A 28-year-old primigravida at 40 weeks gestation is admitted to the labor and delivery unit in spontaneous labor. Her prenatal course has been uncomplicated. Her vital signs are within normal limits. Cervical examination reveals dilation to 5 cm, 90% effacement, and 0 station. Epidural analgesia is providing adequate pain relief.
Continuous fetal heart rate monitoring demonstrates a baseline of 140/min, minimal variability, and no spontaneous accelerations. Over the past 45 minutes, there are intermittent decelerations occurring with approximately 30% of contractions. These decelerations begin after the peak of the contraction, take more than 30 seconds to reach their nadir, and slowly return to baseline.
In response, the patient is repositioned to the left lateral decubitus position, administered a 500-mL intravenous fluid bolus, and given supplemental oxygen. Thirty minutes later, her contractions are occurring every 3 to 4 minutes. The fetal heart rate tracing remains unchanged, with persistent minimal variability and intermittent late decelerations.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Digital fetal scalp stimulationCevap
- BImmediate cesarean delivery
- CAdministration of subcutaneous terbutaline
- DTranscervical amnioinfusion
- EContinued expectant management