An -year-old woman arrives at the emergency department accompanied by her daughter. She reports a -day history of progressively worsening, colicky abdominal pain accompanied by multiple episodes of dark green vomiting. The patient mentions she has not passed gas or had a bowel movement for the past hours. Her past medical history includes hypertension, diet-controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus, and osteoarthritis. Ten years ago, she experienced recurrent episodes of severe postprandial right upper quadrant pain but elected not to undergo surgical intervention. She has never had abdominal or pelvic surgery.
Her temperature is (), blood pressure is , pulse is , and respiratory rate is . Physical examination reveals dry oral mucosa. The abdomen is markedly distended and tympanic to percussion. Auscultation reveals high-pitched, tinkling bowel sounds. There is mild, diffuse abdominal tenderness but no rigidity, guarding, or rebound tenderness. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of .
A plain radiograph of the abdomen reveals prominently dilated loops of small bowel with multiple air-fluid levels. Additionally, a branching radiolucency is visible overlying the central liver shadow, and a opaque calcified density is noted in the right lower quadrant.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Surgical enterolithotomyCevap
- BNasogastric tube decompression and clinical observation
- CCholecystectomy with concurrent fistula repair
- DIntravenous administration of broad-spectrum antibiotics
- EEndoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography