A 62-year-old woman with a history of cirrhosis secondary to metabolic dysfunction-associated steatohepatitis presents to the hospital complaining of generalized abdominal pain and lethargy for the past two days. Her temperature is (), blood pressure is , and pulse is . Physical examination shows a noticeably distended abdomen that is diffusely tender to palpation, accompanied by a positive fluid wave test. A diagnostic paracentesis is promptly performed. The ascitic fluid analysis demonstrates an absolute neutrophil count of . Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the pharmacologic management of this patient?
- AIntravenous piperacillin-tazobactam and vancomycin
- BOral ciprofloxacin
- Intravenous ceftriaxoneCevap
- DIntravenous metronidazole
- EOral rifaximin
Cevap
Intravenous ceftriaxone
This patient's clinical presentation of fever and generalized abdominal pain, combined with an ascitic fluid absolute neutrophil count (ANC) greater than , is definitively diagnostic for spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP). The most common causative organisms for this condition are enteric Gram-negative rods (such as Escherichia coli and Klebsiella) and streptococcal species. The first-line targeted empirical treatment for community-acquired SBP is a third-generation cephalosporin, such as intravenous ceftriaxone or cefotaxime, which effectively covers these typical pathogens.
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Anahtar Kavram
The diagnosis of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP) is confirmed with an ascitic fluid absolute neutrophil count (ANC) , and the standard first-line treatment is a third-generation cephalosporin such as intravenous ceftriaxone.
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