Evaluated in the emergency department for severe nausea, vomiting, and vaginal bleeding, a 22-year-old primigravida reports her last menstrual period occurred weeks ago. Her blood pressure is mm Hg, and her pulse is /min. Physical examination reveals a uterus that is palpable midway between the pubic symphysis and the umbilicus. Fetal heart tones cannot be auscultated by Doppler. Quantitative serum -hCG is mIU/mL. Pelvic ultrasonography demonstrates a heterogeneous, echogenic intrauterine mass containing multiple small cystic spaces, with no fetal pole identified. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Suction curettageCevap
- BAdministration of vaginal misoprostol
- CIntramuscular methotrexate therapy
- DTotal abdominal hysterectomy
- EReassurance and repeat ultrasonography in one week
Cevap
Suction curettage is the correct next step in management.
Suction curettage is correct because it is the standard, definitive initial management for a complete hydatidiform mole. This patient exhibits classic signs of a complete mole, including size greater than dates, an abnormally high -hCG level, hyperemesis, early-onset preeclampsia, and a 'snowstorm' appearance on ultrasound. Prompt evacuation via suction curettage removes the source of the excessive hormone production, immediately mitigates maternal risks (like preeclampsia and hemorrhage), and preserves the uterus for future childbearing. Following evacuation, she will require serial -hCG monitoring to ensure the tissue does not progress to gestational trophoblastic neoplasia (choriocarcinoma).
Adım Adım Çözüm
Anahtar Kavram
Diagnosis and primary management of Gestational Trophoblastic Disease (Complete Hydatidiform Mole).