An otherwise healthy 26-year-old woman presents to the ambulatory care center complaining of pelvic pain and abnormal vaginal discharge that began 3 days ago. She describes the pain as a dull, continuous ache in her lower abdomen that worsens with intercourse. She denies any nausea, vomiting, or subjective fever. Her medical history is unremarkable, and she has been using a levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine device for contraception over the past two years. Her last menstrual period was three weeks ago. She reports having a new male sexual partner as of two months ago. Vital signs show a temperature of 37.6 C (99.7 F), blood pressure of 112/74 mm Hg, and a heart rate of 84/min. Abdominal palpation elicits mild tenderness in the bilateral lower quadrants but no rebound tenderness or guarding. On pelvic examination, the intrauterine device strings are visible at the cervical os. Purulent material is seen exuding from the endocervical canal. Bimanual examination demonstrates pronounced cervical motion tenderness and bilateral adnexal tenderness without discrete masses. A urine pregnancy test is negative. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Administer intramuscular ceftriaxone, oral doxycycline, and oral metronidazole; leave the intrauterine device in placeCevap
- BAdminister intramuscular ceftriaxone, oral doxycycline, and oral metronidazole; remove the intrauterine device
- CAdmit the patient for intravenous cefoxitin and oral doxycycline; leave the intrauterine device in place
- DRemove the intrauterine device and submit it for microbial cultures prior to initiating antibiotics
- EPerform a transvaginal ultrasound to rule out a tubo-ovarian abscess prior to initiating antibiotics