A 31-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, is evaluated in the labor and delivery ward at 38 weeks of gestation. She reports regular, painful uterine contractions. Her prenatal course was notable for a second-trimester ultrasound showing a succenturiate placental lobe. On admission, her blood pressure is 116/74 mm Hg, and her heart rate is 84/min. The fetal heart rate tracing demonstrates a baseline of 145/min with moderate variability and no decelerations. Cervical examination reveals 5 cm dilation and 80% effacement with a bulging amniotic sac. The attending physician performs an artificial rupture of membranes to augment labor. Immediately following the procedure, the patient experiences a sudden gush of bright red vaginal bleeding. The patient reports no new abdominal pain. Simultaneously, the fetal heart rate drops abruptly to a baseline of 70/min and remains there for 4 minutes. The patient is awake, alert, and expresses concern about the baby's status. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- AMaternal repositioning and intravenous fluid bolus
- BTranscervical amnioinfusion
- Emergency cesarean deliveryCevap
- DRoutine observation for normal bloody show
- EDefer operative consent to the patient's health care proxy