A female college sophomore presents to the ambulatory care center complaining of progressively worsening pelvic pain and unusual vaginal discharge over the past hours. The -year-old patient reports that the pain is bilateral and accompanied by a low-grade fever. Her past medical history is notable for recalcitrant nodulocystic acne, which is currently managed with oral isotretinoin. She relies on a progestin-only pill for contraception and mentions she recently started a sexual relationship with a new male partner without using barrier protection. On triage, her temperature is (), blood pressure is mmHg, heart rate is /min, and respiratory rate is /min. Physical examination reveals a mucopurulent cervical discharge. Bimanual examination demonstrates pronounced cervical motion tenderness and bilateral adnexal tenderness without palpable masses. A point-of-care urine pregnancy test is negative. She is tolerating oral hydration without difficulty. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the pharmacologic management of this patient?
- AInitiate outpatient therapy with intramuscular ceftriaxone, oral doxycycline, and oral metronidazole
- BReassure the patient that her symptoms represent physiologic changes from her oral contraceptive
- Initiate outpatient therapy with intramuscular ceftriaxone, oral azithromycin, and oral metronidazoleCevap
- DAdmit the patient to the hospital and administer intravenous meropenem
- EContact the patient's parents to obtain consent prior to prescribing therapy