viral infection affecting the central nervous system, primarily transmitted to humans through the bite of infected Culex mosquitoes.; Hepatitis B is a viral infection targeting hepatocytes in the liver, capable of causing both acute hepatitis and long-term chronic liver damage.

Cevap

The statements confirming that Japanese Encephalitis is a viral disease transmitted by Culex mosquitoes, and that Hepatitis B is a viral liver infection, are correct.

The statements identifying Japanese Encephalitis as a mosquito-borne viral infection and Hepatitis B as a viral liver disease are scientifically accurate. Both correctly specify the pathogen category and clinical target.

Adım Adım Çözüm

Analyze the etiology and transmission mode of Japanese Encephalitis.

Japanese Encephalitis is confirmed to be caused by a virus (JEV) and vectored by Culex mosquitoes.

Accurate pathogen classification (viral) and vector identification (Culex mosquito).

Evaluate the causative agent of Typhoid fever.

Typhoid fever is identified as a bacterial infection (Salmonella Typhi), contradicting the claim of a protozoan parasite.

Salmonella Typhi is a bacterium that infects the intestinal tract and bloodstream.

Analyze the target organ and pathogen of Hepatitis B.

Hepatitis B is verified as a viral disease affecting hepatocytes in the human liver.

HBV is a double-stranded DNA virus specifically targeting hepatic tissue.

Evaluate the pathogen type of Tuberculosis.

Tuberculosis is identified as a bacterial disease (Mycobacterium tuberculosis), contradicting the fungal pathogen claim.

Mycobacterium tuberculosis is a rod-shaped bacterium with a unique waxy cell wall.

Anahtar Kavram

Etiological Classification of Human Communicable Diseases

Tahmini Süre:1m 30s

Soru 189Soru →

Arrange the following structural layers of the Sun in correct sequence, moving progressively outward from the solar interior to the outermost regions of the solar atmosphere:

Öğeleri doğru sıraya koymak için sürükleyin

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Cevap

The correct sequence moving from the inner solar region outward to the solar atmosphere is: Radiative Zone, Convective Zone, Photosphere, Chromosphere, and Corona.

Moving progressively outward from the nuclear core, solar energy traverses the Radiative Zone via electromagnetic diffusion, then passes through the Convective Zone via circulating plasma currents. The visible surface boundary is the Photosphere, above which the solar atmosphere is divided into the lower Chromosphere and the extreme outer Corona.

Adım Adım Çözüm

Sequence the internal energy transport layers surrounding the core.

The Radiative Zone sits immediately above the core (

0.25

0.70

solar radii), followed by the Convective Zone (

0.70

1.00

solar radii).

As internal temperature drops outward, plasma opacity increases, causing energy transport to transition from photon radiation to fluid thermal convection.

Identify the boundary separating the solar interior from the solar atmosphere.

The Photosphere lies directly atop the Convective Zone.

The photosphere represents the optical surface of the Sun where light becomes transparent enough to escape freely into space.

Arrange the exterior solar atmospheric layers in outward order.

The Chromosphere sits directly above the photosphere, which is encircled by the outermost extended Corona.

The chromosphere forms the lower, cooler atmospheric shell, whereas coronal magnetic heating causes the extreme outer corona to expand far into space.

Anahtar Kavram

Solar Interior Structure and Atmospheric Stratification

Soru 190Soru →

Consider the following statements regarding human infectious diseases, their biological pathogens, and transmission vectors:

1. Dengue fever is caused by a flavivirus and is transmitted primarily by the female $Aedes\ aegypti$ mosquito.
2. Bubonic plague is caused by a protozoan parasite and is transmitted to humans by sandflies.
3. Trachoma, a leading infectious cause of preventable blindness, is caused by the bacterium $Chlamydia\ trachomatis$ .

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 2 only

1 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: 1 and 3 only

Cevap

1 and 3 only

The statements asserting that Dengue fever is viral (transmitted by Aedes mosquitoes) and Trachoma is bacterial (caused by Chlamydia trachomatis) are scientifically accurate. The statement regarding plague is incorrect because plague is bacterial (Yersinia pestis) and flea-borne, not protozoan or sandfly-borne.

Adım Adım Çözüm

Evaluate Statement 1 regarding Dengue fever

Statement 1 is correct. Dengue fever is an arboviral infection caused by a virus of the Flaviviridae family and transmitted by female Aedes aegypti mosquitoes.

