A 24-year-old woman, G1P0, at 14 weeks gestation presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of worsening lower abdominal pain, chills, and a malodorous vaginal discharge. She has a history of asthma and a documented severe allergy to amoxicillin, which caused anaphylaxis and required intubation during childhood. Her temperature is 38.8°C (101.8°F), blood pressure is 112/70 mm Hg, and pulse is 110/min. Physical examination reveals a friable cervix with purulent exudate. Bimanual examination demonstrates exquisite cervical motion tenderness and bilateral adnexal tenderness without palpable masses. Transabdominal ultrasound confirms a viable intrauterine gestation with a normal fetal heart rate and no adnexal fluid collections. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- AAdmission for intravenous cefoxitin and oral doxycycline
- BOutpatient management with intramuscular ceftriaxone and oral azithromycin
- COutpatient management with oral levofloxacin and oral metronidazole
- Admission for intravenous clindamycin and intravenous gentamicinCevap
- EAdmission for intravenous ceftriaxone and oral azithromycin