A 7-year-old girl is brought to the clinic by her parents due to a worsening "waddling" gait and a limp. The parents first noticed the gait abnormality 8 months ago, but it has become more pronounced recently. The patient does not complain of pain in her hips, knees, or back, and she has no history of trauma. Her parents note that she has been less energetic lately, frequently falling asleep after school, and her teacher reported a decline in her academic performance over the past two terms. She also has a history of chronic constipation requiring daily osmotic laxatives. Her height is at the 3rd percentile for her age, and her weight is at the 85th percentile. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination reveals a wide-based gait. There is restricted internal rotation and abduction of both hips. Neurologic examination shows normal muscle bulk and tone, but deep tendon reflexes demonstrate delayed relaxation phases. Bilateral radiographs of the pelvis demonstrate symmetric fragmentation, flattening, and sclerosis of both capital femoral epiphyses. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in evaluating the underlying cause of this patient's orthopedic findings?
- AGenetic analysis for a mutation in the COMP gene
- BHemoglobin electrophoresis
- Measurement of serum thyroid-stimulating hormoneCevap
- DArthrocentesis of the hip joints
- EMRI of the lumbar spine