A 30-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 2, is evaluated on postoperative day 1 following an uncomplicated scheduled cesarean delivery for a persistent breech presentation. The patient reports mild incisional pain and moderate lower abdominal cramping that worsens significantly when she breastfeeds her newborn. Her temperature is 37.7°C (99.9°F), blood pressure is 112/70 mm Hg, pulse is 82/min, and respirations are 14/min. Physical examination shows a soft abdomen with a clean, dry, and intact surgical incision. The uterine fundus is firm, palpable at the umbilicus, and mildly tender to deep palpation. Vaginal examination reveals moderate dark red bleeding without large clots. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of 16,500/mm³. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Reassurance and routine postpartum careCevap
- BIntravenous clindamycin and gentamicin
- CChest radiography
- DPelvic ultrasonography
- EAdministration of methylergonovine