Accurate identification of pathogen type (virus) and vector (Aedes mosquito).

Evaluate Statement 2 regarding Bubonic plague

Statement 2 is incorrect. Bubonic plague is caused by the Gram-negative bacterium Yersinia pestis, not a protozoan parasite. Its primary vector is the Oriental rat flea (Xenopsylla cheopis), not sandflies.

Correction of pathogen classification (bacterium instead of protozoan) and vector (rat flea instead of sandfly).

Evaluate Statement 3 regarding Trachoma

Statement 3 is correct. Trachoma is a contagious bacterial eye infection caused by Chlamydia trachomatis that leads to irreversible blindness if untreated.

Accurate identification of etiology and agent for trachoma.

Anahtar Kavram

Classification of infectious human diseases by pathogen type (viral, bacterial, protozoan) and vectors.

Soru 191Soru →

Industrial fuel gases are synthesized through various chemical reactions to serve specific heating and synthesis applications. Among these, fuel gases are categorized by their combustible and non-combustible constituent gases. Which of the following correctly describes the chemical composition of Water Gas?

A mixture of carbon monoxide (

CO

) and hydrogen (

H_2

)

A mixture of carbon monoxide (

CO

) and nitrogen (

N_2

)

A mixture of methane (

CH_4

) and carbon dioxide (

CO_2

)

A mixture of propane (

C_3H_8

) and butane (

C_4H_{10}

)

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: A mixture of carbon monoxide ( $CO$ ) and hydrogen ( $H_2$ )

Cevap

The chemical composition of Water Gas is a mixture of carbon monoxide (

CO

) and hydrogen (

H_2

Water Gas is an important industrial synthesis gas formed by reacting steam with red-hot carbon at elevated temperatures, yielding an approximate 1:1 mixture of carbon monoxide (

CO

) and hydrogen (

H_2

). It has high calorific value and serves as a precursor in methanol synthesis and fuel cells.

Adım Adım Çözüm

Identify the industrial synthesis reaction for Water Gas

Passing steam (

H_2O

) over red-hot coke (

C

) at high temperatures yields

C + H_2O \rightarrow CO + H_2

This endothermic reaction produces an equimolar mixture of carbon monoxide and hydrogen.

Distinguish Water Gas from other industrial fuel gases

Water Gas consists of

CO + H_2

, whereas Producer Gas consists of

CO + N_2

(formed by passing air over hot coke).

Clear differentiation of fuel gases by their constituent components is essential for industrial synthesis.

Anahtar Kavram

Chemical composition and industrial preparation of fuel gases (Water Gas vs Producer Gas vs Biogas vs LPG)

Soru 192Soru →

Wireless local area networks (WLANs) rely on security protocols to protect data transmitted over radio waves. Regarding the Wi-Fi Protected Access 3 (WPA3) security standard, which of the following statements are correct?

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

It replaces the traditional Pre-Shared Key (PSK) handshake with Simultaneous Authentication of Equals (SAE) to prevent offline dictionary attacks.

It mandates the implementation of Protected Management Frames (PMF) to shield management traffic from eavesdropping and spoofing.

It enforces Forward Secrecy to ensure that compromised long-term network credentials cannot be used to decrypt previously recorded traffic.

It completely eliminates the use of symmetric encryption algorithms and cryptographic hash functions to reduce packet processing overhead.

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: It replaces the traditional Pre-Shared Key (PSK) handshake with Simultaneous Authentication of Equals (SAE) to prevent offline dictionary attacks.; It mandates the implementation of Protected Management Frames (PMF) to shield management traffic from eavesdropping and spoofing.; It enforces Forward Secrecy to ensure that compromised long-term network credentials cannot be used to decrypt previously recorded traffic.

Cevap

The correct statements are those identifying the replacement of PSK with SAE, the mandatory use of Protected Management Frames (PMF), and the enforcement of Forward Secrecy.

WPA3 introduces critical architectural enhancements over WPA2, including Simultaneous Authentication of Equals (SAE) to stop offline dictionary attacks, mandatory Protected Management Frames (PMF) to prevent forged disconnect commands, and Forward Secrecy to protect past network traffic from retroactive decryption.

Adım Adım Çözüm

Analyze key authentication mechanism updates in WPA3.

