A 26-year-old woman comes to the outpatient psychiatric clinic seeking help for distressing daily routines that are interfering with her job as an accountant. Over the past six months, she has felt compelled to repeatedly check that her computer is locked, her office door is bolted, and her files are perfectly aligned before she can leave work. This routine takes her nearly three hours every evening. She recognizes that these behaviors are excessive and illogical, but she experiences overwhelming dread if she attempts to leave without completing the sequence. Her psychiatric history is significant for a severe manic episode at age 21 that required hospitalization, leading to a diagnosis of bipolar I disorder. She is currently euthymic, and her mood is well-controlled on maintenance lithium therapy. During the assessment, she expresses intense fear that she will be fired if her boss finds out about her condition, explicitly stating she wants this kept completely private. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Commence exposure and response prevention therapyCevap
- BStart sertraline as a single-agent therapy
- CEstablish a diagnosis of schizophreniform disorder and start an antipsychotic
- DDisclose the psychiatric condition to her employer to secure workplace accommodations
- EPrescribe phenelzine as an adjunctive treatment to her current medication regimen