A 33-year-old gravida 2, para 1, at 39 weeks gestation is admitted to the hospital in active labor. Her prenatal course was uncomplicated. Her previous pregnancy resulted in a low transverse cesarean delivery due to breech presentation. She strongly desires a vaginal birth and is undergoing a trial of labor after cesarean. Upon admission, cervical examination shows 5 cm dilation and 90% effacement, with the fetal head at -1 station. Epidural analgesia is administered with excellent effect. Three hours later, the patient suddenly complains of a sharp, tearing lower abdominal pain that radiates to her right shoulder, breaking through the epidural block. Concurrently, the fetal heart rate monitor demonstrates a sudden, prolonged deceleration to 75/min that has persisted for 4 minutes. A repeat cervical examination reveals 5 cm dilation and the fetal presenting part is now palpable at -3 station. Maternal blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg and pulse is 118/min. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- AMaternal left lateral repositioning and intravenous fluid bolus
- BInitiation of transcervical amnioinfusion
- Emergency laparotomyCevap
- DAdministration of intravenous terbutaline
- EAdministration of intravenous ephedrine