A -year-old man is evaluated on the postoperative wards on hospital day following an urgent open reduction and internal fixation of a right femoral neck fracture. For the past days, he has experienced progressive abdominal distension, nausea, and a failure to pass flatus or stool. hours ago, all opioid analgesics were discontinued, and he was placed on bowel rest with nasogastric tube decompression and intravenous fluid support. Despite these measures, his symptoms have worsened. His temperature is (), pulse is , blood pressure is , and respirations are . The abdomen is massively distended and tympanitic to percussion. It is mildly tender diffusely, but there is no guarding, rigidity, or rebound tenderness. Bowel sounds are absent. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of , potassium of , and magnesium of . An electrocardiogram shows normal sinus rhythm. Computed tomography of the abdomen and pelvis with intravenous contrast reveals marked dilation of the colon extending from the cecum to the splenic flexure, with a maximal cecal diameter of . There is no discrete transition point, obstructing mass, or pneumoperitoneum. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Intravenous neostigmineCevap
- BColonoscopic decompression
- CImmediate exploratory laparotomy
- DOral polyethylene glycol
- EIntravenous piperacillin-tazobactam