A 28-year-old man comes to the clinic reporting a 2-day history of watery, non-bloody diarrhea. He reports passing 4 to 5 loose bowel movements per day, accompanied by mild, diffuse abdominal cramping. He denies having any fever, nausea, vomiting, or recent travel history. He has no significant past medical history, takes no medications, and has had no recent sick contacts. Vital signs include a temperature of 37.1°C (98.8°F), blood pressure of 118/76 mmHg, pulse of 82/min, and respiratory rate of 14/min. Physical examination reveals a soft, non-distended abdomen with mild diffuse tenderness and hyperactive bowel sounds. There is no rebound tenderness or guarding. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Reassurance and oral rehydration therapyCevap
- BEmpiric therapy with ciprofloxacin
- CEmpiric therapy with azithromycin
- DEmpiric therapy with metronidazole
- EEmpiric therapy with piperacillin-tazobactam