Soru

A 13-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his mother due to a 3-week history of right knee pain and a progressive limp. He describes the pain as a dull, constant ache that worsens with physical activity. He denies any recent trauma, fever, chills, or weight loss. His medical history is unremarkable. He is at the 95th percentile for weight and 50th percentile for height. Vital signs are within normal limits. On physical examination, the right knee has no effusion, erythema, warmth, or tenderness to palpation. Ligamentous and meniscal testing of the knee is unremarkable. When asked to walk, the patient demonstrates an antalgic gait. During range of motion testing of the right lower extremity, passive flexion of the right hip results in obligatory external rotation of the thigh. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?