A 19-year-old collegiate gymnast comes to the clinic for evaluation of absent menstrual periods for the past 10 months. Menarche occurred at age 13, and her menses were previously regular, occurring every 28 to 30 days. She trains approximately 25 hours per week and follows a strict, calorie-restricted diet to maintain her competition weight. Four weeks ago, she sustained a tibial stress fracture. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. She is not sexually active. Vital signs show a blood pressure of 94/60 mm Hg and a heart rate of 52/min. Her BMI is . Physical examination is unremarkable except for fine, downy hair over her face and arms. Pelvic examination reveals normal female external genitalia and a normal appearing cervix.
Laboratory studies show:
| Test | Result |
|---|---|
| -hCG, serum | Negative |
| Follicle-stimulating hormone | |
| Luteinizing hormone | |
| Prolactin | |
| Thyroid-stimulating hormone | |
| Estradiol |
A dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan reveals a Z-score of at the lumbar spine. The patient is anxious about her bone health and requests a prescription to "fix her hormones." She states she must maintain her current training intensity for an upcoming championship. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Multidisciplinary intervention focusing on increased caloric intake and modified exerciseCevap
- BPrescription of combined oral contraceptive pills
- CInitiation of transdermal estradiol and cyclic oral micronized progesterone
- DAdministration of a bisphosphonate (e.g., alendronate)
- EMeasurement of serum testosterone and dehydroepiandrosterone sulfate (DHEA-S)