A 28-year-old gravida 1 para 0 at 39 weeks gestation is admitted to the labor and delivery unit in active labor. Her pregnancy has been uncomplicated. She is currently receiving a continuous intravenous oxytocin infusion for labor augmentation. Her cervix is 7 cm dilated, 100% effaced, and the fetal station is 0. Maternal blood pressure is 115/75 mm Hg and heart rate is 82/min. The fetal heart rate tracing reveals a baseline of 140/min with moderate variability. There are recurrent, gradual, symmetric decreases in the fetal heart rate that begin after the peak of the uterine contractions and return to baseline only after the contractions have completely ended. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in the management of this patient?
- AProceed immediately to an emergency cesarean delivery
- BReassure the patient and continue expectant management
- CPerform a prophylactic amnioinfusion
- Discontinue the oxytocin infusion and reposition the patientCevap
- EPrepare for an operative vaginal delivery using forceps