WPA3 adopts Simultaneous Authentication of Equals (SAE) instead of the 4-way PSK handshake used in WPA2 Personal.

SAE utilizes the Dragonfly key exchange algorithm, preventing attackers from capturing the handshake and guessing passwords offline.

Evaluate frame protection requirements.

Protected Management Frames (PMF) are mandatory across all WPA3 connections.

PMF prevents unauthorized actors from forging administrative packets, such as disassociation or deauthentication frames, to disconnect users.

Examine session security and cryptographic foundations.

WPA3 provides Forward Secrecy and continues to use authenticated symmetric encryption (AES) and cryptographic hashing.

Forward Secrecy protects historic data sessions if password credentials are leaked in the future, while ciphers and hashes provide confidentiality and integrity.

Anahtar Kavram

Wi-Fi Security Protocols and Modern Wireless Encryption (WPA3 Standards)

Soru 193Soru →

With reference to Lagrange Points and orbital dynamics used in space astronomy missions such as Aditya- $L_1$ , consider the following statements:

1. Lagrange points represent positions in space where the combined gravitational pull of two large masses equals the required centripetal force for a small body to orbit along with them.
2. Placing a solar observatory in a halo orbit around the Sun-Earth $L_1$ point provides continuous, unobstructed observation of the Sun without occultation or eclipses.
3. Halo orbits surrounding the Sun-Earth $L_1$ point are permanently stable equilibrium states, eliminating the need for station-keeping thruster maneuvers over the operational lifespan.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: 1 and 2 only

Cevap

1 and 2 only

The correct answer identifies that Statements 1 and 2 are true while Statement 3 is false. Lagrange points represent precise orbital locations where gravitational force balances centripetal acceleration. The Sun-Earth L1 point affords continuous line-of-sight view of the solar disk without Earth or Moon blockage. However, collinear points (L1, L2, L3) are saddle-point equilibria, meaning halo orbits around L1 are inherently unstable and mandate routine station-keeping thruster maneuvers.

Adım Adım Çözüm

Evaluate Statement 1 regarding the physical definition of Lagrange points.

Statement 1 is correct.

Lagrange points are equilibrium positions in a two-body orbital system (such as the Sun and Earth) where gravitational forces and centrifugal forces balance out relative to a rotating frame of reference.

Evaluate Statement 2 regarding solar observation advantages at Sun-Earth L1.

Statement 2 is correct.

Sun-Earth L1 lies approximately 1.5 million km from Earth directly toward the Sun, providing an uninterrupted view of solar activity without atmospheric distortion or planetary eclipses.

Evaluate Statement 3 regarding orbital stability and station-keeping requirements of halo orbits.

Statement 3 is incorrect.

The collinear Lagrange points (L1, L2, L3) are dynamically unstable points of equilibrium. Spacecraft in halo orbits around L1 drift due to gravitational perturbations and require periodic correction firings (station-keeping).

Anahtar Kavram

Lagrange Points and Halo Orbit Mechanics in Deep Space Missions

Tahmini Süre:2m 0s

Soru 194Soru →

Match the nutritional deficiency disorders listed in List-I with their corresponding primary physiological causes or features listed in List-II.

Soldaki öğeye tıklayın, sonra eşleşen sağdaki öğeye tıklayın

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

Kwashiorkor corresponds to severe protein deficiency despite adequate calorie intake; Marasmus corresponds to severe deficiency of both total calories and protein content; Goitre corresponds to deficiency of dietary iodine impairing thyroid hormone synthesis; and Pernicious Anaemia corresponds to deficiency of Vitamin B12 impairing erythrocyte maturation.

Kwashiorkor is caused by severe protein deficiency despite adequate energy intake; Marasmus is caused by severe deficiency of both energy and protein; Goitre is caused by iodine deficiency; and Pernicious Anaemia is caused by Vitamin B12 deficiency.

Adım Adım Çözüm

Differentiate between protein-specific malnutrition and generalized starvation.

Kwashiorkor is linked specifically to protein deficiency with adequate calories, whereas Marasmus is caused by total calorie and protein deprivation.

Distinguishing distinct clinical features of protein-energy malnutrition sub-types.

Identify the dietary cause of thyroid gland enlargement (Goitre).

Goitre is linked to a shortage of mineral iodine in the diet.

Iodine is a key constituent of thyroid hormones.

