A -year-old pregnant patient (G2P1) presents to the obstetric triage unit at weeks gestation after experiencing a sudden gush of clear vaginal fluid. The fluid loss occurred approximately hours ago, and she reports continuous vaginal leaking since that time. The patient notes normal fetal movement and denies painful uterine contractions or vaginal bleeding. Her previous pregnancy resulted in an uncomplicated term vaginal delivery. She takes a daily prenatal vitamin and has no known drug allergies.
Her temperature is C ( F), blood pressure is mm Hg, pulse is /min, and respiratory rate is /min. Speculum examination reveals a visually closed cervical os with a pool of clear fluid in the posterior vaginal fornix. The fluid turns nitrazine paper blue and demonstrates an arborization pattern on microscopic evaluation.
Continuous external fetal monitoring shows a baseline heart rate of /min with moderate variability, presence of spontaneous accelerations, and no decelerations. Tocodynamometry confirms the absence of uterine contractions. Laboratory evaluation reveals:
Hemoglobin: g/dL
Leukocyte count: /mm
Platelet count: /mm
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Administration of intramuscular betamethasone and intravenous ampicillin and azithromycinCevap
- BInduction of labor with intravenous oxytocin
- CPreparation for emergent operative delivery
- DAdministration of intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam
- EAdministration of supplemental oxygen and maternal repositioning to the left lateral decubitus position