A 29-year-old primigravida at 32 weeks gestation is admitted to the labor and delivery unit for the management of preeclampsia with severe features. Her admission blood pressure was mmHg. She was immediately started on an intravenous magnesium sulfate infusion for seizure prophylaxis and received a dose of intravenous hydralazine. Three hours later, she complains of sudden-onset, severe shortness of breath and a cough producing pink, frothy sputum. Her temperature is (), blood pressure is mmHg, pulse is /min, and respirations are /min. Pulse oximetry shows on room air. Physical examination reveals bibasilar crackles extending to the mid-lung fields. Deep tendon reflexes are 2+ bilaterally. The fetal heart rate tracing shows a baseline of /min with moderate variability and no decelerations. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient's acute respiratory symptoms?
- Administration of intravenous furosemideCevap
- BAdministration of intravenous calcium gluconate
- CAdministration of an intravenous fluid bolus
- DAdministration of intravenous labetalol
- EImmediate cesarean delivery