A 34-year-old woman comes to the office to establish care. Her primary concern today is an intense, burning vaginal itch accompanied by a thick, white discharge that began five days ago. She is particularly distressed because this marks her fourth identical presentation in the past ten months. She notes that during each of the three prior occurrences, a clinician at a local urgent care prescribed a single antifungal tablet that provided complete relief within days, only for the symptoms to return a few months later. Her medical history is significant for type 2 diabetes mellitus, and her most recent hemoglobin A1c was 8.4%. On pelvic examination, there is marked erythema and edema of the vulva and vagina, with adherent, curd-like discharge in the vaginal vault. The vaginal pH is 4.2. A wet mount preparation with 10% potassium hydroxide reveals abundant budding yeast and pseudohyphae. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacologic management strategy for this patient?
- Oral fluconazole every 72 hours for three doses, followed by weekly oral fluconazole for 6 monthsCevap
- BSingle dose of oral fluconazole for the patient and empirical oral fluconazole for her sexual partner
- COral fluconazole every 72 hours for two doses, with no further maintenance therapy
- DIntravaginal boric acid capsules daily for 14 days
- EIntravaginal metronidazole gel daily for 5 days