Determine the vitamin deficiency involved in Pernicious Anaemia.

Pernicious Anaemia is caused by a deficiency of Vitamin B12 (cobalamin).

Vitamin B12 is essential for nucleic acid synthesis during erythrocyte maturation.

Anahtar Kavram

Nutritional and mineral deficiency disorders in human physiology

Soru 195Soru →

In public key infrastructure (PKI) and digital transaction security, which technical process is specifically performed by the sender to create a valid Digital Signature on an electronic document?

Encrypting the cryptographic hash of the document using the sender's private key

Encrypting the entire raw document content using the recipient's public key

Decrypting a shared secret key using a symmetric block cipher algorithm

Hashing the recipient's private key combined with the plain text document

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: Encrypting the cryptographic hash of the document using the sender's private key

Cevap

The correct process for generating a Digital Signature is encrypting the cryptographic hash of the document using the sender's private key.

Generating a digital signature requires taking a cryptographic hash digest of the original document and encrypting that digest using the sender's private key. This operation ensures data integrity, authenticates the sender, and guarantees non-repudiation.

Adım Adım Çözüm

Calculate the document digest

A fixed-length cryptographic hash (e.g., via SHA-256) is computed from the document content.

Hashing ensures data integrity because any minor modification in the source document alters the hash digest.

Apply sender asymmetric encryption

The hash digest is encrypted using the sender's private key, generating the Digital Signature.

Only the legitimate key owner holds the private key, binding their identity to the signature and establishing non-repudiation.

Signature Verification Process

The recipient decrypts the signature using the sender's public key and compares it against the re-calculated document hash.

A match confirms that the document was neither modified in transit nor forged by an unauthorized party.

Anahtar Kavram

Digital Signatures, Asymmetric Cryptography, and Non-repudiation in PKI

Tahmini Süre:1m 0s

Soru 196Soru →

Under India's National Green Hydrogen Mission, selecting appropriate water electrolysis technologies is critical for integrating intermittent renewable power. Which of the following statements correctly describes the operational principle and structural mechanism of a Proton Exchange Membrane (PEM) electrolyser?

It uses a solid acidic polymer electrolyte that conducts protons (

\text{H}^+

) from the anode to the cathode, enabling quick dynamic response times suitable for variable renewable power inputs.

It uses a liquid potassium hydroxide (

\text{KOH}

) solution as the electrolyte to transport hydroxyl ions (

\text{OH}^-

), operating at low current densities with high sensitivity to power fluctuations.

It employs a solid ceramic Yttria-Stabilized Zirconia (YSZ) electrolyte operating at

700^\circ\text{C}

850^\circ\text{C}

that transports oxygen ions (

\text{O}^{2-}

It oxidizes water at the cathode to produce hydrogen gas while generating oxygen gas through reduction at the anode, eliminating the need for noble metal catalysts.

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: It uses a solid acidic polymer electrolyte that conducts protons ( $\text{H}^+$ ) from the anode to the cathode, enabling quick dynamic response times suitable for variable renewable power inputs.

Cevap

The correct operational principle of a Proton Exchange Membrane (PEM) electrolyser is that it uses a solid acidic polymer electrolyte conducting protons (

\text{H}^+

) from anode to cathode, enabling fast dynamic responses to fluctuating renewable power inputs.

The correct statement accurately highlights that PEM water electrolysers utilize a solid acidic polymer electrolyte (such as Nafion) that conducts positively charged protons (

\text{H}^+

) from the anode to the cathode. Water oxidation takes place at the anode, releasing oxygen gas and protons. The protons migrate across the thin polymer membrane to the cathode where hydrogen gas is generated. The solid membrane structure ensures low gas cross-over, high current densities, and rapid response to power fluctuations, making it ideal for pairing with variable renewable energy sources like wind and solar.

Adım Adım Çözüm

Analyze the core components and electrochemical mechanisms of PEM electrolysers.

PEM electrolysers feature a solid polymer membrane (e.g., fluoropolymer-based like Nafion) with sulfonic acid groups acting as an acidic electrolyte.

Understanding the electrolyte type distinguishes PEM from Alkaline (liquid KOH) and SOEC (solid ceramic) technologies.

Examine the half-cell reactions and ion transport direction.

