A 57-year-old woman is evaluated in the clinic for three weeks of intermittent vaginal spotting. She experienced menopause seven years ago and had no vaginal bleeding until this recent episode. She denies abdominal pain, weight loss, or changes in bowel and bladder habits. Her past medical history is significant only for hypertension, which is well controlled with amlodipine. Her body mass index is 24 kg/m². Vital signs are within normal limits. On pelvic examination, the vulva and vagina appear atrophic. The cervix has no visible lesions, but blood is noted at the external os. Bimanual examination reveals a firm, mobile, non-tender, 8-cm mass in the right adnexa. A transvaginal ultrasound demonstrates an 8.5-cm right ovarian mass with both solid and cystic components. The endometrial stripe thickness is measured at 13 mm. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Endometrial biopsyCevap
- BComputed tomography of the abdomen and pelvis
- CExploratory laparotomy
- DEmpiric trial of cyclic progestin therapy
- ERepeat transvaginal ultrasound in 6 weeks