A -year-old primigravida at weeks gestation is admitted to the labor and delivery unit in active labor. Her prenatal course was uncomplicated. She receives epidural anesthesia and progresses to complete cervical dilation. For the past two hours, she has been actively pushing. Her blood pressure is mm Hg, pulse is /min, and temperature is C ( F). Uterine contractions occur every to minutes and are of adequate intensity. Fetal presentation is cephalic, and the position is direct occiput anterior. The fetal station is , with the fetal scalp visible at the introitus between contractions. Continuous electronic fetal monitoring previously showed a baseline of /min with moderate variability and early decelerations. However, over the past minutes, the baseline has decreased to /min, variability has become absent, and there are recurrent late decelerations with every contraction. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Operative vaginal deliveryCevap
- BCesarean delivery
- CAmnioinfusion
- DAdministration of terbutaline
- EFetal scalp pH assessment