At the anode, water is oxidized (

2\text{H}_2\text{O} \rightarrow \text{O}_2 + 4\text{H}^+ + 4e^-

). Protons (

\text{H}^+

) migrate through the membrane to the cathode, where they are reduced (

4\text{H}^+ + 4e^- \rightarrow 2\text{H}_2

This confirms proton conduction from anode to cathode and correct gas evolution sites (oxygen at anode, hydrogen at cathode).

Evaluate operational characteristics relative to renewable energy integration.

Because of the thin solid polymer membrane and zero-gap cell design, PEM electrolysers exhibit low internal resistance, operation under high differential pressures, and rapid load-following capabilities suited for variable solar/wind power.

This confirms why PEM electrolysers are strategically crucial under the National Green Hydrogen Mission for handling intermittent renewable supply.

Anahtar Kavram

Proton Exchange Membrane (PEM) Water Electrolysis for Green Hydrogen Generation

Soru 197Soru →

Match the chemical compounds listed in List I with their corresponding primary daily life or industrial applications in List II:

Soldaki öğeye tıklayın, sonra eşleşen sağdaki öğeye tıklayın

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

Silver Iodide matches with cloud seeding for artificial rain synthesis; Sodium Benzoate matches with preservative for acidic foods and carbonated beverages; Calcium Phosphide matches with generation of phosphine gas for Holme's marine signals; Aluminium Sulfate matches with coagulant for municipal water clarification.

Each chemical compound is accurately linked to its specific daily life or industrial application: Silver Iodide is used for cloud seeding, Sodium Benzoate serves as an acidic food preservative, Calcium Phosphide generates phosphine gas for marine signaling, and Aluminium Sulfate functions as a water coagulant.

Adım Adım Çözüm

Identify the industrial function of Silver Iodide

Silver iodide (

AgI

) is applied in weather modification via cloud seeding due to its ice-like crystallographic symmetry.

Matching chemical agents to atmospheric weather intervention processes.

Identify the household/food application of Sodium Benzoate

Sodium benzoate (

C_6H_5COONa

) acts as a chemical preservative inhibiting microbial growth in acidic consumables.

Matching organic salts to food chemistry and preservation techniques.

Identify the maritime safety application of Calcium Phosphide

Calcium phosphide (

Ca_3P_2

) hydrolyzes in seawater to liberate spontaneously combustible phosphine gas (

PH_3

) used in Holme's signals.

Matching inorganic phosphides to spontaneous combustion signaling reactions.

Identify the water treatment role of Aluminium Sulfate

Aluminium sulfate (

Al_2(SO_4)_3

) neutralizes negative charges on suspended colloids, promoting flocculation and clarification in water purification plants.

Matching metal salts to industrial coagulation and sanitation processes.

Anahtar Kavram

Industrial and Household Applications of Inorganic and Organic Compounds

Soru 198Soru →

Match the key physical boundaries and astronomical limits listed in List-I with their corresponding definitions and physical significances in space science in List-II:

Soldaki öğeye tıklayın, sonra eşleşen sağdaki öğeye tıklayın

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap

Chandrasekhar Limit corresponds to the maximum mass of a stable white dwarf (

\approx 1.44 M_{\odot}

); Roche Limit corresponds to the minimum distance before tidal disruption occurs; Kármán Line corresponds to the

100\text{ km}

boundary of outer space; and Van Allen Belts correspond to the zones of energetic charged particles trapped in Earth's magnetic field.

Each concept accurately pairs with its physical definition: Chandrasekhar Limit specifies the white dwarf mass limit (

\approx 1.44 M_{\odot}

), Roche Limit describes orbital disruption from tidal forces, Kármán Line establishes the

100\text{ km}

boundary of outer space, and Van Allen Belts describe Earth's trapped particle radiation zones.

Adım Adım Çözüm

Analyze Chandrasekhar Limit

Identified as the astrophysical mass threshold for white dwarfs (

\approx 1.44 M_{\odot}

It marks the upper mass limit where electron degeneracy pressure balances gravity.

Analyze Roche Limit

Identified as the tidal disruption threshold for an orbiting satellite.

Inside this boundary, tidal forces from the primary body exceed the internal gravitational cohesion of the satellite.

Analyze Kármán Line

Identified as the

100\text{ km}

boundary separating atmosphere and outer space.

At this altitude, aerodynamic lift becomes negligible compared to orbital velocity requirements.

