A 26-year-old woman is evaluated in the outpatient clinic for a two-month history of sudden, unpredictable episodes of overwhelming fear, palpitations, and a sensation of impending doom. These episodes reach their peak intensity within minutes and typically resolve after 15 to 20 minutes. Due to an intense fear of experiencing another episode in public, she has stopped using public transportation and avoids going to shopping malls. Her past psychiatric history is significant for a psychiatric hospitalization at age 21 for a severe manic episode involving grandiosity, rapid speech, and a decreased need for sleep. She was treated with a mood stabilizer at that time but discontinued the medication three years ago and has remained euthymic since. She also has a history of opioid use disorder and has been successfully maintained on buprenorphine-naloxone therapy for the past three years. Vital signs are within normal limits, and a recent comprehensive medical workup was unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Initiate cognitive-behavioral therapyCevap
- BInitiate sertraline monotherapy
- CInitiate clonazepam
- DInitiate bupropion monotherapy
- EInitiate phenelzine monotherapy