A 27-year-old primigravida at 40 weeks gestation is undergoing induction of labor for oligohydramnios. She is currently receiving a continuous oxytocin drip and has a functioning epidural block. Her blood pressure is 118/76 mm Hg, pulse is 88/min, and temperature is 37.2°C (99.0°F). A cervical examination shows 5 cm dilation, 90% effacement, and -1 station. The fetal monitor records 7 uterine contractions per 10-minute window. The fetal heart rate baseline is 135/min with minimal variability and recurrent late decelerations. The oxytocin drip is immediately stopped, the patient is repositioned to her left side, and an intravenous fluid bolus is administered. Fifteen minutes later, the contraction frequency remains 7 per 10-minute window, and the fetal heart rate tracing is unchanged. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- ATranscervical intraamniotic saline infusion
- BUrgent cesarean section
- Subcutaneous terbutaline injectionCevap
- DIntravenous ephedrine bolus
- EArtificial rupture of membranes