A -year-old man is evaluated in the hospital for worsening bloody diarrhea and abdominal pain. He was admitted days ago for a severe exacerbation of ulcerative pancolitis, presenting at that time with bloody bowel movements daily, severe cramps, and a weight loss of (). On admission, stool studies were negative for Clostridioides difficile toxin, Salmonella, Shigella, and Campylobacter. He was subsequently started on high-dose intravenous methylprednisolone.
Despite days of corticosteroid therapy, the patient's symptoms have rapidly deteriorated. He now reports bloody bowel movements a day and new-onset subjective fevers. His temperature is (), blood pressure is , and pulse is . Physical examination reveals a distended abdomen with diffuse tenderness, but no rebound or guarding is present.
Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin:
Leukocyte count:
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate:
An unprepared flexible sigmoidoscopy reveals diffuse mucosal erythema, friability, and several large, deep, punched-out ulcers in the descending colon. Histopathologic examination of the ulcer base biopsies demonstrates cytomegaly with prominent eosinophilic intranuclear inclusions surrounded by a clear halo.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Initiate intravenous ganciclovirCevap
- BAdminister intravenous infliximab
- CBegin intravenous ceftriaxone and metronidazole
- DProceed to urgent subtotal colectomy
- EInitiate oral vancomycin