A 24-year-old woman is evaluated in the outpatient clinic for persistent vaginal discharge and vulvar pruritus. Three weeks ago, she presented with a copious, malodorous, yellow-green vaginal discharge and was diagnosed with a vaginal infection. At that time, she was treated with a single 2-gram dose of oral metronidazole. She reports that her symptoms improved for a few days but subsequently returned to their initial severity. The patient is in a monogamous relationship; her male partner was simultaneously treated with a single 2-gram dose of oral metronidazole, and they abstained from sexual activity for 10 days following treatment. Vital signs are within normal limits. Pelvic examination reveals a frothy, yellowish-green vaginal pooling and diffuse punctate hemorrhages on the exocervix. The vaginal pH is 6.5. Microscopic evaluation of a saline wet mount demonstrates numerous polymorphonuclear leukocytes and motile, flagellated organisms slightly larger than white blood cells. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in pharmacotherapy for this patient?
- A 7-day course of oral metronidazoleCevap
- BA 5-day course of intravaginal metronidazole gel
- CRepeat the single 2-gram dose of oral metronidazole
- DA single 150-mg oral dose of fluconazole
- EIntramuscular ceftriaxone and a 7-day course of oral doxycycline