A 42-year-old man comes to the clinic for a follow-up visit. Three weeks ago, he presented to the emergency department with a 1-week history of right upper quadrant pain, fever, and weight loss. He had recently returned from a 2-month trip to rural Mexico. At that time, a CT scan of the abdomen revealed a 6-cm, solitary, well-defined cystic lesion in the right hepatic lobe. Serologic testing was positive for a protozoal infection, and he was successfully treated with a 10-day course of oral metronidazole. His symptoms have now completely resolved, and a repeat ultrasound shows the lesion has decreased to 3 cm. His vital signs today are temperature 37.0°C (98.6°F), blood pressure 122/78 mmHg, and pulse 74/min. Physical examination reveals a soft, non-tender abdomen with normoactive bowel sounds. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of 7,200/mm³. He reports no current fever, abdominal pain, or changes in bowel habits. He currently works as a food prep worker at a local restaurant. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Prescribe a course of oral paromomycinCevap
- BPrescribe a course of oral ciprofloxacin
- CContinue oral metronidazole for an additional 14 days
- DSchedule CT-guided percutaneous drainage of the liver lesion
- EReassure the patient and schedule a follow-up visit in 6 months