A 58-year-old man presents to the outpatient clinic with a 2-day history of steady left lower quadrant abdominal pain. The pain is associated with mild nausea and a decreased appetite. He denies vomiting, hematochezia, or melena. He has a history of essential hypertension treated with amlodipine. He underwent a screening colonoscopy three years ago, which revealed scattered diverticula but no polyps or malignancy. Vital signs are temperature 37.6°C (99.7°F), blood pressure 132/82 mmHg, heart rate 84/min, and respiratory rate 16/min. The abdomen is soft and non-distended. There is focal tenderness to deep palpation in the left lower quadrant, but no guarding or rebound tenderness is appreciated. Complete blood count shows a leukocyte count of 11,200/mm³. A CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis with contrast reveals focal thickening of the sigmoid colon wall and adjacent pericolic fat stranding. There are no fluid collections, abscesses, pneumatosis, or free intraperitoneal air. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- AHospitalization and initiation of intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam
- BUrgent colonoscopy to evaluate for underlying malignancy
- Oral fluid hydration, symptom control, and observationCevap
- DInitiation of oral ciprofloxacin and metronidazole
- ECT-guided percutaneous drainage of the affected colonic segment