A 46-year-old woman, G1P1, presents to the clinic with a 4-week history of heavy, erratic vaginal bleeding. Her previous menstrual cycles were unpredictable, occurring every 2 to 6 months. She has a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and obesity. She also notes severe fatigue and cold intolerance over the past several months. Her BMI is . Vital signs show a blood pressure of and a heart rate of . Pelvic examination reveals a normal-appearing cervix with dark blood in the vaginal vault, and no palpable adnexal masses. A urine beta-hCG test is negative.
Initial laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin:
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH): (Normal: )
Free thyroxine (T4): (Normal: )
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Endometrial biopsyCevap
- BTransvaginal ultrasonography
- CInitiation of levothyroxine therapy
- DPlacement of a levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine device
- EMeasurement of serum testosterone and dehydroepiandrosterone sulfate