A physician is evaluating a 64-year-old male patient who reports the sudden onset of profuse, watery diarrhea and lower abdominal cramps that began three days ago. The patient recently completed a 10-day course of clindamycin for a dental abscess. He currently experiences up to nine bowel movements daily. His temperature is (), pulse is , and blood pressure is . Physical examination of the abdomen reveals mild, diffuse tenderness without rebound or guarding. Laboratory results show a leukocyte count of . Stool testing is positive for *Clostridioides difficile* toxin via nucleic acid amplification testing. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacologic intervention for this patient's current condition?
- AAdministration of intravenous vancomycin
- Administration of oral vancomycinCevap
- CAdministration of oral metronidazole
- DAdministration of intravenous ceftriaxone
- EAdministration of oral ciprofloxacin
Cevap
Administration of oral vancomycin
The patient has an initial episode of Clostridioides difficile infection (CDI), likely precipitated by recent clindamycin use. According to current clinical guidelines, the first-line treatment for an initial episode of CDI is oral vancomycin or oral fidaxomicin. Oral vancomycin is poorly absorbed, allowing it to achieve very high, effective intraluminal concentrations directly at the site of the infection in the colon.
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The first-line treatment for an initial episode of Clostridioides difficile infection is oral vancomycin or oral fidaxomicin.
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