A 33-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, is evaluated in the birthing center at 39 weeks of gestation. She is undergoing a trial of labor after a previous low transverse cesarean delivery. Her prenatal course was uncomplicated. She is currently in the active phase of the first stage of labor, with contractions previously occurring every 3 minutes. Suddenly, the patient reports a sharp, continuous, tearing lower abdominal pain that is distinctly different from her previous contraction pain. Continuous fetal monitoring shows a sudden, prolonged deceleration with a baseline drop to 75/min for the past 4 minutes, and uterine contractions have ceased on the tocodynamometer. A sterile vaginal examination reveals the cervix is 7 cm dilated, and the fetal presenting part, which was previously at 0 station, is no longer palpable. Maternal blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg and heart rate is 120/min. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Immediate laparotomy and cesarean deliveryCevap
- BIntravenous fluid bolus and maternal left lateral repositioning
- CBedside transabdominal ultrasound of the uterus
- DAdministration of broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics
- EReassurance and continued observation of labor progression