Analyze Van Allen Belts

Identified as regions of trapped radiation in Earth's magnetosphere.

Earth's magnetic dipole traps energetic electrons and protons in toroidal zones around the planet.

Anahtar Kavram

Physical Boundaries and Constants in Space Science and Astronomy

Soru 199Soru →

Chemical fertilizers play a crucial role in modern agriculture by replenishing essential plant nutrients. Consider the following statements regarding the chemical properties and behavior of common chemical fertilizers:

1. Urea ( $CO(NH_2)_2$ ) is an organic nitrogenous fertilizer that leaves a strongly alkaline residue in the soil after prolonged application.
2. Calcium Ammonium Nitrate (CAN) is classified as a neutral fertilizer because its calcium carbonate content prevents soil acidification.
3. Single Superphosphate (SSP) provides both primary phosphorus ( $P_2O_5$ ) and secondary sulfur ( $S$ ) nutrients to crops.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

2 and 3 only

1 and 2 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: 2 and 3 only

Cevap

Statements 2 and 3 are correct.

The correct option identifies statements 2 and 3 as correct. Calcium Ammonium Nitrate (CAN) is widely known as a neutral fertilizer ('Kisan Khad') because its carbonate component balances soil acidity. Single Superphosphate (SSP) is valuable because it delivers both phosphorus (~16%

P_2O_5

) and essential sulfur (~12% S) to plants. Statement 1 is incorrect because urea application ultimately increases soil acidity over time due to the microbial nitrification process.

Adım Adım Çözüm

Analyze Statement 1 regarding Urea's chemical residue in soil.

Statement 1 is incorrect.

Urea (

CO(NH_2)_2

) is chemically organic, but inside the soil, it undergoes enzymatic hydrolysis to ammonium ions (

NH_4^+

) followed by nitrification into nitrate ions (

NO_3^-

), releasing hydrogen ions (

H^+

). Thus, long-term application leaves an acidic residue, not an alkaline one.

Analyze Statement 2 regarding Calcium Ammonium Nitrate (CAN).

Statement 2 is correct.

CAN is manufactured by mixing ammonium nitrate with calcium carbonate (limestone or dolomite). The presence of calcium carbonate neutralizes the acid-forming tendency of ammonium nitrate, making CAN a neutral fertilizer suitable for acid soils.

Analyze Statement 3 regarding Single Superphosphate (SSP).

Statement 3 is correct.

SSP is produced by reacting phosphate rock with sulfuric acid. The resulting product contains monocalcium phosphate (supplying phosphorus) and calcium sulfate/gypsum (supplying sulfur (~12%) and calcium).

Anahtar Kavram

Chemical Composition and Soil Interaction of Agricultural Fertilizers

Soru 200Soru →

In network security architecture, a stateful packet inspection firewall evaluates network traffic solely based on individual packet headers (such as source IP and destination IP addresses) in isolation, without maintaining context or tracking state information about active transport-layer connections.

Doğru

Yanlış

Cevabı ve açıklamayı göster

Cevap: False

Cevap

The statement is False. Stateful packet inspection firewalls keep track of active network connections and session state information to make filtering decisions, unlike stateless firewalls which inspect each packet in isolation.

The correct answer is False because stateful packet inspection firewalls maintain context across network sessions by monitoring connection states (such as NEW, ESTABLISHED, or RELATED) in a state table, whereas static/stateless firewalls inspect packets in isolation based solely on isolated header rules.

Adım Adım Çözüm

Analyze the operational definition of stateless packet filtering firewalls.

Stateless firewalls inspect individual network packets based only on static header information like source/destination IP and port numbers without context of previous packets.

Establishing baseline knowledge of stateless firewall mechanisms.

Analyze the operational definition of stateful packet inspection (SPI) firewalls.

Stateful firewalls track the operational state of network connections (e.g., TCP connection establishment, data transfer, termination) using a state table.

Differentiating stateful firewall capabilities from stateless filtering.

Compare the statement's claim against the verified definition of stateful firewalls.

The statement incorrectly attributes stateless firewall behavior (evaluating packets in isolation without tracking context) to stateful firewalls.

Determining the factual validity of the stem statement.

Anahtar Kavram

Stateful vs. Stateless Firewall Architecture

ÖncekiSayfa 10 / 12Sonraki

General Science and Technology

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